Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Hematology > Lab Exam > Flashcards

Lab Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the normal range of hematocrit?

A

30s to 50s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What disease would you primarily see blasts and mature granulocytes?

A

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What disease is promyelocytes seen in?

A

APL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does a doctor use the reticulocyte count?

A

measures effective erythropoiesis, evaluate and diagnose anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is it important for a hospital to establish its own normal range for the PT and PTT?

A

each hospital uses different reagents, instruments, and has different patient population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the test that measures Stage I of coagulation?

A

PTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do you calculate a total cell count?

A

(# of cells counted)*(correction for dilution)*(correction for volume)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two methods for measuring ESR that we used in the lab?

A

Westergren and Wintrobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What disease are burr cells found in?

A

chronic renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the normal range of hemoglobin?

A

in the teens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What disease has increased osmotic fragility?

A

hereditary spherocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Three reasons for performing a WBC differential?

A

diagnose patient conditions, monitor therapy, observe RBC morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the test that measures platelet function?

A

bleeding time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How are the counts in pernicious anemia?

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How would a doctor utilize this information?

A

doctors want patients to be 50-150% times the normal range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the normal values of eosinophils?

A

150-300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What diseases are toxic granulation seen in?

A

bacterial infections, pregnancy, leukemoid reactions, toxic states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What disease would you primarily see blasts and monos?

A

AMoL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What cells are Auer rods found in?

A

blasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the dilution ratio used for the manual count of RBC?

A

1:200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the site of puncture for the Duke method for bleeding time?

A

ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If normal plasma fails to correct an abnormal PT and PTT, what is the best explanation for the results?

A

circulating anticoagulant/antibody to a clotting factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the diluent for the manual count of WBCs?

A

acetic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the principle of the CoaDATA 2000?

A

turbidodensitometric method, change in optical density detects the clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Positive tube solubility method for sickle cell anemia testing appears?

A

cloudy/turbid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What disease has decreased osmotic fragility?

A

sickle cell anemia, thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why would you choose the PTT to screen for coagulation disorders?

A

measures intrinsic factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the factors found in absorbed plasma?

A

I, V, VIII, XI, XII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What diseases are hypersegmented neutrophils found in?

A

pernicious anemia, megaloblastic anemia, B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What disease is plasma cells seen in?

A

multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the MCV in pernicious anemia?

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the two functions of the automatic pipette of the Fibrometer?

A

dispenses reagents and turns on timer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is basophilic stippling composed of?

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If a patient has an increased PTT and BT, what is the diagnosis?

A

von Willebrand’s disease, platelet abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What disease would you find a MCH less than 32?

A

IDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What disease is smudge cells seen in?

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What diseases are Döhle bodies found in?

A

bacterial infections, pregnancy, leukemoid reactions, toxic states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How does sodium citrate work as an anticoagulant?

A

binds calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the normal range for PTT?

A

less than 35 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why would you choose the PT to screen for coagulation disorders?

A

measures extrinsic factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What diseases are Howell-Jolly bodies found in?

A

hemolytic anemia, thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are two tests that you would include to screen for coagulation disorders?

A

PT and PTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does the bone marrow appear in iron deficiency anemia?

A

no blue-green dye due to lack of iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the site of puncture for the Ivy method for bleeding time?

A

forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How could you vary the counting procedure if you had to manually count an extremely high WBC count?

A

use a red cell pipette to make a 1:100 or 1:200 dilution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the system of coagulation for the PT?

A

extrinsic system

36
Q

What is the principle of the ESR?

A

measures the suspension stability of the red blood cells

38
Q

What is the normal values for platelets?

A

150,000-450,000

40
Q

What diseases are associated with an increase in eosinophils?

A

Hodgkin’s disease, CML, parasitic infections, allergic reactions

40
Q

Why would you not perform a series of specific factor assays?

A

expensive and time consuming

41
Q

What tests did we do in labs that are used primarily in the diagnosis of fibrinolysis?

A

D-Dimer, Thrombo-Welco test

43
Q

What is the dilution ratio used for the manual count of WBC?

A

1:20

44
Q

What is the normal range of MCHC?

A

32-36

45
Q

How do you correct for dilution?

A

reciprical of the dilution, 1:50 is 50

47
Q

What diseases are myelocytes seen in?

A

CML and leukemoid reactions

48
Q

What is the INR?

A

regulates/compares PTs done at different labs

49
Q

How do the cells in the PBS appear in iron deficiency anemia?

A

hypochromic and small

50
Q

What disease would you primarily see small, mature, clumpy lymphs and smudge cells?

A

CLL

51
Q

What is the test that measures Stage II of coagulation?

A

PT

52
Q

What is the most commonly used anticoagulant used for coagulation testing?

A

sodium citrate

53
Q

What disease would you primarily see blasts and lymphs?

A

ALL

54
Q

What does INR stand for?

A

International normalized ratio

55
Q

What is a symptom of pernicious anemia?

A

tingling in the extremities (neurological symptoms)

56
Q

What are the factors found in aged serum?

A

II, VII, IX, X, XI, XII

57
Q

What diseases is basophilic stippling found in?

A

hemolytic anemia, thalassemia, sickle cell anemia

59
Q

What is the normal value for retics?

A

0.5-2%

59
Q

What is the antidote for coumadin?

A

vitamin K

60
Q

What is the dilution ratio used for the manual count of retics?

A

1:2

61
Q

What is the use of the PT and PTT substitution tests?

A

narrow down possible coagulation factors that are deficient

62
Q

Why is sickle cell anemia positive for the tube solubility method?

A

Hgb S is insoluble

62
Q

What disease would you find a MCV less than 80?

A

IDA

63
Q

What is the normal ESR value for females?

A

0-20 mm/hr

65
Q

What is the normal values for the Duke method for bleeding time?

A

1-3 minutes

66
Q

What is the normal range for the PT?

A

10-14 seconds

67
Q

What test is indicative of AMoL?

A

non-specific esterase stain +, completely inhibited by fluoride

68
Q

What is the principle of the osmotic fragility test?

A

red cells are exposed to decreasing concentrations of saline to observe the point of complete hemolysis. the % hemolysis is plotted agains the concentration of saline and observe the shape of the curve.

69
Q

How do you correct for volume?

A

1 / (#squares counted * volume of square)

71
Q

What is the reagent used for the PTT?

A

platelet substitute and CaCl2

72
Q

What is the volume of a large square in the hemocytometer?

A

0.1 mm^3

73
Q

What is the diluent for the manual count of platelets?

A

ammonium oxalate

74
Q

What is the normal values for the Ivy method for bleeding time?

A

1-7 minutes

75
Q

What is the principle of the tube solubility method for sickle cell anemia screening?

A

expose the red cells to a reducing agent

76
Q

What is the only factor that will give an increased thromboplastin time?

A

Fibrinogen, Factor I

78
Q

What are the factors found in labile factors?

A

V, VIII

79
Q

What is the normal value for RBCs?

A

in the millions

80
Q

How do precursors appear in iron deficiency anemia?

A

jagged edge

82
Q

What are some possible sources of error in coagulation testing?

A

improper ratio of anticoagulant to blood, sit at RT too long, expired reagents

84
Q

What is the test that measures fibrinolysis?

A

D-Dimer

85
Q

What is the volume of a small square in the hemocytometer?

A

0.004 mm^3

86
Q

What is the normal range of MCV?

A

80-97

87
Q

What is the dilution ratio used for the manual count of eosinophils?

A

1:32

88
Q

What are Pappenheimer bodies made of?

A

iron

89
Q

What diseases are Pappenheimer bodies seen in?

A

hemolytic anemias and splenectomy patients

90
Q

What is the normal value for WBCs?

A

5,000-10,000

91
Q

What disease would you primarily see hypersegs, oval microcytes, and dividing cells in the PBS?

A

pernicious anemia

92
Q

What is the ESR normal value for males?

A

0-15 mm/hr

94
Q

What is the dilution ratio used for the manual count of platelets?

A

1:100

95
Q

What is the reagent used for the PT?

A

thromboplastin CaCl2 mix

96
Q

What is the clinical use for PTT?

A

monitor heparin therapy

97
Q

What is the diluent for the manual count of retics?

A

new methylene blue

99
Q

What diseases are metamyelocytes seen in?

A

CML, bacterial infection, leukemoid reactions

100
Q

What is the system of coagulation for the PTT?

A

intrinsic system

101
Q

Why do you need to perform coagulation testing within two hours of specimen collection?

A

labile factor will start to decrease making the clotting time increase falsely

102
Q

What are the two functions of the probe arm of the Fibrometer?

A

holds the electrodes, mixes the reagents and senses the clot

104
Q

What is the clinical use of the PT?

A

monitor coumadin therapy

106
Q

What disease would you primarily see spherocytes?

A

AIHA

107
Q

What are the vitamin K dependent factors?

A

II, VII, IX, X

108
Q

What is the principle of the fibrometer?

A

formation of a clot completes the electrical circuit, which turns off the timer.

109
Q

What is the normal range of MCH?

A

27-32

110
Q

What disease would you primarily see all stages of granulocytes, increased bands, many cells in the bone marrow, and a decreased LAP?

A

CML

111
Q

How could you prove von Willebrand’s disease?

A

factor VIII assay or substitution test

112
Q

What is the diluent for the manual count of RBCs?

A

saline

113
Q

What is the diluent for the manual counts for eosinophils?

A

philoxine

114
Q

What is the antidote for heparin?

A

protamine sulfate

Hematology (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions