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Rx Prep > Lab Values and Drug Monitoring - Quiz 1 > Flashcards

Lab Values and Drug Monitoring - Quiz 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components of a fishbone diagram?

A

WBC, Hgb, Hct, Plt

Na, Cl, BUN, Glucose, K, HCO3, sCr

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2
Q

What is the difference between cytosis and penia?

A

Cytosis: excessive
Penia: deficiency

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3
Q

When is corrcted Ca used?

A

When albumin is low

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4
Q

Ca levels?

A

8.5-10.5

Ionized: 4.5-5.1

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5
Q

Mg levels?

A

1.3-2.1

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6
Q

What increases calcium levels?

A
  1. Calcium
  2. Vit D
  3. Thiazides
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7
Q

What decreases Ca levels?

A
  1. Long term heparin
  2. Loops
  3. Bisphosphonates
  4. Cinacalcet
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8
Q

What decreases Mg?

A
  1. PPI
  2. Diuretics
  3. Amp B
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9
Q

PO4 levels?

A

2.3-4.7

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10
Q

What increases phosphate levels?

A

CKD

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11
Q

K levels?

A

3.5-5

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12
Q

What increases potassium levels?

A
  1. ACEIs
  2. ARBS
  3. aldosterone receptor antagonists
  4. aliskirin
  5. SGLT2I (canagliflozin)
  6. Immunosuppressants (Cyclosporine, tacrolimus)
  7. Potassium
  8. Bactrim
  9. Drospirenone COC
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13
Q

What decreases potassium levels?

A
  1. beta 2 agonist
  2. diuretics
  3. insulin
  4. SPS
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14
Q

Na levels?

A

135-145

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15
Q

What increases sodium levels?

A
  1. hypertonic saline
  2. tolvaptan
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16
Q

What decreases Na levels?

A
  1. Carbamazepine
  2. Oxcarbazepine
  3. SSRIs
  4. Diuretics
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17
Q

What decreases bicarb?

A

Topiramate

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18
Q

When would you see an elevation in BUN (>20)?

A

Renal impairment and dehydration

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19
Q

BUN levels?

A

7-20

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20
Q

sCr levels?

A

0.6-1.3

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21
Q

Drugs that increase sCr?

A
  1. Aminoglycosides
  2. Amp B
  3. Cisplatin
  4. Colistimethate
  5. Cyclosporine
  6. Loops
  7. Polymixin
  8. NSAIDs
  9. Contrast dye
  10. Tacrolimus
  11. Vancomycin
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22
Q

Glucose levels

A

70-100

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23
Q

Anion gap levels?

A

5-12

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24
Q

What does anion gap monitor?

A

Increased gap indicates metabolic acidosis

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25
Q

What increases WBC?

A

Systemic steroids

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26
Q

What decrease WBC?

A
  1. Clozapine
  2. Chemo
  3. Carbamazepine
  4. Immunosuppressants
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27
Q

What are bands?

A

Immature neutrophils that fight infection (causing a left shift)

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28
Q

What increases eosinophils?

A

Asthma, inflammation, parasites

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29
Q

What increases basophils?

A

Hypersensitivity reactions

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30
Q

What increases lymphocytes?q

A
  1. Viral infection
  2. Lymphoma
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31
Q

What decreases lymphocytes?

A
  1. Bone marrow suppression
  2. HIV
  3. systemic steroids
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32
Q

What increase RBC counts?

A

ESAs

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33
Q

What decreases RBC counts?

A
  1. Chemo
  2. Deficiency anemias
  3. Hemolytic anemia
  4. Sickle cell anemia
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34
Q

What does Hgb monitor?

A

Decrease in Hgb -> anemia

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35
Q

What are normal Hgb values?

A

Males: 13.5-18
Females: 12-16

36
Q

What is MCV for?

A

80-100

Increased: macrocytic (B12 or folate def)
Decreased: microcytic (iron def)

37
Q

Normal iron levels?

38
Q

What decreases folate levels

A
  1. Phenytoin
  2. Phenobarbital
  3. Primidone
  4. Methotrextate
39
Q

What decreases B12?

A
  1. PPI
  2. Metformin
40
Q

What is the Coombs test for?

A

Used to diagnose hemolytic anemia

41
Q

What causes a positive Coombs test?

