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Microbiology 101 > Lab Midterm (Ex 1-7) > Flashcards

Lab Midterm (Ex 1-7) Flashcards

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1
Q

___ diseases are transmitted person to person.

A

Contagious (or communicable)

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2
Q

Transmission may be made through contact with contaminated inanimate objects, called ____, such as bedding, towels, drinking vessels, or needles.

A

Fomites

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3
Q

Some diseases are transmitted by insect and arthropod ___.

A

Vectors

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4
Q

This type of transmission occurs when an insect carries fecal pathogens on its feet, and then walks on food.

A

Mechanical transmission

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5
Q

This type of transmission occurs through the bite of an infected mosquito, tick, or flea.

A

Biological transmission

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6
Q

What is an example of a disease that is non-communicable and cannot be passed from one infected person to another? How is this acquired?

A

Anthrax. It is acquired only from infection from spores from the environment.

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7
Q

This is the study of patterns of disease infection and spread.

A

Epidemiology

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8
Q

These are present in a population all the time at low levels

A

Endemic diseases

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9
Q

These affects many individuals in a population in a short time.

A

Epidemic diseases

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10
Q

These are worldwide epidemics.

A

Pandemics

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11
Q

These are diseases that can spread from animals to humans.

A

Zoonoses

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12
Q

___ are humans or animals that are sources of infection.

A

Reservoirs

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13
Q

Human reservoirs that are infected without having any symptoms are called _____.

A

Disease carriers

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14
Q

If you were an epidemiologist, tracing the source of an epidemic, you would trace it back to it’s original source case, which is also known as ___.

A

index case

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15
Q

What part of the microscope allows you to control the amount of light that passes through your slide?

A

Diaphragm

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16
Q

Which lenses do we use in the microbiology lab?

A

10x and 100x (oil immersion lens)

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17
Q

In addition to these lenses, where else do you get additional magnification, and how much magnification is it?

A

The eyepiece contains a 10x lens.

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18
Q

How do you determine the total magnification with your microscope?

A

Multiply the lens magnification power and the eyepiece lens magnification power.

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19
Q

What is a stain that differentiates between two types of bacteria, and also helps to visualize the bacteria?

A

A differential stain

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20
Q

What two classes does Gram staining differentiate between? What structure allows this to be visualized in a Gram stain?

A

Gram positive and Gram negative.

The peptidoglycan in the cell wall structure is what causes this to be visualized.

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21
Q

What is the primary dye used in a Gram stain?

A

Crystal Violet

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22
Q

What is the counter stain used in a Gram stain?

A

Safranin

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23
Q

What is name of the mordant that is used after the primary dye?

A

Gram’s Iodine

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24
Q

How does the mordant act on the primary dye in a Gram stain?

A

It crystalizes the dye that penetrated into the microbe cell wall, locking it in place

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25
Q

Which cells have a larger, more highly cross linked peptidoglycan layer? What color will they appear?

A

Gram positive. Purple

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26
Q

What color do Gram negative cells appear in a Gram stain?

A

Pink/red

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27
Q

How long should the mordant be left on the slide before rinsing?

A

1 minute

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28
Q

When should you heat fix the slide?

A

After the sample has dried onto the slide, before starting the Gram stain.

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29
Q

How long should the primary dye be left on the slide before rinsing?

A

45 seconds

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30
Q

What are the next 3 steps that should be taken after letting the mordant sit on the slide?

A
  1. Rinse with water for 5 seconds.
  2. Decolorize with ethanol.
  3. Rinse again with water.
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31
Q

How much ethanol should be used to decolorize the slide?

A

Approximately 10-15 drops

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32
Q

How long should the counter stain be left on the slide before rinsing?

A

1 minute

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33
Q

When are spores produced?

A

When environmental conditions are poor (essential nutrients/water is not available to the cell)

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34
Q

How are spores reproduced?

A

Spores are not formed by reproduction. One spore is generated from one mother cell.

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35
Q

What is the first step in spore staining, before you ever actually begin staining?

A

Prepare a heat fixed slide of the sample.

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36
Q

What is the first stain used in a spore stain?

A

Malachite green

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37
Q

What do you do after flooding the initial stain in a spore stain?

A

Place the slide on a staining rack. Hold the bunsen burner over the stain just into it starts steaming.

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38
Q

What do you do when the stain begins to evaporate during the steaming process in the spore staining?

A

Do not let it evaporate. Keep applying stain as needed.

