Larry Jarrell busn 110, 9-13 Flashcards

1
Q

Financial capital–

A

Funds that a firm uses to acquire assets and finance its operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Finance–

A

functional area of business that is concerned with finding the best sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Risk–

A

degree of uncertainty regarding the outcome of a decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Risk-return tradeoff–

A

observation that financial opportunities that offer high rates of return are riskier than those offering lower rates of return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Financial ratio analysis–

A

computing ratios that compare values of key accounts listed on financial statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Liquidity ratios–

A

measure the ability of a firm to obtain the cash it needs to pay its short-term debt as they come due

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Liquid asset–

A

can quickly be converted into cash with little risk of loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Asset management ratios–

A

measure how effectively a firm uses its assets to generate revenue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Leverage ratio–

A

measure the extent to which a firm relies on debt financing in its capital structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Profitability ratios–

A

measure the rate of return a firm earns on various measures of investment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Budgeted income statements–

A

shows how a firm’s budgeted sales and costs will affect expected net income

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Budgeted balance sheet–

A

forecasts the types and amounts of assets a firm will need to implement its future plans and how the firm will finance the assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cash budget–

A

detailed forecast of future cash flows; helps financial managers identify when their firm is likely to experience temporary shortages or surpluses of cash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Trade credit–

A

granted by sellers when they deliver goods and services to customers without requiring immediate payment, and it is a form of spontaneous financing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Factor–

A

company that provides short-term financing to firms by purchasing their accounts receivables at a discount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Line of credit–

A

arrangement between a firm and a bank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Revolving credit agreement–

A

bank makes a binding commitment to provide funds up to a specified credit limit at any time during the term of the agreement; guaranteed line of credit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Commercial paper–

A

short-term promissory notes issued by large corporations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Retained earnings–

A

part of a firm’s net income that is reinvested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Equity financing–

A

funds provided by the owners of a company

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Debt financing–

A

funds provided by lenders (creditors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Capital structure–

A

mix of equity and debt financing that a firm uses to meet its permanent financing needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dodd-Frank act–

A

law enacted in the aftermath of the financial crisis of 2008-2009 that strengthened government oversight of financial markets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cash equivalents–

A

safe and highly liquid assets that many firms list with their cash holdings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

U.S. treasury bills (T-bills)–

A

short-term marketable IOUs issued by the U.S. federal government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Money market mutual funds–

A

pool funds from many investors and use these funds to purchase very safe, highly liquid securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Capital budgeting–

A

procedure a firm uses to evaluate long-term investment proposals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Time value of money–

A

principle that a dollar received in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Present value–

A

amount of money that, if invested today at a given rate of interest, would grow to become some future amount in a specified number of periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Net present value (NPV)–

A

sum of the present values of expected future cash flows from an investment minus the cost of that investment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Financial markets–

A

transfer funds from savers to borrowers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Depository institution–

A

get funds by accepting checking and savings deposits and lending funds to borrowers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Credit union–

A

cooperatives that are owned by its depositors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Savings and loan association–

A

accept savings and checking account deposits to make mortgage loans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Securities broker–

A

act as agents for investors who want to buy and sell financial securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Securities dealer–

A

participate directly in securities markets, and buy and sell stocks for their own accounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Investment bank–

A

specialize in helping firms raise financial capital by issuing securities in primary markets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Federal Reserve Act of 1913–

A

established the federal reserve system (the Fed) as the central bank of the united states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Banking Act of 1933–

A

established federal deposit insurance corporation to insure bank deposits; prohibited commercial banks from selling insurance or performing the functions of investment banks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Securities Act of 1933–

A

required firms issuing new stocks in a public offering to file a registration statement with the Securities Exchange Commission (SEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Securities and Exchange Act of 1934–

A

established the Securities and Exchange Commission to regulate and oversee the securities industry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999–

A

overturned the section of the Banking Act of 1933 that prohibited commercial banks from selling insurance or performing the functions of investment banks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Common stock–

A

basic form of ownership in a corporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Capital gain–

