LAB6 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the function of blood?

A
  • transports various substances
  • regulates several life processes by maintaining homeostasis of bodily fluids
  • protection against disease, injury, and infection
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2
Q

what is blood?

A

a liquid connective tissue that consists of cells surrounded by a liquid extracellular matrix (blood plasma)

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3
Q

how does blood carry out transportation?

A
  • transports O2 from the lungs to the cells of the body and CO2 from the body cells to the lungs
  • It carries nutrients and hormones
  • transports heat and waste products to various organs for elimination from the body
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4
Q

how does blood carry out regulation?

A
  • circulating blood throughout body
  • helps regulate pH by buffers
  • adjusts body temp through varying rate of flow through skin where excess heat can be lost from blood
  • blood osmotic pressure influences water content of cells
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5
Q

how does blood carry out protection?

A
  • WBCs can phagocytize microbes
  • antibodies
  • blood can clot, protecting against excessive loss from body after injury
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6
Q

where does hemopoiesis occur in embryo?

A

yolk sac

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7
Q

where does hemopoiesis occur in the fetus?

A

lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, liver

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8
Q

where does hemopoiesis occur after birth?

A

in red bone marrow

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9
Q

what are the three types of formed elements?

A
  • erythrocytes
  • leukocytes
  • thrombocytes
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10
Q

what are erythrocytes?

A

small, biconcave, anucleate cells
- contain hemoglobin

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11
Q

what is hemoglobin?

A

protein with 4 iron atoms, which reversibly bind to oxygen or carbon dioxide molecules

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12
Q

what are thrombocytes?

A

fragments of megakaryocytes enclosed in a plasma membrane
- form platelet plug to stop blood loss from ruptured blood vessels
- secrete chemicals from their granules that promote blood clotting

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13
Q

what are leukocytes?

A

have a nucleus and can travel to all parts of the body in the blood and lymph
- can move out of blood vessels by emigration

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14
Q

what are the types of leukocytes?

A
  1. eosinophils
  2. basophils
  3. neutrophils
  4. lymphocytes
  5. monocytes
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15
Q

what is the function of erythrocytes?

A

Hemoglobin within RBCs transports most oxygen and part of carbon dioxide in blood

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16
Q

what is the characteristics of erythrocytes?

A
  • 7–8 μm diameter
  • biconcave discs
  • without nuclei
  • live for about 120 days
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17
Q

what are some characteristics of neutrophils?

A
  • 10–12 μm diameter, larger than RBC
  • nucleus has 2–7 lobes connected by thin strands of chromatin
  • cytoplasm has very fine, pale lilac granules, barely stained granules
  • 60-70% of WBCs
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18
Q

what are some functions of neutrophils?

A
  • Phagocytosis
  • Destruction of bacteria with lysozyme, defensins, and strong oxidants, such as superoxide anion, hydrogen peroxide, and hypochlorite anion
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19
Q

what are some characteristics of eosinophils?

A
  • 10–12 μm diameter
  • nucleus often bilobed connected by thick strand of chromatin
  • large, red-orange granules fill cytoplasm
  • 2-4% of WBCs
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20
Q

what are the functions of eosinophils?

A
  • combat effects of histamine in allergic reactions
  • phagocytize antigen–antibody complexes
  • destroy certain parasitic worms
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21
Q

what are some characteristics of basophils?

A
  • 8–10 μm diameter
  • nucleus has 2 lobes, cannot be distinguished from granules
  • large cytoplasmic granules appear deep blue-purple
  • 0.5 - 1% of WBCs
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22
Q

what are some functions of basophils?

A
  • Liberate heparin, histamine, and serotonin in allergic reactions that intensify overall inflammatory response
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23
Q

what are some characteristics of lymphocytes?

A
  • small lymphocytes are 6–9 μm
  • large lymphocytes are 10–14 μm - nucleus is round or slightly indented
  • cytoplasm forms rim around nucleus that looks sky blue
  • 20-25% of WBCs
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24
Q

what are the functions of lymphocytes?

