L6 Cushman Flashcards

1
Q

T or F:
lincomycin has antibiotic activity

A

true but not used bc tox

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2
Q

clindamycin MOA

A

inhibit protein synthesis by binding to 50S

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3
Q

T or F:
there is no cross-resistance b/w clindamycin and erythromycin

A

F, there is

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4
Q

Clindamycin effective against _____

A

AErobic GP Cocci
ANaerobic GN bacilli
(both most common morphologies)

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5
Q

T or F:
Clindamycin can treat MRSA

A

true

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6
Q

life threatening toxicity of clindamycin

A

pseudomembranous colitis

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7
Q

clindamycin dosage forms

A

IV, topical foams, topical solutions, capsules, suspensions

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8
Q

how is clindamycin metabolized

A

by cyp p450 enzymes in the liver

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9
Q

T or F:
Clindamycin penetrates the CSF with ease

A

true actually

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10
Q

two treatment options for pseudomembranous colitis from clindamycin

A

metronidazole or vancomycin

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11
Q

T or F:
tetracycline is broad spectrum

A

true

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12
Q

what is the relationship between metal ions and tetracyclines

A

tetracyclines form stable chelates with metal ions

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13
Q

dont give tetracyclines with what

A

milk, food w/ calcium, tums, hema-anything

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14
Q

if you HAVE to have concomitant therapy with tetracyclines and metals cant be avoided what do you do

A

metal 1 hour before OR 2 hours after to stop chelation

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15
Q

what weird thing can tetracyclines cause if given to not-fully-developed people

A

permanently brown or grey teeth since they chelate calcium during tooth formation

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16
Q

T or F:
you can give tetracyclines during pregnancy

A

true, but avoid after 4th month

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17
Q

how do old tetracyclines lose half their potency

A

epimerization

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18
Q

Epimerization is _____ in the solid state and ______ in solution at ph4

A

slow, rapid

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19
Q

where can dehydration occur in tetracyclines

A

benzylic hydroxyl group at C-6

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20
Q

dehydration of tetracyclines produces a toxic metabolite, what is it called and what can it produce?

A

4-epianhydrotetracycline, Falconi-like syndrome that can be fatal

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21
Q

which tetracyclines are completely free of a dehydration reaction and why does this happen?

A

Doxycycline, Minocycline, and tigecycline they lack a C-6 hydroxyl group

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22
Q

When do tetracyclines undergo cleavage

A

pH values over 8.5

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23
Q

Tetracyclines MOA

A

bind to 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by blocking attachment of the aminoacyl-tRNA to the A SITE of ribosome, this terminates peptide chain growth

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24
Q

T or F:
tetracycline binding sites overlap with erythromycin binding sites

A

false

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25
Q

how many different locations on the small ribosomal subunit do tetracyclines bind to

26
Q

T or F:
tetracyclines are broad spectrum

27
Q

most common use of tetracyclines

28
Q

tetracyclines also treatment of choice for infections cause by?

29
Q

Difference in structure between tetracycline and demeclocycline

A

demec has a secondary hydroxyl at C6 instead of tertiary, this makes it dehydrate slower because the cation intermediate is less stable (higher energy)

30
Q

“tetracycline of choice”

A

doxycycline

31
Q

Which tetracycline has a long half life that permits once a day dosing

A

doxycycline shit also sarecycline

32
Q

T or F:
sarecycline can cause fetal harm to a pregnant woman

33
Q

why should sarecycline not be administered with oral retinoids

A

bc both can cause increased intracranial pressure

34
Q

sarecycline dosage reduction is recommended with what drug class

A

anticoagulants

35
Q

Chloramphenicol moa

A

binds reversibly to 50S, inhibits peptidyl transferase activity and blocks peptide bond formation between P and A site

36
Q

3 resistance mechs for chloramphenicol

A

1) reduced membrane permeability
2) mutation of 50S
3) elaboration of chloramphenicol acetyltransferase, acetylates hydroxy group(s) to form metabolites that do NOT bind 50S

37
Q

chloramphenicol metabolism

A

metabolized to glucuronide in the liver

38
Q

most serious toxicity of chloramphenicol

A

aplastic anemia, fatal, more likely with oral and lowest risk with eye drops

39
Q

T or F:
chloramphenicol inhibits cyp p450

40
Q

T or F:
chloramphenicol reaches CSF

41
Q

1st gen quinolones activity against?

42
Q

what is different about 2nd gen quinolones

A

have a fluorine sub. at C6 and a heterocyclic ring at C7

43
Q

what is the most potent fluoroquinolone?

A

ciprofloxacin

44
Q

2nd gen quinolones have activity against

A

More activity against GP and still GN coverage

45
Q

3rd and 4th gen quinolones have activity against

A

more for GP than 1st and 2nd, still GN but not as much as ciprofloxacin

46
Q

what quinolone is considered the “last resort” due to its toxicities

A

moxifloxacin

47
Q

what gen is cipro

48
Q

what gen is levofloxacin

A

3rd/4th? (he doesnt actually say i think)

49
Q

used topically to treat impetigo
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Moxifloxacin
D. Ozenoxacin

50
Q

Ozenoxacin precaution

A

overgrowth with non-susceptible bacteria and fungi

51
Q

general adverse effects for all quinolones (unique ones)

A

tendonitis, tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, CNS effects

52
Q

quinolone MOA

A

inhibition of DNA religation in the topo II-DNA complex

53
Q

UTIs
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Moxifloxacin
D. Ozenoxacin

54
Q

Prostatitis
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Moxifloxacin
D. Ofloxacin

55
Q

Shigellosis
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Moxifloxacin
D. Ozenoxacin

56
Q

diabetic foot infections
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Moxifloxacin
D. Ozenoxacin

57
Q

3 resistance mechs for fluoroquinolones

A

1) decreased cellular permeability
2) efflux pumps
3) mutation of target enzymes

58
Q

T or F:
fluoroquinolones are readily absorbed orally

59
Q

T or F:
all fluoroquinolones are widely distributed

60
Q

major inactive metabolite of quinolones

A

glucuronide at 3-carboxyl position

61
Q

why are fluoroquinolones not recommended for pts under 18?

A

they can damage growing cartilage and cause arthropathy

62
Q

which random ass quinolone has been associated with hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia in diabetic patients

A

gatifloxacin