A

return on investment received if the price of the stock rises above the amount paid for it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Preferred stock–

A

gives its holder preference over common stockholders in terms of dividends and claims on assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Bond–

A

formal debt instrument issued by a corporation or government entity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Maturity date–

A

date when a bond will come due

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Par value (of a bond)–

A

value of a bond that the issuer promises to pay the bondholder when the bond matures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Coupon rate–

A

interest paid on a bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Current yield–

A

amount of interest earned is expressed as a percentage of the bond’s current market price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Exchange traded fund (ETF)–

A

shares traded on securities markets that represent the legal right of ownership over part of a basket of individual stock certificates or securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Primary securities market–

A

market in which newly issued securities are traded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Secondary securities market–

A

trades previously issued securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Public offering–

A

new securities are offered to any investors who are willing and able to purchase them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Private placement–

A

negotiated between the issuing corporation and a small group of accredited investors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Convertible security–

A

bonds or shares of preferred stock that investors can exchange for a stated number of shares of common stock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Mutual fund–

A

institutional investor that raises funds by selling shares to investors and uses the accumulated funds to buy a portfolio of many different securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Stock (or securities) exchange–

A

organized venue for trading stocks and securities that meet listing requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Over-the-counter (OTC) market–

A

securities that are not listed on exchanges are traded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Electronic communications network (ECN)–

A

automated, computerized securities trading system that automatically matches buyers and sellers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Market order–

A

tell brokers to buy or sell a specific security at the best currently available price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Limit order–

A

tell brokers to buy a specific stock only if its price is below a certain level, or to sell a specific stock only if its price is above a certain level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Stock index–

A

tracks how the prices of specific sets of stocks have changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA)–

A

tracks stock prices of 30 large, well-known U.S. corporations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Standard & Poor’s 500–

A

based on prices of 500 major U.S. corporations in a variety of industries and market sectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Marketing–

A

organizational function and a set of processes for creating, communicating, and delivering value to customers and for managing customer relationships in ways the benefit the organization and its stakeholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Utility–

A

ability of goods and services to satisfy wants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Customer relationship management (CRM)–

A

ongoing process of acquiring, maintaining, and growing profitable customer relationships by delivering unmatched value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Customer satisfaction–

A

customers’ perception that a good or service delivers value above and beyond their expectations

70
Q

Customer loyalty–

A

customers repeatedly buy certain products

71
Q

Marketing plan–

A

formal document that defines marketing objectives and the specific strategies for achieving those objectives

72
Q

Market segmentation–

A

dividing potential customers into groups of similar people, or segments

73
Q

Target market–

A

group of people who are most likely to buy a particular product

74
Q

Consumer marketers (business-to-consumer or B2C)–

A

direct their efforts toward people who are buying products for personal consumption

75
Q

Business marketers (business-to-business or B2B)–

A

direct their efforts toward people who are buying products to use either directly or indirectly to produce other products

76
Q

Demographic segmentation–

A

dividing the market based on characteristics about people such as age, income, ethnicity, and gender

77
Q

Geographic segmentation–

A

dividing the market based on where consumers live

78
Q

Psychographic segmentation–

A

dividing the market based on consumer attitudes, interests, values, and lifestyles

79
Q

Behavioral segmentation–

A

dividing the market based on how people behave towards various products

80
Q

Marketing mix–

A

blend of marketing strategies for products, prices, distribution, and promotion

81
Q

Consumer behavior–

A

people’s actions when they are buying, using, and discarding goods and services for their personal consumption

82
Q

Cognitive dissonance–

A

consumer discomfort with a purchase decision typically for a higher-priced item

83
Q

Business buyer behavior–

A

describes people’s behavior when they are buying products to use directly or indirectly to produce other products

84
Q

Marketing research–

A

process of gathering, interpreting, and applying information to uncover opportunities and challenges, and to make better decisions