A
  • Mediate immune responses, including antigen–antibody reactions
  • B cells develop into plasmocytes, which secrete antibodies
  • T cells attack invading viruses, cancer cells, and transplanted tissue cells
  • Natural killer cells attack microbes and certain spontaneously arising tumor cells
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25
Q

what are some characteristics of monocytes?

A
  • 12–20 μm diameter
  • nucleus is kidney- or horseshoe-shaped
  • cytoplasm is blue-gray and appears foamy
  • 3-8% of WBCs
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26
Q

what are some functions of monocytes?

A

phagocytosis (after transforming into fixed or wandering macrophages)

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27
Q

what are some characteristics of platelets?

A
  • 2–4 μm diameter cell fragments that live for 5–9 days
  • contain many vesicles but no nucleus
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28
Q

why can we not use real blood in labs?

A

would require gloves, sterile materials, and appropriate sterile and infection control protocols

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29
Q

what is the hematocrit?

A

measure of % of RBCs in a blood sample

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30
Q

describe how to read a hematocrit card

A
  1. bottom of RBCs placed at 0 mark
  2. slide tube until meniscus of plasma at 100 mark
  3. line at top of RBCs is hematocrit/packed RBC volume %
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31
Q

what is a hematocrit used for?

A
  • part of complete blood count (CBC)
  • can be used in combo with other tests for diagnosing anemia, and polycythemia
  • to evaluate dehydration and recovery
  • evaluate effectiveness of blood transfusions
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32
Q

what is a buffy coat?

A

layer of WBCs and platelets above the RBC layer on a centrifuged blood sample
- on top of RBCs b/c RBCs have Fe2+, very heavy ion and WBCs and platelets do not have it

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33
Q

what are some conditions that can result in an increased hematocrit?

A
  • dehydration
  • blood doping
  • living at high altitudes long term
  • excessive red blood cell production
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34
Q

what are some conditions that can result in a decreased hematocrit?

A
  • anemia
  • pregnancy
  • Vitamin/mineral deficiency
  • leukemia
  • hemorrhage
  • liver cirrhosis
  • hormone deficiences
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35
Q

what are agglutinogens?

A

genetically determined antigens on the surface of RBCs that are recognized by own immune system but not by others

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36
Q

what are some examples of foreign antigens?

A
  • pollen
  • dust
  • cells w/ membranes that contain foreign surface markers
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37
Q

what are agglutinins?

A

antibodies that begin to appear in plasma within a few months after birth and react to specific foreign antigens to inhibit or destroy them

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38
Q

what is the source of antibodies in the antibody-mediated immune response?

A

lymphocytes, specifically B cells

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39
Q

what blood type is the universal donor?

A

O-

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40
Q

what blood type is the universal recipient?

A

AB+

41
Q

how does agglutination differ from clotting?

A
  • agglutination is due to antibodies, an immune-system mediated response to foreign blood cells
  • blood clotting is due to thrombocytes, occurs when there is blood or vessel trauma, not necessarily foreign
42
Q

what is agglutination?

A

clumping of blood cells when antibodies in the plasma of the receiving blood will cross-link with the foreign antigens on the donated RBCs

43
Q

what are antiserums?

A

solutions that contain an antibody, used to determine blood type by detecting presence or absence of an antigen

44
Q

How is Rh blood group different from ABO blood group?

A
  • only one antigen resulting in two different blood types
  • a person does not get antibodies after birth, only gets antibodies after an initial exposure
45
Q

what is RhoGAM?

A

an injection that can prevent maternal sensitization and hemolytic disease of the newborn
- immunoglobin binds to fetal RBCs with antigen before mom’s immune system can produce a response
- given at week 28 and within 72 hours of delivery

46
Q

what is Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN) / Erythroblastosis fetalis?

A

Rh- mother and Rh+ fetus

  • after an initial exposure, mother’s Rh antibodies cross placenta and cause Rh+ fetus’s RBCs to agglutinate and hemolyze, resulting in HDN
47
Q

what is a finger pulse oximeter?

