E5 Opportunistic - Kania Flashcards

1
Q

normal CD4 counts in adults

A

800-1200 cells/mm3

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2
Q

average decline of CD4 in HIV pts without antiretroviral therapy

A

50-100 cells/year

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3
Q

CD4 counts <____ and especially < ____ are associated with development of OI’s

A

500, 200

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4
Q

what 3 types of infections can occur at any CD4 count?

A

mycobacterium
pneumonias
varicella zoster (derm)

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5
Q

2 infections pts are at risk for with CD4 count <500

A
  • candidiasis (fungus from yeast)
  • leukoplakia (shit on your tongue)
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6
Q

7 ish infections pts are at risk for with CD4 count <200

A
  • PJP
  • CMV retinitis
  • toxoplasmosis
  • MAC
  • cryptococcus meningitis
  • lymphomas
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma
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7
Q

__________ and _________ can increase HIV viral load which leads to what?

A

TB, syphilis, increased risk of viral transmission and progression

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8
Q

Primary prophylaxis def in OI:

A

administration of an anti-infective agent to prevent
the first episode of a particular OI in a patient living with HIV when they are at risk for developing that OI based on their CD4 count.

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9
Q

B. Secondary Prophylaxis (chronic maintenance or chronic suppressive
therapy) definition in OI:

A

administration of anti-infective therapy to prevent further recurrences of a particular OI in a patient living with HIV after they have been successfully treated for that OI and remain at risk for developing that OI based on their CD4 cell count.

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10
Q

3 conditions where you would want to start ART (acute OI):

A
  • PML
  • Cryptosporidiosis
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma
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11
Q

why are some other OI’s at a disadvantage if you immediately start ART

A

potential development of immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)

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12
Q

what is IRIS characterized by? (3)

A
  • fever
  • inflammation
  • worsening clinical manifestations of the OI
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13
Q

IRIS is more likely to occur in pts with CD4 counts < ___ and high HIV RNA levels > __________ copies/mL

A

50, 100,000

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14
Q

when is IRIS more common regarding ART

A

first 4-8 weeks

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15
Q

T or F:
e. Most clinicians wait for a clinical response to OI therapy, usually 2 weeks, before initiating ART

A

true

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16
Q

what is the exception to starting ART prior to waiting for a clinical response to OI therapy?

A

Start ART within 2 weeks of starting TB treatment if CD4 count < 50 cells/mm3 or within 8 weeks if CD4 count is higher *

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17
Q

what is the first thing you should do considering the treatment of IRIS

A

treat the OI!!

18
Q

IRIS treatment:
mild disease: what for fever and pain? when to use inhaled corticosteroids?

A

NSAIDs, bronchospasms

19
Q

IRIS treatment:
severe disease: ?

A

prednisone 1-2 mg/kg daily for 1-2 weeks

20
Q

IRIS treatment:
severe disease: when to avoid steroids? (2)

A

cryptococcal meningitis or Kaposi’s sarcoma due to worse outcomes

21
Q

T or F:
infections with Candida species typically only occurs after 4-8 weeks of HIV infection presentation

A

false, can occur at any stage *

22
Q

T or F:
esophageal candidiasis typically occurs at higher CD4 counts

23
Q

diagnosis for oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush):

A

clinical exam, duh theres white shit all over your tongue

24
Q

preferred treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush): (1, drug + dosing regimen)

A

Fluconazole 200 mg loading dose, followed by 100-200 mg po daily for 7-14 days*

25
2 alternative agents for oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush): (topical agents for mild/mod) probably list the dose too if you can
- nystatin suspension (100,000 u/mL) -> 5 mL swish and swallow QID x 7-14 days - Clotrimazole troches (10 mg lozenge) -> 10 mg 5 times daily for 7-14 days
26
comment listed in table with nystatin suspension
Should be thoroughly rinsed in mouth and retained in mouth for as long as possible before swallowing
27
comment listed in table with clotrimazole lozenge
Should be dissolved slowly in the mouth over 15-30 minutes
28
1 unique symptom associated w/ Esophageal candidiasis
retrosternal burning pain or discomfort
29
T or F: you should only use systemic agents for Esophageal candidiasis
tru
30
preferred treatment for Esophageal candidiasis
fluconazole 200 mg (up to 400 mg) IV or PO daily for 14-21 days, damn IV for 3 weeks? no shot
31
Vulvovaginal candidiasis treatment, uncomplicated disease: (3)
- fluconazole x 1 dose - topical azoles (clotri, buto, mico, tioc, terc (3-7days) - Ibrexafungen 300 mg BID x 1 day
32
Vulvovaginal candidiasis treatment, severe disease: (2) +duration
- fluconazole 100-200 mg po daily x 7 days - topical antifungals x 7 days
33
Vulvovaginal candidiasis treatment, azole-refractory C. glabrata vaginitis (wtf): (1)
- boric acid 600 mg vaginal suppository once daily for 14 days
34
T or F: Daily prophylaxis should only be considered for patients with frequent or severe recurrences of esophagitis or vaginitis
true
35
The majority (90%) of infections due to Cryptococcus neoformans are observed among patients with ____ and CD4 counts < ____ cells/mm3.
AIDS, 100
36
T or F: Cryptococcal meningitis symptoms are present for weeks or months
true
37
Diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis
CSF analysis
38
T or F: Pts with cryptococcal meningitis have a decreased ICP
false, no shit
39
cryptococcal meningitis: if the patient is NOT on ART, the initiation of ART should be delayed until ________ (the first 2 weeks), and possibly 10-12 weeks to avoid _____
induction, IRIS
40
what are the 3 phases of cryptococcal meningitis treatment
induction -> consolidation -> maintenance
41
cryptococcal meningitis step 1, preferred induction drug(s) and duration:
amphotericin B 3-4 mg/kg IV once daily + flucytosine 25 mg/kg po QID for 2 weeks*
42