85
Q

Secondary data–

A

existing data that marketers gather or purchase for a research project

86
Q

Primary data–

A

new data that marketers compile for a specific research project

87
Q

Observation research–

A

does not require the researcher to interact with the research subject

88
Q

Survey research–

A

requires that the researcher interact with the research subject

89
Q

Product–

A

anything that an organization offers to satisfy consumer needs and wants

90
Q

Consumer products–

A

purchased for personal use or consumption

91
Q

Business products–

A

purchased to use either directly or indirectly in the production of other products

92
Q

Product differentiation–

A

attributes that make a good or service different from other products that compete to meet the same or similar customer needs

93
Q

Quality level–

A

measure of how well a product performs its core functions

94
Q

Product consistency–

A

measure of how reliable a product is in delivering its promised level of quality

95
Q

Product features–

A

specific characteristics of a product

96
Q

Customer benefit–

A

advantages that a customer gains from a specific product feature

97
Q

Product line–

A

groups of products that are closely related to each other

98
Q

Product mix–

A

total number of product lines and individual items sold by a single firm

99
Q

Cannibalization–

A

when a firm’s new product takes sales away from its existing products

100
Q

Brand–

A

a product’s identity that sets it apart from other players in the same category

101
Q

Brand equity–

A

overall value of a brand to an organization

102
Q

Line extensions–

A

similar products offered under the same brand name

103
Q

Brand extension–

A

new product, in a new category, introduced under an existing brand name

104
Q

Licensing–

A

purchasing the right to use another company’s brand name or symbol

105
Q

Co Branding–

A

established brands from different companies joining forces to market the same product

106
Q

National brands–

A

brands that the producer owns and markets

107
Q

Store brands–

A

brands that the retailer both produces and distributes

108
Q

Promotion–

A

influences consumer purchase decisions through information, persuasion, and reminders

109
Q

Integrated marketing communication–

A

coordination of marketing messages through every promotional vehicle

110
Q

Positioning statement–

A

articulates how the marketer would like the target market to envision a product relative to competition

111
Q

Promotional channels–

A

specific marketing communication vehicles

112
Q

Advertising–

A

designed to influence a target audience with regard to a product, service, organization, or idea

113
Q

Sales promotion–

A

designed to stimulate sales activity through specific short-term programs

114
Q

Consumer promotion–

A

generates immediate consumer sales

115
Q

Trade promotion–

A

stimulates wholesalers and retailers to push specific products aggressively

116
Q

Public relations (PR)–

A

ongoing effort to create positive relationships with all of a firm’s different publics

117
Q

Publicity–

A

unpaid stories in the media that influence perceptions about a company or its product

118
Q

Personal selling–

A

person-to-person presentation of products to potential buyers

119
Q

Distribution strategy–

A

plan for delivering the right product to the right person at the right place at the right time

120
Q

Channel of distribution–

A

network of organizations and processes that links producers to consumers

121
Q

Physical distribution–

A

actual, physical, movement of products along the distribution pathways

122
Q

Direct channel–

A

distribution process that links a producer and a customer with no intermediaries

123
Q

Channel intermediaries–

A

distribution organizations that facilitate the movement of products from a producer to a consumer

124
Q

Retailers–

A

distributors who sell products directly to users in small quantities

125
Q

Wholesalers–

A

distributors that buy products from producers and sell them to other businesses

126
Q

Merchant wholesalers–

A

take legal possession of the goods they distribute

127
Q

Agents/brokers–

A

do not take title of the goods they distribute

128
Q

Multichannel retailing–

A

provides multiple distribution channels for consumers to buy a product

129
Q

Multi Level marketing (MLM)–

A

involves hiring independent contractors to sell products to their personal network

130
Q

Supply chain–

A

all organizations, processes, and activities involved in the flow of goods from raw materials to the final consumer

131
Q

Supply chain management (SCM)–

A

planning and coordinating the movement of products along the supply chain

132
Q

Logistics–

A

subset of SCM that focuses on the tactics involved in moving products along the supply chain

133
Q

Penetration pricing–

A

aims to capture the market through rock-bottom prices

134
Q

Everyday-low pricing (EDLP)–

A

designed to achieve profitability through high sales volume; long-term discount pricing