A

a device that measures blood oxygen saturation and pulse rate

  • determines arterial oxygen saturation of functional hemoglobin as a %age
48
Q

what is hypoxemia?

A

a reading of less than 90% on the finger pulse oximeter

49
Q

what is a normal oxygen saturation value?

A

97-99%

50
Q

what is the difference between hypoxemia and hypoxia?

A

hypoxemia is a reading of <90%
hypoxia is insufficient oxygen

51
Q

where is the heart located in the body?

A

in the mediastinum within the thoracic cavity

52
Q

what is the pericardial membrane?

A

membrane that surrounds and protects the heart

53
Q

what does the pericardium consists of?

A
  • a tough outer layer of fibrous pericardium that attaches to diaphragm and large blood vessels, anchoring heart to mediastinum
  • an inner delicate layer of serous pericardium
54
Q

what are the two layers of the serous pericardium?

A
  • parietal pericardium (epicardium) that is fused to fibrous pericardium
  • visceral pericardium that forms outer layer of heart
55
Q

what is the pericardial cavity?

A

cavity between the parietal and visceral pericardium that is filled with serous fluid

56
Q

what is the myocardium?

A
  • middle layer of the heart composed of cardiac muscle tissue
57
Q

what is the function of the myocardium?

A

the contraction of the myocardium supplies the force to circulate blood throughout the body

58
Q

what is the endocardium?

A

thin layer of connective tissue underlying endothelium that lines the inner surface of the heart and its valves

59
Q

What is the source of serous fluid? What is its function?

A
  • secreted by serous pericardium
  • reduces friction between the layers of the serous pericardium as the heart moves
60
Q

How does the function of the four heart valves differ?

A

SL:
- allow ejection of blood from the heart into arteries but prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles

AV:
- allows blood to flow in one direction only, from an atrium into a ventricle
- blood cannot regurgitate into atria when ventricles contract as chordae tendinae prevent valve cusps from everting in response to high ventricular pressure

61
Q

How does the structure of the four heart valves differ?

A

SL:
- made up of three crescent moon–shaped cusps
- located btwn vessels and ventricles

AV:
- located btwn atrium/pulmonary trunk and a ventricle
- have leaflets
- chordae tendinae and papillary muscles

62
Q

what keeps the AV valves from everting when the ventricles contract?

A
  • chordae tendinae
  • papillary muscles
63
Q

what is the structure and function of the intercalated discs?

A
  • link cells together and define borders
  • cardiac cell-cell communication
  • coordinate muscle contraction and maintenance of circulation
  • has gap junctions and desmosomes
64
Q

what is an atrioventricular valve?

A

A heart valve made up of membranous flaps or cusps that allows blood to flow in one direction only, from an atrium into a ventricle

65
Q

What is a semilunar valve?

A

A valve between the aorta or the pulmonary trunk and a ventricle of the heart.

66
Q

what is the ligamentum arteriosum?

A

connects the aortic arch and pulmonary trunk
- remnant of ductus arteriosus

67
Q

what are trabeculae carneae?

A

Ridges and folds of the myocardium in the ventricles
- prevents backflow of blood into atria by preventing inversion of bicuspid and tricuspid valves

68
Q

what are chordae tendinae?

A

Tendonlike, fibrous cords that connect atrioventricular valves of the heart with papillary muscles
- - prevents backflow of blood into atria by preventing inversion of bicuspid and tricuspid valves

69
Q

what are papillary muscles?

A

cone-shaped trabeculae carneae that connect to chordae tendinae
- - prevents backflow of blood into atria by preventing inversion of bicuspid and tricuspid valves

70
Q

what is the interventricular septum?

A

a partition that separates the right from the left ventricle

71
Q

what is the pulmonary semilunar valve?

A

valve where blood from right ventricle passes through into the pulmonary trunk

72
Q

what is the pulmonary trunk?

A

blood vessel that divides into left and right pulmonary arteries and carry blood into lungs

73
Q

what is the right ventricle?

