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MICROBIOLOGY > Lab practical 2 > Flashcards

Lab practical 2 Flashcards

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1
Q
  • molecule is oxidized to form CO2 and water
  • ATP is generated as energy source through oxidative phosphorylation
A

Respiration

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2
Q
  • molecule partially break down to alcohols and aldehydes
  • ATP is synthesized through substrate level phosphorylation
A

Fermentation

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3
Q

pH indicator in MSA (fermentation testing)

A

phenol red

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4
Q

In fermentative tests, if the phenol red is yellow it is ____ and indicates an ___
In fermentative tests, if the phenol red is red it is ____ and indicates an ___

A

positive / acid
negative / base (cannot perform fermentation)

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5
Q

the fermentable carbohydrate included in the medium in fermentation tests

A

Glucose

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6
Q

3 types of fermentation tests

A
  • glucose
  • lactose
  • mannitol
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7
Q

glucose, mannitol, and glucose test results
red = ____ and ___ pH
yellow = ____ and ___ pH

A

negative / basic
positive / acidic

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8
Q

grow only in the absence of oxygen

A

strict anaerobes

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9
Q

can grow either with or without oxygen

A

facultative anaerobes

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10
Q

require oxygen to grow

A

aerobes

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11
Q
  • grow in oily regions of the skin
  • degrade fatty secretions
A

diphtheroids

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12
Q
  • coagulase-negative, salt-tolerant
  • grow well in dry areas
  • produce antibacterial compounds to prevent other gram-positive bacteria from growth
A

staphylococci

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13
Q
  • causes facial skin flaking
  • dermatophytes cause hair and skin infections (athletes foot)
  • Malassezia furfur
A

fungi

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14
Q

degradation of gelatin due to bacteria’s ability to degrade proteins that are responsible for solidity of gelatin

A

Liquefaction

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15
Q

enzyme that breaks down proteins

A

Protease

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16
Q

enzyme that breaks down gelatin

A

Gelatinase

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17
Q

sum of biological reactions in an organism

A

metabolism

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18
Q

Metabolic pathways that break down molecules, releasing energy.

AB = A+B

A

Catabolism

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19
Q

Metabolic pathways that construct molecules, requiring energy.

A+B = AB

A

Anabolism

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20
Q

protein molecule that catalyze various chemical reactions

A

enzymes

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21
Q

indicator in glucose, mannitol, and glucose tests

A

phenol red

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22
Q

Enzymes that function outside the bacterial cell walls to degrade the large molecule

A

exoenzymes

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23
Q

example of exoenzymes

A

DNase, protease, and amylase

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24
Q
  • nitrate
  • oxidase
  • catalase
A

3 oxidation tests

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25
Q

Identifies bacteria that have cytochrome oxidase

A

Oxidase test

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26
Q

If it has the enzyme, the tube turns to ___ because it degrades protein/enzyme

A

liquid

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27
Q

positive oxidase test: __
negative oxidase test: __

A

purple; yellow

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28
Q

Electron transfer from cytochrome c to oxygen and produces oxidized cytochrome c and water

A

cytochrome oxidase

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29
Q

the enzyme breaks down harmful substances like H2O2 into water and oxygen

A

Catalse Test

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30
Q
  • a by-product of aerobic bacterial respiration
  • oxidizing reagent / harmful to enzymes, nucleic acids, and other molecules
A

hydrogen peroxide

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31
Q

positive catalase test results in ____
negative catalase test results in ____

A

bubbles; no bubbles

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32
Q

used to determine whether an organism reduces nitrate to nitrite
- determines if bacteria can use nitrate as a terminal electron acceptor

A

Nitrate Reduction Test

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33
Q

can use nitrate as a terminal electron acceptor

A

facultative anaerobic bacteria

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34
Q

Nitrate Reduction Strip Test
positive test = ____
negative test = ____

A

pink/red strip; no color change

(positive result means the presence of nitrite)