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39
Q

How long does the stain need to sit/steam on a spore stain?

A

5 minutes

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40
Q

What should you do before rinsing the steamed stain off this slide?

A

Allow the slide to cool so the slide doesn’t break.

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41
Q

After rinsing the slide, what is the next stain used in spore staining? How long should it sit on the stain?

A

Safranin. 1 minute.

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42
Q

Growth medium may be chemically defined or may contain ___ ___ ___, or even more complex substances such as ___ ___ ___ ___.

A

partially digested proteins (peptones)

bovine red blood cells

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43
Q

What is extracted from marine red algae?

A

agar

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44
Q

What is added to growth medium to make it solid?

A

agar

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45
Q

What is the common agar used in the lab?

A

nutrient agar

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46
Q

How is medium sterilized before use?

A

Autoclave (121’C at 15 PSI for 15 minutes)

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47
Q

How would you prepare the TSA plate to do an environmental sample (such as the bottom of your shoe)?

A

Lawn

48
Q

What is the method for transferring cultures from from one medium to another without contamination?

A

Aseptic technique

49
Q

What plating method would you use for a mixed culture?

A

Streak plate

50
Q

When do you flame the loop when doing a streak plate?

A

Before inoculating the loop, and again before each sector on the plate

51
Q

How do you tell whether there is growth in nutrient broth?

A

Turbidity

52
Q

Why are petri plates inverted in the incubator?

A

To prevent water evaporation droplets from falling onto the plate surface.

53
Q

What does CFU stand for?

A

Colony forming units

54
Q

What is the technique called that is often used to determine the number of bacteria in a sample?

A

Standard plate count

55
Q

What technique needs to be done to insure that you have an adequate number of sample to count when determining CFU?

A

Serial dilution

56
Q

CFU/ml = ?

A

Colonies counted / (0.1 ml)(the dilution)

57
Q

How do you calculate the dilution?

A

(0.01)(0.01)(0.1)(0.1)

as appropriate based on which plate presented the best for counting

58
Q

What general type of media may inhibit/allow growth of certain bacterial species?

A

Selective media

59
Q

What general type of media may present colonies in different colors based on certain characteristics?

A

Differential media

60
Q

What does MacConkey Agar plates identify?

A

Lactose fermenting, Gram-negative enteric organisms

61
Q

What do MacConkey Agar plates inhibit?

A

Growth of Gram-positive organisms

62
Q

What color change happens with MacConkey Agar plates, and what does it signify?

A

Red. The bacterial colonies are fermenting lactose.

63
Q

What causes the color change on the MacConkey Agar plates?

A

pH response due to the acidic environment from the fermenting lactose

64
Q

What is a common medium used for the isolation of some pathogenic Gram-positive organisms, by measuring salt tolerance?

A

Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)

65
Q

What color change happens with MSA plates, and what does it signify?

A

Changes pH indicator from red to yellow. Ferments the Mannitol into acid.

66
Q

What does growth/inhibition of growth signify on the MSA plates?

A

Growth demonstrates salt tolerance of Gram-positive organisms, while inhibition of growth shows salt’s inhibition of other organisms.

67
Q

These grow only in the total absence of oxygen

A

Obligate anaerobes

68
Q

These prefer higher concentrations of CO2 (5-10%)

A

Capnophillic organisms

69
Q

These grow only in the presence of oxygen

A

Obligate aerobes

70
Q

These require low oxygen concentrations (2-10%) for growth. Higher O2 concentrations will inhibit their growth and they also cannot grow in total absence of oxygen.

A

Microaerophiles

71
Q

These can grow with or without oxygen (but usually grow better in the presence of oxygen).

A

Facultative anaerobes

72
Q

What does growth in the solid medium tubes signify, in regards to oxygen requirements of organisms?

A

Oxygen gradient, high O2 to low O2 (top to bottom)

73
Q

Where would you likely find obligate anaerobes in a tube of solid medium?

A

At the bottom

74
Q

Where would you likely find facultative anaerobes in a tube of solid medium?

A

Scattered throughout, with more on top

75
Q

Where would you likely find obligate aerobes in a tube of solid medium?

A

At the top

76
Q

Where would you likely find microaerophiles in a tube of solid medium?

A

Somewhere in the middle

77
Q

Which organisms prefer growth temps in the 15’C-20’C range?

A

Psycrophiles

78
Q

Which organisms prefer growth temps in the 50’C-60’C range?