A
  1. Penicillin and cephalosporins
  2. Isoniazid
  3. L-Dopa
  4. Methyldopa
  5. Quinidine
  6. Quinine
  7. Rifampin
  8. Sulfonamides
42
Q

What agents can cause hemolytic anemia in patietns with G6PD?

A
  1. Fava beans
  2. Dapsone
  3. Methylene blue
  4. Nitrofurantoin
  5. Pegloticase
  6. Primaquine
  7. Rasburicase
  8. Quinidine
  9. Quinine
  10. Sulfonamides
43
Q

What does anti-Xa monitor?

A

LMWH and UFH

44
Q

What is normal INR and what does it monitor?

A

<1.2 (not on warfarin)

Monitors warfarin: Increased -> bleeding risk and liver failure (if not on warfarin)
Low warfarin -> clotting risk

45
Q

What agents causes a false increase in INR?

A
  1. Daptomycin
  2. Oritavancin
  3. Televancin
46
Q

What does aPTT moniotr?

47
Q

Lifespan of plts?

48
Q

What decreases plt count?

A
  1. Heparin
  2. LMWH
  3. Fondaparinux
  4. Linezolid
  5. Valproate
49
Q

What causes decreased albumin?

A
  1. Cirrhosis
  2. Malnutrition
50
Q

What enzymes are released from injured hepatocytes?

51
Q

What is used to monitor for hepatic enceph?

52
Q

What are the components of LFTs?

A
  1. Albumin
  2. AST
  3. ALT
  4. Tbili
  5. Alk Phos
53
Q

What are the agents that monitor for pancreatitis?

A
  1. Amylase
  2. Lipase
54
Q

What is used to asssess for muscle inflammation?

55
Q

What are the cardac enzyme and what doe they assess?

A
  1. Troponin T
  2. Troponin I
    Used for MI diagnosis
  3. BNP
  4. NT-proBNP
    Markers of cardiac stress (HF)
56
Q

LDL levels?

57
Q

Desirable HDL levels?

58
Q

What are the components of a lipid panel?

A
  1. LDL
  2. HDL
  3. TG
  4. TC
59
Q

What is CRP used for?

A

Marker of inflammation

60
Q

What is tht

FGP indications?

A

Diabetes: ≥126
Prediabetes: 100-125

Fasting is ≥8hrs

61
Q

Ideal A1C?

A

<7% (over 3 months, delayed)

62
Q

What is C-peptide?

A

Used to differentiate T1D from T2D

T1D will have little to none

63
Q

TSH levels?

64
Q

What is used to assess for gout?

64
Q

What increases TSH?

A

Hypothyroidism, TKI, lithium, carbamazepine

65
Q

What decreases TSH?

A

Hyperthyroidism

66
Q

Drugs that can cause lupus?

A
  1. Anti-TNF
  2. Hydralazine
  3. Isoniazid
  4. Methimazole
  5. Methyldopa
  6. Miinocycline
  7. Procainamide
  8. PTU
  9. Qinidine
  10. Terbinafie
67
Q

What are the CD4 levels that classifies a patient as immunocompromised?

68
Q

What is used to diagnose HIV?

A
  1. CD4 ount
  2. Viral load
69
Q

pH levels?

70
Q

What is used for prostate cancer and BPH?

A

PSA levels (≥4 is positive)

71
Q

What is used to indicate pregnancy?

72
Q

What is used to indicate ovulation?

73
Q

What increases Lactic acid?

A
  1. NRTIs
  2. Metformin
74
Q

What is used to test for Tb?

A

PPD or TST

75
Q

What is used to diagnose syphillis?

A

RPR or VDRL

76
Q

What outcomes can TPMT def lead to? What drgus shol be adjusted?

A

Myelosuppression

Azathioprine, mercaptopurine

77
Q

Carbamazepine lvels?

A

4-12 mcg/mL

78
Q

Digoxin levels?

A

0.8-2 ng/mL (AF)
0.5-0.9 ng/mL (HF)

79
Q

Gentamicin levels?

A

Peak: 5-10mcg/mL
Trough: <2mcg/mL

80
Q

Lithium levels?

A

0.6-1.2 mEq/L

81
Q

Phenytoin levels?

A

1-2 mcg/mL

82
Q

Theophylline levels

A

5-15 mcg/mL

83
Q

Vancomycin levels?

A

AUC: 400-600
Severe infection: 15-20 mcg/mL
Other infection: 10-15 mcg/mL

84
Q

Warafarin levels

Rx Prep (15 decks)

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