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35
Q

Nitrate Reduction Test
gas bubbles = use ___ ___
no gas bubbles = use ____

A

nitrogen gas; nitrate

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36
Q

Measures the production of mixed acids by fermentation of glucose

A

Methyl Red Test

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37
Q

the production of acids can ___ pH of methyl red medium below pH of 5

A

lower

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38
Q

indicator in mixed acid fermentation tests

A

methyl red

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39
Q

Methyl Red test results:
yellow = ____ with ____ pH
red = ___ with ____ pH

A

negative/basic ; positive/acidic

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40
Q

bacteria that are mixed acid fermentors produce ____ ___ which splits formic acid into CO2 and hydrogen gas

A

formic hydrogenlyase

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41
Q

detects the presence of acetoin, a precursor of 2,3 butanediol

A

Vogues-Proskauer (VP)

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42
Q

This reagent is used in the Voges-Proskauer test and turns pink in the presence of acetoin.
- detects 2,3 butanediol by converting chemical to acetoin

A

Barritt’s reagent

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43
Q

Vogues-Proskauer (VP) results:
(have to shake tube after adding reagent)
positive result = ____
negative result = ____

A

pink; yellow

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44
Q

bacteria can use sodium citrate as the sole carbon source

A

Citrate Test

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45
Q

Citrate Test results:
positive result = ___ (color) and ___ pH
negative result = ___ (color) and ___ pH

A

dark blue/basic ; green/acidic

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46
Q

When citrate test is positive, ___ is released when turning from green to dark blue

A

ammonium

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47
Q

production of oxaloacetate and pyruvate through ___ cleavage

A

citrate

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48
Q

organisms that are positive for citrate us the enzymes ____ ____ to transport citrate into cell

A

citrate permease

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49
Q

ferment sugar to produce acid and gas
(glucose, lactose, mannitol)

A

sugar fermentation

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50
Q

pH indicator for sugar fermentation tests

A

phenyl red

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51
Q

Phenyl red turns medium ___ at __ pH

A

yellow; low

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52
Q

sugar fermentation results:
positive result = ___
negative result = ___

A

yellow & an acid; red & a base

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53
Q

sugar fermentation:
yellow medium = positive for ___
bubble = positive for ___

A

acid; gas

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54
Q

Differential Test; Detects the Production of Amylase (An exoenzyme that breaks down the sugar starch)

A

Starch Hydrolysis Test

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55
Q

The hydrolysis of the starch will create a ____ zone around the bacterial growth

A

clear

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56
Q

Starch hydrolysis results:
positive result: __
negative result: __

A

red/yellowish halo; clear

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57
Q

In order to interpret the results of the starch hydrolysis test, ____ must be added to the agar.

A

iodine

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58
Q

detects for the present of caseinase enzyme

A

Casein Hydrolysis Test

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59
Q

extracellular protease that degrades the protein casein

A

caseinase

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60
Q

slow digesting milk protein

A

casein

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61
Q

Casein Hydrolysis Test results
positive = ____
negative = ___

A

clear zone around bacteria ; no clear zone

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62
Q

used to detect the presence of lipase

A

Fat Hydrolysis Test

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63
Q

enzyme that breaks down fat

A

Lipase

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64
Q

Lipid Hydrolysis Test results
positive = ___
negative = ___

A

bacteria turns blue ; no color change

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65
Q

Media/reagent used = Tryptone broth/ Kovac’s reagent End Product/ Enzyme = Tryptophanase // positive formation of red ring

A

Tryptophan Hydrolysis

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66
Q

used to detect the presence of tryptophanase

A

Tryptophan Hydrolysis Test

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67
Q

breaks down the amino acid tryptophan to indole, pyruvic acid, and ammonia

A

tryptophanase

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68
Q

use of ______ to breakdown tryptophan into indole and pyruvate

A

Kovac’s reagent

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69
Q

by-product of tryptophan hydrolysis with pyruvate

A

indole

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70
Q

Tryptophan Hydrolysis Test results
positive =
negative =

A

has red ring ; no red ring

71
Q

Indole ____ be broken down by bacteria

A

cannot

72
Q

Used to differentiate organisms based on their ability to hydrolyze urea with the enzyme urease.