A

ventricle that forms most of anterior surface of heart

74
Q

what is the left ventricle?

A

thickest chamber of the heart that forms the apex of the heart

75
Q

what is the right atrium?

A

heart chamber that forms the right surface of the heart and receives blood from superior and inferior vena cava and coronary sinus

76
Q

what is the left atrium?

A

heart chamber that forms most of the base of the heart, receives blood from the lungs through pulmonary veins

77
Q

what is the interatrial septum?

A

a partition inside the heart that separates the right and the left atrium

78
Q

what is the fossa ovalis?

A

an oval depression on the interatrial septum
- remnant of the foramen ovale in the fetal heart
- prevents blood exchange btwn right and left atria

79
Q

what is the right atrioventricular valve?

A

valve in the heart where blood from right atrium passes into right ventricle
- consists of three cusps

80
Q

what is the left atrioventricular valve?

A

valve in the heart where blood from left atrium passes into the left ventricle
- bicuspid, two cusps

81
Q

what is the aortic semi-lunar valve?

A

valve in heart where blood passes from left ventricle into the ascending aorta

82
Q

what are coronary arteries?

A

arteries that branch from ascending aorta and carry blood to the heart wall

83
Q

what is the coronary sulcus?

A

a depression that encircles most of the heart and marks the external boundary between the superior atria and inferior ventricles

84
Q

what is the anterior interventricular sulcus?

A

a shallow groove on the anterior surface of the heart that marks the external boundary between the right and left ventricles on the anterior aspect of the heart

85
Q

what is the posterior interventricular sulcus?

A

a depression on the posterior surface of the heart which marks the external boundary between the ventricles on the posterior aspect of the heart

86
Q

what is the right atrium’s auricle?

A

wrinkled pouchlike structure that increases capacity of the right atrium

87
Q

what is the left atrium’s auricle?

A

wrinkled pouchlike structure that increases capacity of the left atrium

88
Q

what is the superior vena cava?

A

vein carrying deoxygenated blood from superior portion of body towards the heart

89
Q

what is the inferior vena cava?

A

vein carrying deoxygenated blood from inferior portion of body towards the heart

90
Q

what is the opening of the coronary sinus?

A

opening in right atrium where deoxygenated blood from coronary sinus passes through and empties into right atrium

91
Q

what are cardiac veins?

A

veins that are part of the coronary circuit, encircles the heart
- collects deoxygenated blood and wastes from myocardium and empties it into right atrium via coronary sinus

92
Q

what are coronary arteries?

A

arteries which brance from ascending aorta and encircle the heart
- supplies oxygenated blood and nutrients to the myocardium

93
Q

what is the aortic arch?

A

part of aorta between ascending and descending aorta
- gives rise to three branches of arteries
- brachiocephalic trunk
- left common carotid artery
- left subclavian artery

94
Q

what is the ascending aorta?

A

first part of aorta
- pumps blood through aortic arch and into descending aorta

95
Q

why does O2 saturation levels stay consistent during exercise?

A
  • you increase amt of O2 you need during exercise
  • you also increase amt of O2 you intake by breathing more
96
Q

what is sickle cell anemia?

A

disease that leads to sickle-shaped RBCs
- substitution of amino acid in hemoglobin deforms RBC into sickle-shape

97
Q

what is chronic lymphocytic leukemia?

A

cancer of lymphatic tissue where WBC:RBC ratio is 50:50
- WBCs do not differentiate fully and do not undergo apoptosis

98
Q

what is hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

erythroblastosis fetalis
- nucleated RBCS and erythroblasts in blood to compensate for RBC destruction
- Rh- mother has Rh+ baby after an initial exposure, mother’s anti-Rh antibodies seek to destroy RBCs of baby

99
Q

what is African sleeping sickness?

A

disease where infected Tsetse fly introduces Trypanosoma gambiense into blood, toxic metabolites of the parasite produce necrotic damage to cells they come into contact with, including RBCs