Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 3 Medicine > Laz Paper 3 > Flashcards

Laz Paper 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which condition is trigeminal neuraligia associated with?

A

Multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which virus is involved in shingles?

A

Varicella Zoster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome?

A

Reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does Ramsay Hunt syndrome present?

A
  • Unilateral facial palsy
  • Vesicular rash on the ear
  • Dry eyes/ mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the eye symptoms of cluster headache?

A
  • Lacrimation
  • Conjunctival injection
  • Eyelid swelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why can coeliac disease cause steatorrhea?

A

Due to the malabsorption of fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the antibodies in coeliac disease?

A
  • Anti-ttg
  • Anti-endomysial
  • Anti-gliadin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are air bronchograms?

A

Shaddowing of bronchi on x-ray due to filling of the alveoli with something other than air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the characteristics of heart failure on x-ray?

A
  • Alveolar oedema
  • Kerly B lines
  • Cardiomegaly
  • Upper lobe diversion
  • Pleural effusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is found on blood film of multiple myeloma?

A
  • Rouleaux proteins

Sticky IgG causing red blood cells to stack together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the diagnosis if a patient develops an annual cough for 3 months of the year?

A

Chronic bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the blood film appearance of myelodysplastic syndrome?

A
  • Hyposegmented nuclei of granulocytes
  • Granulocytes with no granulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the blood film appearance of myelofibrosis?

A
  • Dacrocytes (tear drop cells)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the best investigation for diagnosing TB?

A

An acid fast bacillus test on a sputum sample using the Ziel Neelson stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the first line investigation for suspected pancreatitis?

A

Transabdominal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What can abdominal ultrasound scan for pancreatitis show?

A
  • Pancreatitic inflammation
  • Free fluid
  • Pancreatic calcification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why can pancreatitis not be excluded on the grounds of normal amylase?

A

Because the half life of amylase is 10-12 hours therefore it may appear normal within 24 hours despite pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Kussmaul’s sign?

A

Raised JVP on inspiration seen in pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which strain of malaria is responsible for causing the highest number of deaths?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the presentation of Malaria?

A

Cylical flu like symptoms with joint and muscle aches

21
Q

What is the difference in thick and thin blood films investigating Malaria?

A

Thick blood films

  • More sensitive
  • Used for detecting presence of malaria

Thin blood films

  • Used for identifying causative organism
22
Q

How do patients with COPD maintain their neural respiratory drive?

A

Through hypoxic drive as there is chronic CO2 retention

23
Q

What is the SpO2 aim for patients with COPD?

A

88-92%

24
Q

Which oxygen delivering system will give the tightest delivery control?

A

Venturi mask

25
Q

How does hypercalcaemia affect urinary frequency?

A

There is increased Ca2+ excretion in the urine which increases H2O excreted therefore increases urinary frequency

26
Q

Which electrolyte imbalance will cause ventricular tachycardia?

A

Mg2+

27
Q

What are the BLS guidelines for pulseless ventricular tachycardia in the hospital setting?

A
  1. Defibrillate
  2. Commence CPR
  3. Defibrillate
  4. After 2nd defibrillation administer adrenaline
  5. Administer adrenaline every 3-5 minutes
  6. After 3rd defibrillation, administer amiodarone
28
Q

What is the function of atropine in cardiology?

A

It’s administered in acute complete heart block

29
Q

Why are the sigmoid and caecum more likely to under volvulus?

A

Because they’re loosly attached to the mesentry

30
Q

What are the signs on x-ray produced by sigmoid and caecal volvulus?

A
  • Sigmoid- coffee bean sign
  • Caecum- embryo sign
31
Q

How does damage to Wernicke’s vs Broca’s area manifest?

A
  • Wernicke’s (what?) lack of understanding of speech but patients will be able to speak in fluent non-sensical sentences
    • Receptive aphasia
  • Broca’s (b-) lack of speech production but sound understanding
    • Expressive aphasia
32
Q

How will damage to the arcuate fasciculus manifest?

A

Patients will be able to understand and produce speech, but speech repetition is poor

33
Q

What dosage of calcium gluconate should be given in hyperkalaemia?

A

10ml 10%

34
Q

What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?

A

Rheumatic fever

35
Q

Which medications increase the risk of duodenal ulcers?

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Aspirin
  • Bisphonsphonates
  • Steroids
36
Q

What pulmonary consequences can rheumatoid arthritis have?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

37
Q

What is the first step in the management of TIA?

A

300mg Aspirin

38
Q

When would thrombolysis be considered for stroke?

A

If patients are presenting with an ischaemic stroke within 4.5 hours

39
Q

Which patients is carotid endartectomy considered in?

A

If they have >70% stenosis of the carotid arteries

40
Q

Which organism causes whooping cough?

A

Bordatella pertussis

41
Q

What is an A wave (J waves)?

A

Backflow of blood up the superior vena cava due to atrial contraction

42
Q

What is a C wave (J waves)?

A

Ventricular contraction causing the tricuspid valve to bulge causing a backflow of blood into the SVC

43
Q

What is a V wave (J waves)?

A

Increased venous return to the right atrium occuring in late systole

44
Q

What is an X descent (J waves)?

A

Atrial relaxation and filling

45
Q

What is a Y descent (J waves)?

A

Blood flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle via an open valve

46
Q

What is a cannon A wave (J waves)?

A

Backflow of blood into the SVC when the atria and ventricles contract at the same time, as the atria are contracting against a closed tricuspid valve

Most commonly seen in complete heart block

47
Q

What is the presentation of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Lower back pain that improves as the day progresses

48
Q

What is Schober’s test?

A
  • Patient standing straight
  • A mark made 5cm below the iliac crest and 10cm above the iliac crest
  • Patient leans forward and the distance between the two marks should expand to 21cm

Year 3 Medicine (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions