Exam FINAL: System Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

This natural defense of the skin creates a tough, waterproof layer

A

Keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This natural defense of the skin allows for new skin every 20-40 days

A

Skin sloughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This natural defense of the skin is a low pH, high lipid protector, essentially the same as ear wax

A

Sebum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This natural defense of the skin is a low pH, high salt defense.

A

Sweat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This natural defense of the skin is an enzyme that digests the peptidoglycan of bacterial organisms

A

Lysozyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Propionibacterium acnes, Corynebacterium spp., Micrococcus spp., Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp., and yeasts are examples of what?

A

Normal skin flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This is the organism that causes acne

A

Propionibacterium acnes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Propionibacterium acnes is Gram positive or Gram negative?

A

Propionibacterium acnes is Gram +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does Propionibacterium acnes do?

A

Digests sebum, attracts neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are lesions formed when infected with Propionibacterium acnes?

A

Neutrophil digestive enzymes caues lesions, or “pus pockets”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This treatment for acne acts by drying plugged follicles and killing microbes. What is a downside of it?

A

Benzoyl peroxide. It is basically a bleach on your skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This is an antibiotic treatment for acne.

A

Tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does Accutane work for acne? What are problems with it?

A

It inhibits sebum formation. It has many severe side effects. (How is it even legal?!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What organisms cause impetigo?

A

Staphyloccocus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This disease is characterized by peeling, crusty skin, and is very contagious.

A

Impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What disease does SSSS stand for, and what is its cause?

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome is caused by Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This non-deadly, but very painful, disease causes large red blisters on the skin that peel off in sheets.

A

SSSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Enzymes produced by an organism are _____, or things that allow an organism to produce disease

A

virulence factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This is the most treated pathogen currently

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This is the organism that causes necrotizing fasciitis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Enzymes produced by Streptococcus pyogenes in necrotizing fasciitis cause what action?

A

Tissue digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What may necrotizing fasciitis lead to, as correlated with a drop in blood pressure?

A

Toxic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the mortality rate for necrotizing fasciitis? What is the general treatment plan?

A

30-70% mortality

Surgical removal/amputation of limbs is most appropriate due to the rapid rate of spreading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What organism causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What kind of organism is Rickettsia rickettsii?

A

A gram negative bacillus or coccobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever spread? Where is it generally found?

A

Transmitted by tick bites. Mostly found in the Eastern Atlantic states.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What causes the red to black rash seen with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? What is happening to to cause this?

A

Petechiae (hemmorhaging)

The capillaries are degraded by the organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Besides the red to black rash, what are 4 symptoms of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Fever, Chills, Headache, Muscle Pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is unique about Rickettsia rickettsii that caused it to be difficult to discover? What kind of parasite is it?

A

It is an obligate intracellular parasite (needs a host to survive). It does not grow in a culture, therefore was hard to initially discover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does Rickettsia rickettsii depend on it’s host for?

A

It needs to obtain nutrients, NAD+, and CoA from the host, as it does not have it for itself. It uses this to complete cellular respiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What binding action does Rickettsia ricketsii have on the host cells, and where does it go?

A

It binds to cell surface, taken into endothelial cells. It escapes from a phagosome into the cytoplasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever diagnosed?

How is it treated?

A

Diagnosed using PCR, or other molecular methods

Treated with long course of antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

These are rashes associated with elevated lesions filled with fluid

A

Vesicular or pustular rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What was the overall death rate of smallpox, historically? What group of people were more likely to die?

A

20-80% death rate

Children more likely to die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What disease is the only disease completely eradicated by vaccinations? When was is eradicated?

A

Smallpox in 1980

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are problems with the vaccine for smallpox?

A

It’s incredibly harsh, death possible, amputations from infected limb, considered a bioterrorism agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What virus causes chickenpox?

A

Varicella-zoster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where does local infection of chickenpox reside?

A

In lymph nodes in the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What symptoms occur with lymphocyte associated viremia?

A

Fever, malaise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

These are rashes associated with flat to slightly raised colored bumps

A

Maculo-papular rashes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 2 physical observable symptoms of measles?

A

Koplik spots and skin rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the worldwide leading cause of vaccine-preventable death among children?

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the measles death rate in developed countries? What is it among malnourished children?

A

1-5%, and 10-30% among malnourished children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are examples of health complications from measles?

A

pneumonia, diarrhea, encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What happens when a pregnant woman contracts Rubella? What symptoms does it cause?

A

Congenital Rubella Syndrome causes small birth weight, blindness, hearing loss, mental retardation, heart problems in the infant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What provides restricted entry into the brain for microorganisms, medications, and the immune system?

A

The blood-brain barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This is inflammation of the brain

A

Encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

This is inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord

A

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

This strain of bacteria causes bacterial meningitis, generally affecting infants and newborns

A

Haemophilus influenzae type b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

This strain of bacteria causes bacterial meningitis, generally affecting children between 1 month-4 years old, and the elderly

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

This strain of bacteria causes bacterial meningitis, generally affected college students.

A

Neisseria meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

True/False: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram + diplococci

A

TRUE: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram + diplococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumonia are ___. This means _____.

A

Encapsulated. This means it has the ability to cause disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The subunit vaccine for Streptococcal meningitis acts how?

A

Induces opsonizing antibody to the capsule of the pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

These are immune cells for the brain and CNS (2 ans)

A

Microglial cells and microphages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How does Neisseria meningitidis enter the body to cause disease?

A

Enters via droplets through the nasal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How many Americans get meningococcal meningitis from Neisseria meningitidis each year? How many die? How many have long term disabilities resulting?

A

Meningococcal meningitis (Neiserria meningitidis)
2,500 Americans/year
10-15% die
20% long-term disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What type of vaccine is used for Neisseria meningitidis and how does it work?

A

Subunit vaccine that induces opsonizing antibody to capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

This is the name of the ORGANISM that is also known as the Brain Eating Amoeba

A

Naegleria fowleri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

This is the name of the DISEASE caused by the brain eating amoeba

A

Naegleria Meningoencephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where is Naegleria fowleri found?

A

In fresh, warm water (ponds, ground water, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When do symptoms appear after infection with Naegleria fowleri? What are the symptoms?

A

3-10 days after exposure.

Severe headache, fever, stiff neck, dementia, coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the route of passage for Naegleria fowleri to infect a human?

A

Initially up the nose, then makes way into brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does Naegleria fowleri do to a human?

A

Feeds on brain and spinal tissue, destroying it. Death occurs within 10 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the treatment for Naegleria meningoencephalitis?

A

There is no treatment. Death is likely (>95% mortality rate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

This is the name of the organism that causes toxoplasmosis.

A

Toxoplasma gondii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What type of organism is Toxoplasma gondii?

A

Flagellated protozoan parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Toxoplasma gondii?

A

Cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are two groups of people that are at risk of infection by Toxoplasma gondii?

A

Pregnant people (fetus at risk) and people with AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What can happen to fetuses that are exposed to Toxoplasmosis infection? (3 ans)

A

Liver damage, brain abnormalities, blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What organism causes Leprosy (Hansen’s disease)?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

This disease causes change in skin pigmentation, loss of sensation, potentially loss of limbs.

A

Leprosy (Hansen’s disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

This animal is a carrier of Mycobacterium leprae.

A

Armadillo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Where do Mycobacterium leprae multiply and thrive within the body?

A

In macrophages. They escape the phagolysosome and thrive within these cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Is Leprosy treatable? If so, how?

A

Yes, it is a long, slow treatment process with a drug cocktail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How is rabies virus different from other viruses?

A

Most viruses have a very narrow window of infection potential, while rabies can infect any mammal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Human “dumb” rabies presents with these symptoms. (5)

A

Fever, confusion, anxiety, encephalitis, death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Animal “furious” rabies presents with these symptoms. (4)

A

Wandering, aggression, biting, salivating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is hydrophobia related to rabies

A

Fear of water. Perhaps due to inability to swallow saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How is rabies diagnosed?

A

Must be diagnosed post-mortem. Brain biopsy will show plaques in the brain indicative of Rabies infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the name of the plaques found in the brain of a rabies infected animal?

A

Negri bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the treatment and mortality rate of rabies infection in the brain?

A

There is no treatment once the brain reaches the brain. The mortality rate is nearly 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Poliovirus, an “enterovirus” has an ___ ___ shell that protects it from ___.

A

icosahedra capsid shell that protects it from digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What disease is caused by Poliovirus? What are its symptoms?

A

Poliomyelitis; Paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the best way to prevent poliovirius?

A

Safe, effective vaccine (PV-1,2,3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the name of the organism that causes tetanus?

A

Clostridium tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is unique aboutu the morphology of the Clostridium tetani cells?

A

They have a tennis racket shape, sending their spores to one side of the cell to give this appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What causes the symptoms of Tetanus once the bacteria makes entry into the host? What symptoms are caused?

A

The bacterial invasion releases bacterial toxins, causing rigid paralysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

This is the term for bacteria in the blood.

A

Bacteremia

90
Q

This is the term for bacteria that is growing in the blood

A

Septicemia

91
Q

This is the term for viruses in the blood

A

Viremia

92
Q

In septic shock, the following occurs: ____ release; macrophage ____; ____ blood pressure (leaky capillaries); high ____

A

endotoxin (LPS) release;
macrophage cytokines;
low BP (leaky capillaries);
high fever

93
Q

This is an overwhelming systemic response to an infection

A

Shock

94
Q

This CV system defense are antimicrobial proteins in lysosomes of phagocytic cells

A

Defensins

95
Q

Having infectious agents in the blood will very quickly evolve into ___ ___ due to the connection to everything.

A

systemic infection

96
Q

What is the organism that causes “the” Plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

97
Q

What type of cell is Yersinia pestis?

A

Gram negative rod

98
Q

Where does Yersinia pestis grow?

A

In the digestive tract of a flea

99
Q

What is the vector for Plague? What is the reservoir?

A

Plague vector = flea

Plague reservoir = rodents, prairie dogs

100
Q

Where is Plague commonly found in the US?

A

Four corners in AZ

101
Q

When did the Black Death occur?

A

1348-1350

102
Q

The Black Death reduced Europe’s population by about half, or ___ people.

A

100 million

103
Q

Which plague was the most common type?

A

Bubonic plague

104
Q

Historically, what was the mortality rate for Bubonic plague, and when did death occur?

A

Up to 80% mortality rate. Death in appx 8 days

105
Q

Historically, what was the mortality rate for Pneumonic plague, and when did death occur?

A

90-95% mortality rate.

Death in appx 8 days.

106
Q

Historically, what was the mortality rate for Septicemic plague, and when did death occur?

A

Near 100% mortality rate.

Death on first day of symptoms.

107
Q

Today, what is the mortality rate of Bubonic plague, when treated? When not treated?

A

1-5% mortality when treated.

50% mortality when not treated.

108
Q

Today, what is the mortality rate of Pneumonic plague, when treated? When not treated?

A

5-15% mortality when treated early.

Almost 100% fatal when not treated.

109
Q

Today, what is the mortality rate of Septicemic plague, when treated? What is a problem with treatment?

A

50% mortality.

There still is no good treatment

110
Q

What are the swollen lymph nodes called with Bubonic plague?

A

Buboes

111
Q

When Yersinia pestis enters the bloodstream, where does it grow?

A

In the macrophages in lymph nodes

112
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi is the organism that causes what disease?

A

Lyme disease

113
Q

What shape/type of bacteria is Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Gram negative spirochete (motile!)

114
Q

What is the vector (and its reservoir) to cause Lyme disease in a human by Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Lyme disease: Borrelia burgdorferi
Vector: Ticks
Reservoir: Mice, Deer

115
Q

What occurs during the primary stage of Lyme disease?

A

Bulls-eye rash on skin

116
Q

What 2 things occur during the secondary stage of Lyme disease?

A

Neurological symptoms

Cardiac dysfunction

117
Q

What occurs during the tertiary stage of Lyme disease?

A

Lyme arthritis

118
Q

Inflammation of large joints and ___ occurs with Lyme arthritis

A

Paraplegia

119
Q

How is Lyme disease treated? What happens if treatment is delayed?

A

A long course of antibiotics. Delays in treatment can result in long term neurological damage, wheelchair-bound etc.

120
Q

What is the name for the disease known as Rabbit fever?

A

Tularemia

121
Q

What is the organism that causes Tularemia?

A

Francisella tularensis

122
Q

What kind of organism is Francisella tularensis?

A

Gram negative coccobacillus

123
Q

What is the reservoir for Francisella tularensis?

A

Reservoir=Rabbits and small animals

124
Q

What is the vector for Francisella tularensis? Are there other potential causes?

A

Vector=Ticks.

Also caused by ingestion of contaminated meat

125
Q

What symptoms are present with tularemia? (5)

A

Fever, diarrhea, pain, fatigue, difficulty breathing

126
Q

What happens if you get tularemia via a bite?

A

Skin ulcer develops at the bite site

127
Q

Why is Francisella tularemia considered a bioterrorism agent?

A

It is extremely infectious, needing as few as 10 organisms to cause disease

128
Q

Aedes agypti is the cause for what viral infections?

A

Yellow fever and Dengue fever

129
Q

What occurs with capillaries and blood with a viral hemorrhagic fever?

A

Capillary fragility and leakage

Blood clotting system is disrupted, causing hemorrhaging

130
Q

Why is a viral hemmorhagic fever problematic for the liver? What can it cause?

A

It damages the liver as it attempts to process the damaged blood cells; Leads to hepatitis

131
Q

What is the fatality rate for Ebola?

A

Up to 90%

132
Q

What are 3 viral hemorrhagic fever diseases?

A

Yellow Fever
Dengue Fever
Ebola

133
Q

Yellow fever causes ___-like symptoms. It is ___ (always/sometimes) hemorrhagic.

A

Flu-like

Sometimes hemorrhagic

134
Q

Dengue fever causes ___-like symptoms. It is ___ (always/sometimes) hemorrhagic.

A

Measles-like

Sometimes hemorrhagic.

135
Q

What is the mortality rate for Yellow fever?

A

15% mortality rate

136
Q

What is the mortality rate for Dengue fever?

A

20% mortality rate (untreated)

2.5% if treated

137
Q

This viral fever infection is almost always hemorrhagic

A

Ebola

138
Q

How do people with Ebola die?

A

Hypovolemic shock from loss of blood volume

139
Q

What is the overall mortality rate for Ebola? (generally speaking, not the current outbreaks)

A

80-90% mortality

140
Q

What is the approximate mortality in the current outbreak of Ebola?

A

50% mortality

141
Q

When was Ebola first found as an emerging disease?

A

1976

142
Q

Why do scientists believe fruit bats are such a key player in the lifecycle of Ebola?

A

They aren’t certain, but fruit bats are the only beings that seem to have antibodies to Ebola, so it is a decent proposal.

143
Q

What cells are the only ones affected by HIV?

A

Helper T lymphocytes (CD4+)

144
Q

What is the name of the skin lesions that affect AIDS patients, covering the skin, esophagus, and other sites.

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

145
Q

What organism causes Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

HHV-8 (Human Herpes Virus-8)

146
Q

What are the mixed cell tumors caused by HHV-8 made up of?

A

HHV-8 mixed cell tumors are lymphocytes, fibroblasts, and blood vessels.

147
Q

AZT is an example of what type of drug?

A

Nucleoside analog

148
Q

Nucleoside analogs and protease inhibitors are types of drugs used for what?

