L2: CONTROLLING MICROBIAL GROWTH Flashcards

1
Q

purpose is to destroy all microorganisms and their spores on inanimate objects

A

Sterilization

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2
Q

purpose is to destroy or irreversibly inactivate microorganisms (but
not their spores) on inanimate objects

A

Disinfectant

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3
Q

chemical germicide for use on the skin or tissues and should not be
substituted for disinfectant

A

Antiseptic

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4
Q

inhibits/ suppresses growth of bacteria

A

Bacteriostatic

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5
Q

kills bacteria

A

Bactericidal

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6
Q

Kills microorganisms by denaturing/coagulating their proteins and enzymes

A

Sterilization by Heat

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7
Q

minimum time it takes to kill a population of
microbes at a specific temperature

A

Thermal Death Time (TDT)

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8
Q
  • lowest temperature that is required to kill a population of microbes when applied for a specific time.
A

Thermal Death Point (TDP)

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9
Q

Time in minutes at which 90% of bacteria is killed within a given period of time. 🡪 canning industry

A

Decimal Reduction Time (DRT)

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10
Q

Kills vegetative forms of bacteria (water-borne), most virus, and fungi within
1 minute

A

Boiling

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11
Q

Hepatitis virus can survive up to __ minutes of boiling

A

30 minutes

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12
Q

Endospores can survive up to __minutes of boiling

A

20 minutes

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13
Q

Temperatures of about 160C for 60minutes – necessary to kill most spores

A

Dry heat

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14
Q

Most effective method of sterilization (Autoclave)

A

Moist Heat

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15
Q

Moist Heat 2 methods:

A
  1. Tyndallization
  2. Autoclaving
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16
Q

AKA Fractional sterilization

A

Tyndallization

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17
Q

Tyndallization- the steaming process performed at 100°C done in steam sterilizer for 15-20 minutes followed by incubation at 37°C overnight and this cycle is repeated
for successive __ days

A

3 days

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18
Q

Tyndallization Uses____ Sterilizer

A

Arnold Sterilizer

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19
Q

Most reliable method of heat sterilization, More modern, Use to sterilize culture media and surgical supplies

A

Autoclave

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20
Q

AUTOCLAVE - __C, __min, __lbs pressure

A

121C, 15min, 15lbs pressure

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21
Q

process of food preservation in which packaged and unpacked foods (e.g.,
milk and fruit juices) are treated with mild heat, usually to less than 100 °C
(212 °F), to eliminate pathogens and extend shelf life

A

Pasteurization

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22
Q

destroys or deactivates microorganisms and enzymes that contribute to food
spoilage or the risk of disease

A

Pasteurization

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23
Q

Types of Pasteurization

A

High-temperature short-time (HTST) pasteurization
Ultra-high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization

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24
Q

for milk; (71.5 °C
(160.7 °F) for 15 seconds) which ensures safety of milk and provides a
refrigerated shelf life of approximately two weeks

A

High-temperature short-time (HTST) pasteurization

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25
Q

milk is pasteurized at 135 °C
(275 °F) for 1–2 seconds, which provides the same level of safety, but along
with the packaging, extends shelf life to three months under refrigeration

A

Ultra-high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization

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26
Q

UV rays with shorter WL are more effective in killing bacteria

A

Irradiation

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27
Q

______ with WL 240 -280 ARE used to sterilize rooms

A

Mercury vapor lamps with WL 240-280

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28
Q

Use if heat is not feasible (some carbohydrates solutions, serum, body fluids), Removes microbes by passage of liquid or gas through a screen like material with
small pores

A

Filtration

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29
Q

A typical microfiltration membrane pore size range is ___ - ___ µm, with the most
commonly used being 0.2 µm and 0.45 µm, which is sufficient to eliminate bacteria and fungi

A

0.1-10 µm

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30
Q

use in operating rooms to
eliminate bacteria; mostly filters particles that are 0.3um; capture pollen, dirt, dust, moisture, bacteria (0.2–2.0 μm), viruses (0.02–0.3 μm), and submicron liquid aerosol (0.02–0.5 μm).

A

High Efficiency Particulate Air filter (HEPA)

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31
Q

usually inhibit or stop microbial growth and proliferation but often do not
kill bacteria (BACTERIOSTATIC)

A

Low Temperature

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32
Q

three types of alcohol are ___, ___, and ___

A

ethanol, methanol, and isopropanol

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33
Q

works by denaturing and coagulating proteins, disrupting their cell wall, and
killing them; dissolves lipid membranes, highly efficient against viruses and can be used in adjunct with other
___ to obtain a powerful synergistic effect against microorganisms

A

Alcohol

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34
Q

EXAMPLE OF Oxidizing Agents

A

H2O2, K-permanganate

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35
Q

act by oxidizing the cell membrane of microorganisms, which results in a loss
of structure and leads to cell lysis and death

A

Oxidizing Agents

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36
Q

Disrupts oxidative phosphorylation, which is the most important process in cell ex. Iodide, Chlorines

A

Halogens

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37
Q

Porous surface- __:__dilution

A

1:10 dilution

38
Q

Hard Surfaces- _:___ dilution

A

1:100 dilution

39
Q

Concentrated infectious agents: __:__ dilution

A

1:5 dilution

40
Q

produce saponification of the fatty acids within cell membranes, resulting in
the loss of membrane integrity. ex KOH, NaOH

A

Alkalies

41
Q

disrupts the amphoteric matter in microbial surface structures and increases the permeability of cell membrane, subsequently metabolic processes are hindered

A

Acids

42
Q

inactivates microorganisms by alkylating the amino and sulfhydral groups of
proteins and ring nitrogen atoms of purine bases. ex. Formaldehyde

A

Gases

43
Q

ex. hexadecyltrimethylammonium (‘cetrimide’), chlorhexidine, and benzalkonium
chloride

A

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds

44
Q

bactericidal and fungicidal activity, permeate into the membrane and disrupt its physical and biochemical
properties

A

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds

45
Q

disrupt the chemical bonds that allow bacteria, viruses and grime to stick to
surfaces, lifting them off the skin

A

Soaps

46
Q

Antimicrobial soaps 🡪

A

triclosan and triclocarban

47
Q

Any chemical use to treat an infections either by inhibiting or killing
pathogens. Antibacterial, Antifungal, Antiprotozoals, Antiviral

A

Antimicrobial Agents

48
Q

subs produced by microorganism that is effective in killing or inhibiting growth of microorganisms

A

Antibiotics

49
Q

All antibiotics are ___ but not all ___ are antibiotics

A

antimicrobial

50
Q

trap bacteria with the assistance of cilia

A

Mucus

51
Q

present in respiratory secretions lyses bacterial cell wall

A

Lysozymes

52
Q

possess hydrolytic enzymes that breakdown bacteria

A

Saliva

53
Q

destroys bacteria that are acid labile

A

Gastric acid of the stomach

54
Q

Host Defense Mechanisms, ______ of the Large intestines

A

Normal flora

55
Q

Host Defense Mechanisms, ____ of the urine and constant flushing action

A

Acidic pH

56
Q

Host Defense Mechanisms, _____ lactic acid – normal flora

A

Vaginal lactic acid

57
Q

Host Defense Mechanisms, ____ -constant flushing action

A

Eye tears

58
Q

total changes occurring in tissue factors upon injury

A

Inflammation

59
Q

Human Immunoglobulins, passive immunity for newborns, mainly involved in secondary (amnestic) immune response

A

IgG

60
Q

Human Immunoglobulins, mainly involved in primary immune response

A

IgM

61
Q

Human Immunoglobulins, prevention of bacterial and viral invasions of mucous membranes

A

IgA

62
Q

Human Immunoglobulins, little is known, may serve as a B cell receptor or play a role in autoallergic diseases

A

IgD

63
Q

Human Immunoglobulins, Major role in allergic response

A

IgE

64
Q

infection Acquired in the hospital or other health care setting

A

Nosocomial Infection

65
Q

Nosocomial Infection 2 Categories:

A

Endogenous
Exogenous

66
Q

infection: result from organisms that are part of the patient’s NF

A

Endogenous

67
Q

infection: from external sources (contamination, inanimate objects)

A

Exogenous

68
Q

presence and multiplication of microorganisms within a host
with no clinical signs of infections 🡪 Reservoir

A

Colonization

69
Q

– the entrance and multiplication of a microorganism in a host

A

Infection

70
Q

condition assoc with functional and structural harm to
the host 🡪 s/s

A

Infectious Disease

71
Q

5 Common Nosocomial Infections

A

UTI
Surgical wound infections
LRTI
Bacteremia
Aspiration Pneumonia

72
Q

6 Common Pathogens causing NI

A

S. aureus
E. coli
P. aeruginosa
Coagulase negative Staph
Enterococcus
Klebsiella

73
Q

Routes of Infection, 2 types: __ and __

A

DIRECT and INDIRECT

74
Q

Direct Route, ____ :across the placenta (Syphillis) or through the vaginal canal
(Gonorrhea)

A

Congenital

75
Q

Direct Route, ____ :common colds, skin infections, GI pathogens

A

Hand to Hand contact

76
Q

Direct Route, ____ :Strep throat, common colds, URTI

A

Droplets

77
Q

4 types of Direct Route (Route of infections)

A
  1. Congenital
  2. Sexual
  3. Hand to Hand Contact
  4. Droplets
78
Q

4 types of Indirect Route (Route of infections)

A
  1. Fomites
  2. Ingestion of contaminated food and water
  3. Airborne
  4. Animal or Arthropod vectors
79
Q

JCAHO means

A

Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations

80
Q

CAP means

A

College of American Pathologists

81
Q

Publication of standards for Bloodborne Pathogens, what org

A

OSHA - Occupational Safety and Health Administration

82
Q

describe the handling of clinical
specimens where BLOOD and other body fluids should be treated as
INFECTIOUS

A

UNIVERSAL PRECAUTIONS –

83
Q

is a significant part of the Universal
Precaution

A

Personal Protective Equipment

84
Q

Biosafety level: no known pathogenic potential for immunocompetent individuals, ex: Bacillus subtilis

A

Biosafety Level 1

85
Q

Biosafety level: level 1 practices plus lab coats, protective gloves, limited acess, decontamination of all infectious waste, and biohazard warning signs. ex. HBV, HIV, Staphylococcus, etc

A

Biosafety level 2

86
Q

Biosafety level: level 2 procedures plus special lab clothing and controlled access. ex. mycobacterium tuberculosis, Brucella, Coccidioides immitis, etc

A

Biosafety Level 3

87
Q

Biosafety level: level 3 practices plus entrance through separate room where street clothing is changed and replaced with lab clothing ex. Filovirus and Arenavirus.

A

Biosafety Level 4

88
Q

an enclosed, ventilated laboratory workspace for safely working with
materials contaminated with (or potentially contaminated with) pathogens requiring a defined biosafety level.

A

Biological Safety Cabinets

89
Q

what class of bsc provides protection for the user and surrounding environment, but no
protection for the sample being manipulated

A

Class I BSC

90
Q

what class of bsc sterilize both the air entering and circulating the cabinet and exhaust air, USED BY MOST HOSPITAL MICROBIOLOGICAL
LABORATORIES,

A

Class II BSC

91
Q

Class II BSC is also known as

A

LAMINAR FLOW

92
Q

what class of bsc provides the highest level of safety, All air entering and leaving the cabinet is STERILIZED with HEPA filter, System is entirely closed and all infectious material are handled with rubber gloves that are sealed to the cabinet

A

Class III BSC