A

Thermophiles

79
Q

Which organisms prefer growth temps in the 30’C-37’C range?

A

Mesophiles

80
Q

What organisms might you find in the bottom of the ocean?

A

Psycrophiles

81
Q

Which organisms are happiest to harm humans?

A

Mesophiles

82
Q

Which organisms might you find in the Yellowstone hot springs?

A

Thermophiles

83
Q

What type of bacteria are salt hating?

A

Halophilic

84
Q

What type of bacteria are salt loving?

A

Halotolerant

85
Q

When a solute concentration is greater outside of the cell, the solution is said to be ___.

A

hypertonic

86
Q

When UV light exposure damages DNA, it is possible for structural changes to reverse with exposure to visible light. What is this known as? (2 answers)

A

Light Repair, or photo reactivation

87
Q

Another mechanism to repair structural changes when visible light is not possible is known as _____.

A

Dark repair

88
Q

How does the UV structural damage repair mechanism work (method when no visible light present)?

A

Involves enzymes which physically remove and replace the structural changes caused by the radiant energy

89
Q

Flaming inoculation loops are an example of what type of sterilization technique?

A

Dry heat

90
Q

This type of sterilization technique uses steam to sterilize.

A

Moist heat

91
Q

What are 3 examples of sterilization techniques that use moist heat?

A

Boiling, autoclaving, pasteurization

92
Q

What are the temp/time methods for pasteurization? (2 answers)

A

63’C (30 minutes) or 72’C (15 minutes)

93
Q

What is the name for chemicals that are used on the surface of inanimate objects to kill microbes?

A

Disinfectants

94
Q

True/False: There are chemicals that can single handedly completely kill all of the microbes in the area where it is applied.

A

False. There are none that can do that.

95
Q

These are chemicals that are used on living tissues to kill microbes.

A

Antiseptics

96
Q

An example of a common household antiseptic is ___.

A

Mouthwash

97
Q

An example of a common household disinfectant is ___.

A

Bleach

98
Q

Antibiotics are chemicals that are often produced by _____ (such as ____), and are used as a defense mechanism.

A

Microorganisms, such as fungi.

99
Q

In human and animal care, antibiotics against pathogenic bacteria are either derived from ____ or are ____ ____.

A

Microorganisms; Synthetically produced

100
Q

In general, how do antibiotics work to kill bacteria?

A

Each antibiotic works by a specific mechanism that targets some vital process of the specific bacteria to cause its death.

101
Q

What method is used to determine the effectiveness of antibiotics on certain bacteria?

A

Disk-diffusion method

102
Q

The effectiveness of an antibiotic on a bacterium is determined by evaluating the ________ (or the circle around the disk where the antibiotic noticeably affected the cell viability).

A

Zone of inhibition

103
Q

What are the 3 classifications of an antibiotic, relative to the effectiveness of an antibiotic?

A

Resistant, Intermediate, Susceptible

104
Q

What is the name for infections acquired in a hospital setting?

A

Nosocomial infections

105
Q

What type of medium is used for antibiotic susceptibility testing?

A

Mueller-Hinton Agar (MH)

106
Q

What is TSA?

A

Tryptic Soy Agar (plates)

107
Q

How do you use forceps aseptically?

A

Dip forceps in alcohol, run through flame, let flame extinguish itself, let it cool

108
Q

What type of plate do you use in the dilution plating, and what is the spread method for the plate itself?

A

TSA plate; Glass hockey stick spread evenly over entire plate

109
Q

What type of media is best for when you need to dilute the bacteria?

A

Liquid media

110
Q

What type of plate is best used for a streak plate?

A

TSA plate

111
Q

What is BHI, and what is a characteristic of it?

A

Brain Heart Infusion (agar); It is very nutrient rich, great for festidious organisms

112
Q

In a temperature comparison study, how do you determine which temperature an organism is most “happy”?

A

It is the most pigmented at that temperature

113
Q

True/False: Salt-tolerant organisms can ferment mannitol

A

False. Salt-tolerant organisms CANNOT ferment mannitol.

114
Q

What color is a MSA plate before used in an experiment?

A

Reddish

115
Q

After spore staining a slide, how will a happy cell appear?

A

pink

116
Q

After spore staining, what are you looking at when you see teal/bluish-green free cells floating in your slide?

A

Free spores

117
Q

After spore staining, what are you looking at when you see pink cells, that have smaller teal/bluish-green cells inside of them?

A

These are spores in process, within the cell

Microbiology 101 (10 decks)

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