A

HIV infections

149
Q

How do HIV drugs work?

A

By blocking reverse transcriptase or inhibiting protease, essentially stopping HIV DNA from being replicated in the patient.

150
Q

What is a distinct difference between the majority of AIDS cases in the US versus the world?

A

Nearly half of US cases are obtained via homosexual sex, while the majority of the world’s cases are obtained via heterosexual cases.

151
Q

What are 4 GI tract defenses in the oral cavity?

A

Lysozyme, saliva, tonsils, normal flora

152
Q

What is a GI tract defense located in saliva and in the gut?

A

Secretory IgA

153
Q

What are 2 factors in the stomach that are GI tract defenses?

A

Low pH, mucus

154
Q

What is the pH of the stomach?

A

0.5-1.0 pH

155
Q

What are 4 GI tract defenses located in the intestines?

A

Bile, GALT, normal flora, and peristalsis

156
Q

What is a common organism to cause tooth and gum infections?

A

Streptococcus mutans

157
Q

What organism causes gastric ulcers?

A

Helicobacter pylori

158
Q

According to the CDC, over half of diarrhea outbreaks were caused by what?

A

Unknown etiology

159
Q

Of the bacterial diarrhea outbreak cases, what organism is a major cause?

A

Salmonella

160
Q

Of the viral diarrhea outbreaks, what viral organism is a major cause>

A

Norovirus

161
Q

What was Typhoid Mary a human carrier and reservoir of?

A

Salmonella typhi

162
Q

What symptoms present with Typhoid?

A

Stupor, “Typhoid eyes”

163
Q

Is Typhoid treatable?

A

It is fatal

164
Q

What is the name of the Salmonella serovar that commonly affects people today?

A

Salmonella enterica

165
Q

What is the concern with Salmonella and eggs?

A

It can actually penetrate the egg shell, getting into the yolk of the egg.

166
Q

What is the concern with Salmonella as far as ease of transmission?

A

It is very infectious, and only requires as few as 10 organisms for infection.

167
Q

Was is a key virulence factor with Salmonella?

A

Attachment/adhesion ability

168
Q

What kind of organism is Salmonella enterica?

A

Gram negative bacillus

169
Q

What two methods are used for Salmonella classification?

A

Serology (titers); Phage susceptibility assays

170
Q

How does Salmonella invade epithelial cells?

A

Motility, LPS, fimbriae

171
Q

What symptoms are caused by Salmonellosis? (3)

A

Nausea, cramps, diarrhea

172
Q

What is the problem regarding the infectiousness of salmonellosis and it’s relatively short reovery time?

A

One recovers in a few days, but can shed the organism for up to 6 months, contributing to outbreaks

173
Q

This is exclusively a human parasite, infecting the large intestine

A

Shigella

174
Q

What is Shigella also known as?

A

Dysentery

175
Q

What is the name of the exotoxin released by Shigella? What does it affect/do?

A

Shiga-toxin. It affects the intestine, inhibiting protein synthesis of epithelial layer of the large intestine

176
Q

What is a harmful strain of E. coli, that is mostly a bovine intestinal commensal?

A

E. coli 0157 H7

177
Q

What does E. coli 0157 H7 infect?

A

Large and small intestine

178
Q

What is the exotoxin produced by E. coli 0157 H7?

A

Shiga-like toxin

179
Q

What does shiga-like toxin affect?

A

Intestines and kidneys

180
Q

What is the name of the syndrome commonly associates with E. coli 0157 H7, that is usually the cause of death in children?

A

HUS - Hemolytic uremic syndrome

181
Q

What is the name of the organism that causes gastroenteritis, commonly associated with chicken slaughterhouses?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

182
Q

What kind of organism is Campylobacter jejuni?

A

Small curved Gram negative rod

183
Q

Approximately how many cases of Campylobacteriosis occur per year in the US?

A

2.4 million cases/year

184
Q

What are the sources of Camplyobacteriosis? (4)

A

Undercooked poultry, shellfish, unpasteurized dairy products, contaminated water

185
Q

What are the symptoms of Campylobacteriosis?

A

Watery/bloody diarrhea, stomach cramps, vomiting

186
Q

What is a virulence factor of Campylobacter jejuni?

A

Adhesion to mucosa of the GI tract

187
Q

What is the treatment for Campylobacteriosis?

A

Antibiotics

188
Q

This is the organism that causes Cholera

A

Vibrio cholerae

189
Q

What is the toxin released by Vibrio cholerae?

A
Cholera toxin (CT) 
A-B toxin
190
Q

What is unique about Vibrio cholerae and the affect on its host

A

The bacteria is non-invasive; it never enter the host cells.

191
Q

How do people die from Cholera?

A

Dehydration from heavy fluid loss

192
Q

What is unique about the diarrhea caused by Cholera?

A

“rice water stools” is a distinct gray fecal water

193
Q

What is the best treatment for Cholera? What antibiotic is used?

A

No antibiotics used for Cholera. Treatment focuses on fluid replacement

194
Q

Who discovered the source of Cholera to be from drinking water?

A

John Snow in London

195
Q

What is the mortality rate for treated Cholera? Untreated?

A

Cholera (Vibrio cholerae)
Treated: <1% mortality
Untreated: 30% mortality

196
Q

___ made by bacteria in inappropriately stored food can cause acute diarrhea with vomiting

A

Enterotoxins

197
Q

This bacterial organism is commonly associated with food-born illness connected to rice.

A

Bacillus cereus

198
Q

This bacterial organism is commonly associated with food-born illness connected to meats.

A

Clostridium perfringes

199
Q

This bacterial organism is commonly associated with food-born illness connected to meats and salads.

A

Staphylococcus aureus

200
Q

This parasitic organism infects the GI tract, and can be found in two forms.

A

Giardia lamblia

201
Q

The active form of Giardia lamblia is called a ___.

A

Trophozite

202
Q

The hardy form of Giardia lamblia that can exist in the environment is called a ___

A

Cyst

203
Q

What makes Giardia lamblia cysts difficult to manage?

A

They are very durable and insensitive to chlorine

204
Q

What is the source of infection for Giardia?

A

Contaminated water

205
Q

What kind of environment is Giardia lamblia commonly found in?

A

Cold areas

206
Q

How does G. lamblia infect its host?

A

It attaches to the human intestinal wall

207
Q

What are the symptoms of Giardiasis?

A

Stomach cramping and diarrhea lasting for weeks

208
Q

How is Giardiasis treated?

A

Parasitic drugs

209
Q

This organism was first identified in 1976, and is associated with contaminated water and fecal-oral contamination/

A

Cryptosporidium

210
Q

This organism caused the largest waterborn illness outbreak in US history. What is the organism? When and where was the outbreak?

A

Cryptosporidium.
1993
Milwaukee

211
Q

This organism is responsible for the most childhood morbidity and mortality from diarrhea.

A

Rotavirus

212
Q

Why are babies at risk for Rotavirus?

A

Babies that are not breastfed are lacking maternal antibodies

213
Q

What measures can be taken to help non-nursed babies prevent Rotavirus infections?

A

MLV vaccine is now available

214
Q

What is Norovirus commonly referred to as?

A

Norwalk virus

215
Q

This organism is the cause of almost all (__%) of acute diarrhea outbreaks in adults, and is associated with cruise ship outbreaks and school closures.

A

90%

Norovirus

216
Q

These viral liver infections are associated with fecal/oral route of infection.

A

Hepatitis A and E

217
Q

What is the route of infection for Hepatitis B?

A

Blood borne and STD

218
Q

What is the route of infection for Hepatitis C?

A

Blood borne and (other??)

219
Q

What else can cause hepatitis?

A

Noninfectious conditions

220
Q

What is recommended for health professionals, since exposure risk in high in healthcare?

A

Hepatitis vaccine

221
Q

What integumentary symptom/sign does hepatitis cause?

A

Jaundice of the skin