A

Urea Hydrolysis Test

73
Q

Enzyme that changes urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide

A

Urease

74
Q

Urea Hydrolysis Test results:
positive = ____ and ____ pH
negative = ____ and ____ pH

A

pink/basic ; yellow/acidic

75
Q

urea –> ___ + __

A

CO2 + ammonia

76
Q

used to determine glucose / lactose fermentation and H2S production from breakdown of cysteine

A

Kligers Iron Agar Test

77
Q

In the Kligers Iron Agar Test:
positive color is ____ and ___ pH and the negative color is ____ and ____ pH

A

yellow/acidic ; red/basic

78
Q

In the Kligers Iron Agar tube, the top sugar is ____ and the bottom sugar is ____

A

lactose/glucose

79
Q

In the Kligers Iron Agar Test, if the bacteria produce gas the agar is ____

In the Kligers Iron Agar Test, H2S is produced the agar will turn _____

A

cracked; black

80
Q
A

Kligers Iron Agar Test

81
Q

DNA is sensitive to nonionizing radiation resulting in _____; ____ nm is the optimum absorption wavelength

A

pyrimidine dimers; 260 nm

82
Q

-5C and 20C (arctic / Antarctic regions)

A

Psychrophiles

83
Q

grows best between 20C and 40C ; the human pathogens are in this group (most bacteria)

A

Mesophiles

84
Q

grow between 45C and 70 C ; soil bacteria

A

Thermophiles

85
Q

grows above 75*C; Archaea thrive in very hot environments, such as volcanic springs.

A

Hypothermophiles

86
Q

organisms that only grow near optimal temps

A

mesophiles

87
Q

When bacteria is above optimal temp, the enzyme ____
When bacteria is below optimal temp, the enzyme ____

A

denatures; grows very slowly or not at all

88
Q

When bacteria is above optimal temp, the cell membrane ____ in fluidity and can cause ____

When bacteria is below optimal temp, the cell membrane ____ in fluidity and ___ transport rates

A

increases / degeneration
decreases / lower

89
Q

When bacteria is above or below optimal temp, ribosomes ____ function

A

cannot

90
Q

S. marcescens produces _____ at optimal temperature

A

prodigiosin

91
Q

The red pigment produced by S. marcescens

A

prodigiosin

92
Q

temperature that S. marcescens produces prodigiosin

A

25 C

93
Q

organisms used in the UV light experiment

A

B. cereus / S. aureus

94
Q

B. cereus is a ____ cell
S. aureus is a ___ cell

A

endospore; vegetative

95
Q

___ is the most harmful radiation to bacteria

A

UVA

96
Q

___ ___ is halotolerant and can withstand higher salt concentrations than ___ ____
___ ___ is a halophile that only grows in high salt concentrations

A

S. aureus ; E.coli ; H. salinarum

97
Q

grows at moderate salt concentrations

A

Halotolerant

98
Q

grow best in high salt concentrations (mostly archaea)

A

Halophile

99
Q

parameter describing water availibilty

A

Aw (water activity)

100
Q

organisms used in osmotic pressure experiments

A

S. aureus ; E. coli ; H. salinarum

101
Q

an example of both a selective and differential medium used to grow and help ID Staphylococcus bacteria

A

MSA media (mannitol salt agar)

102
Q

MSA medium is ____% NaCl

A

75

103
Q

MRSA stands for

A

methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus

104
Q

Medium that favors colony pigmentation

A

SM 110 (Staphylococcus Medium 110)

105
Q

Staphylococci infections result from bacteria breaching ___ and ____ ____

A

skin / mucous membranes

106
Q

_____% of the USA population is a Staphylococci carrier

A

20-30

107
Q

an infectious disease caused by a pathogen that is resistant to many antibiotics

A

MRSA

108
Q

The ____ in MSA medium inhibits all but staph growth

A

NaCl

109
Q

If mannitol is fermented, ___ is produced
If phenol red indicator in MSA turns to yellow, ___ is produced

A

acid

110
Q
  • S. aureus
  • S. epidermis
  • S. haemolyticus
  • S. hominis
  • S. saprophyticus
A

5 pathogenic Staphylococci species

111
Q

how to make yogurt

A
  • bring milk to 87C
  • cool milk to 48 C
  • add a spoonful of greek yogurt to milk
  • incubate at 48 C and transfer to refridgerator
112
Q

S. thermophiles is a ___ bacteria
L. bulgaricus is a ___ bacteria

A

thermophile ; mesophile

113
Q
  • Lactobacillus bulgaricus
  • Streptococcus thermophilus
A

Yogurt bacteria

114
Q

Taste in yogurt depends on the type of ____ bacteria present

A

lactic (or milk used)

115
Q
  • thermophile ( 46-48 C)
  • ferments lactose to lactic acid
  • lactic acid lowers pH when secreted
  • Lactic acid reacts with calcium caseinate –> casein denatures, forming curd (thickness)
A

S. thermophiles

116
Q
  • mesophile
  • lactose fermentation occurs in the refrigerator
  • more acid-resistant than other bacteria
  • refrigeration keeps bacteria from making too much lactic acid
  • acid will prevent the growth of any other organisms
A

L. bulgaricus

117
Q

S. aureus is gram ___

A

positive

118
Q

E. coli, P. Vulgaris, P. aeruginosa are all gram __

A

negative

119
Q

antimicrobial impregnated paper disks are placed on plate inoculated to form a bacterial lawn, the plates are incubated and time is given for the agent to diffuse into the agar

A

Kirby-Bauer method

120
Q

If the organism is susceptible to the antibiotic, a ___ ___ will appear around the disk where growth is inhibited

A

clear zone

121
Q
  1. effects cell wall
  2. effects protein synthesis (70s ribosome)
  3. effects nucleic acid synthesis (DNA and RNA)
  4. effects enzymatic activity (competitive inhibition)
  5. injury to the plasma membrane
A

5 modes of action for antibiotics

122
Q
  • S. aureus
  • P. aeruginosa
  • M. tuburculosis
  • N. gonorrhea
  • Enterococcus
A

organisms used for antibiotic resistance

123
Q

an infection acquired within a healthcare setting during the delivery of medical care and is a non-communal infection (1.7 million cases in US)

A

Healthcare-associated infection (HAI)

124
Q

Antibiotics that affect a broad range of gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria that are used to treat hospital-acquired infections

A

broad-spectrum antibiotics

125
Q

compounds that kill or inhibit microorganisms

A

antimicrobials

126
Q

Antimicrobial agent that is produced naturally by a microorganism that inhibits/kills other bacteria

A

antibiotic

127
Q

antimicrobials that are produced by microorganisms and ALTERED in the lab

A

semi-synthetic antibiotics

128
Q

antimicrobials that are produced PURELY in the lab

A

Synthetics antimicrobials

129
Q

area around disc with antimicrobial agent where no growth occurs

A

inhibition zone

130
Q

substances that can kill microbes but are gentle enough to be applied to living tissue

A

antiseptics

131
Q

Antiseptics do not destroy _____
They work mostly to prevent infections from ____ skin bacteria

A

endospores; opportunistic

132
Q

substances that kill microbes and that are harmful to living tissue

A

disinfectant

133
Q

reduce microbial numbers but do not completely eliminate all microbes

A

sanitizers

134
Q

In blood agar, S. aureus produces ___ toxin that causes ___ hemolysis

A

alpha / beta

135
Q

Used as an enrichment medium for fastidious microbes as well as differential media

A

Blood Agar

136
Q

Partially broken down hemoglobin is released and gives greenish color in medium

A

alpha hemolysis

137
Q

Complete lysis of red blood cells and gives a clear zone around the colony

A

beta hemolysis

138
Q

No hemolysis and no change in the blood agar around the colony

A

gamma hemolysis

139
Q

determine presence of coagulase protein

A

Coagulate test

140
Q

Coagulase tests and blood agar tests are used on _____ medium

A

SM 110

141
Q

In coagulate tests, positive tests will show a ___ formation — negative tests will show ___

A

clot / liquid

142
Q

S. aureus is coagulate ____

A

positive

143
Q

The coagulate test is used to determine between Staph ____ and Staph ___

A

aureus / saphrophyticus

144
Q

In MSA medium, the yellow results are _____.
the red results are ____ and _____.

A

S. aureus / S. marcescens & S. epidermidis

145
Q

used as an initial tests to identify staphylococci

A

Blood Agar Test

146
Q

protein derived from animal protein collagen

A

Gelatin

147
Q

used to determine the ability of an microbe to produce gelatinases / protease that liquifies the gelatin

A

Gelatin Hydrolysis Test

148
Q

Gelatin Hydrolysis Test results
liquid = ____
remains solid = ___

A

positive; negative

149
Q

B. cereus is citrate _____

A

negative

150
Q

endospores are resistant to heat so it takes longer for the heat to kill the endospores

A

Why does B. cereus take longer to kill under UV light?

151
Q
  • time of exposure
  • presence of glass /plastic material to block radiation
  • endospores are more resistant to UV than vegetative cells
A

killing properties of UV light depend on

152
Q
  • acid-soluble proteins protect DNA by changing shape
  • cell repair mechanism is produced by UV
A

How are endospores more resistant to UV than vegetative cells?

153
Q

A common agar medium used for anti-microbial susceptibility testing

A

Mueller-Hinton agar

154
Q
  • S. aureus (Gram +)
  • E. coli (Gram -)
  • P. vulgaris (Gram -)
  • P. aeruginosa (Gram -)
A

organisms used for antibiotic sensitivity testing

155
Q
  • tetracycline
  • gentamicin
  • streptomycin

All are antibiotics that effects ___

A

protein synthesis

156
Q
  • penicillin (1st antibiotic)
  • cephalothin
  • vancomycin (drug of choice for MRSA)

All are antibiotics that effects ___

A

cell wall synthesis

157
Q

injury to plasma membrane. Used topically. Effective against P. aeruginosa.

A

Polymyxin B

158
Q

has a biofilm which causes more resistance to bacteria

A

P. aeroginosa

159
Q

disinfectant that destroys cell wall synthesis, cell membrane, and DNA

A

hydrogen peroxide

160
Q

disinfectant that destroys cell wall synthesis

A

bleach

161
Q

antiseptic that inhibits cell membrane (huge resistance)

A

tea tree oil

162
Q

antiseptic that inhibits enzymatic activity

A

iodine

163
Q

Capsule stain is a ___ stain and uses ____ dye to stain background and bacterial cell

A

differential / acidic/basic

164
Q

Capsule is synthesized in ___ and secretes outside of cell
- made of _____
- resistant to ___

A

cytoplasm / polysaccharides / phagocytosis

165
Q

primary stain for capsule stain: ___
counterstain for capsule stain: ___

A

crystal violet / cooper sulfate

166
Q

capsule made up of polysaccharides

A

Glycocalyx

167
Q

extracellular gel-like layer outside cell wall

A

Capsule

168
Q
  • Protective (S. pnemoniae → pneumonia)
  • Attachment (S.mutans → dental plaque)
A

capsule function

169
Q

use crystal violet and cooper sulfate
- all parts of cell take up purple dye

A

Anthony capsule stain

170
Q

what does cooper sulfate act as in capsule stain?

A

decolorizer and counterstain

171
Q

washes out crystal violet in cell but does not decolorize the capsule

A

cooper sulfate

172
Q
  • avoid cell shrinking (could cause false positive)
  • avoid cell shape changing
  • could get false negative because the heat could destroy the capsule
A

Why is there no heat fix in capsule stain?

173
Q

The purple color in the capsule stain is the ___ ___ stained

A

cell walls

MICROBIOLOGY (8 decks)

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