135
Q

High/low pricing–

A

designed to drive traffic to retail stores by special sales on a limited number of products, and higher everyday prices on others

136
Q

Loss-leader pricing–

A

pricing a handful of items temporarily below cost to drive traffic

137
Q

Skimming pricing–

A

aims to maximize profitability by offering new products at a premium price

138
Q

Break even analysis–

A

process of determining the number of units a firm must sell to cover all costs

139
Q

Profit margin–

A

gap between the cost and the price of an item on a per-product basis

140
Q

Odd pricing–

A

practice of ending prices in numbers below even dollars and cents in order to create a perception of greater value

141
Q

Financial leverage–

A

the use of debt in a firm’s capital structure

142
Q

Spontaneous financing–

A

financing that arises during the natural course of business without the need for special arrangements

143
Q

Covenant–

A

a restriction lenders impose on borrowers as a condition of providing long-term debt financing

144
Q

Certificate of deposit (CD)–

A

an interest-earning deposit that requires the funds to remain deposited for a fixed term. Withdrawal of the funds before the term expires results in a financial penalty

145
Q

Securities and Exchange Commission–

A

the federal agency with primary responsibility for regulating the securities industry

146
Q

Net asset value per share–

A

the value of a mutual fund’s securities and cash holdings minus any liabilities, divided by the number of shares of the fund outstanding

147
Q

Financial diversification–

A

a strategy of investing in a wide variety of securities in order to reduce risk

148
Q

Initial public offering (IPO)–

A

the first time a company issues stock that may be bought by the general public

149
Q

Underwriting–

A

an arrangement under which an investment banker agrees to purchase all shares of a public offering at an agreed-upon price

150
Q

Registration statement–

A

a long, complex document that firms must fi;e with the SEC when they sell securities through a public offering

151
Q

Accredited investor–

A

an organization or individual investor who meets certain criteria established by the SEC and so qualifies to invest in unregistered securities

152
Q

Market makers–

A

securities dealers that make a commitment to continuously offer to buy and sell the stock of a specific corporation listed on the NASDAQ exchange or traded in the OTC market

153
Q

Marketing concept–

A

a business philosophy that makes customer satisfaction - now and in the future - the central focus of the entire organization

154
Q

Value–

A

a customer perception that a product has a better relationship than its competitors between the cost and the benefits

155
Q

Environmental scanning–

A

the process of continually collecting information from the external marketing environment

156
Q

Market share–

A

the percentage of a market controlled by a given marketer

157
Q

Green marketing–

A

developing and promoting environmentally sound products and practices to gain a competitive edge

158
Q

Mass customization–

A

the creation of products tailored for individual consumers on a mass basis

159
Q

Pure goods–

A

products that do not include any services

160
Q

Pure services–

A

products that do not include any goods

161
Q

Product life cycle–

A

a pattern of sales and profits that typically changes over time

162
Q

Product placement–

A

the paid integration of branded products into movies, television, and other media

163
Q

Advergaming–

A

video games created as a marketing tool, usually with brand awareness as the core goal

164
Q

Buzz marketing–

A

the active stimulation of word of mouth via unconventional, and often relatively low-cost, tactics. Also known as guerrilla marketing and viral marketing

165
Q

Sponsorship–

A

a deep association between a marketer and a partner which involves promotion of the sponsor in exchange for either payment or the provision of goods

166
Q

Push strategy–

A

a marketing approach that involves motivating distributors to heavily promote a product to the final customers, usually through heavy trade promotion and personal selling

167
Q

Pull strategy–

A

a marketing approach that involves creating demand from the ultimate consumers so that they “pull” your products through the distribution channels by actively seeking them

168
Q

Independent wholesaling businesses–

A

independent distributors that buy products from a range of different businesses and sell those products to a range of different customers

169
Q

Wheel of retailing–

A

a classic distribution theory that suggests that retail firms and retail categories become more upscale as they go through their life cycles

170
Q

Modes of transportation–

A

the various transportation options (planes, trains, and railroads) move products through the supply chain