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SA Microbiology > L01: Systems Approach (Brown) > Flashcards

L01: Systems Approach (Brown) Flashcards

1
Q

Gram positive rods (9)

A 
Actinomycetes
Bacillus
Coryneform
Erysipelothrix
Listeria
Mycobacterium
Nocardia
Rhodococcus
Streptomyces
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2
Q

Gram negative aerobes

A 
Actinobacillus
Aeromonas
Bartonella
Bordetella
Brucella
Burkholderia
Capnocytophaga
Citrobacter
Enterobacter
Enterobacteriaceae
Escherichia
Francisella
Haemophilus
Klebsiella
Legionella
Moraxella
Neisseria
Pasteurella
Pseudomonas
Salmonella
Serratia
Shigella
Vibrio
Yersinia
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3
Q

Which gram negative aerobe has LPS toxin and has great ability to share plasmids back and forth, therefore contributing to resistance?

A

Enterobacteriaceae

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4
Q

Gram negative rods, curved-spiral shaped

A 
Borrelia
Campylobacter
Helicobacter
Leptonema
Leptospira
Treponema
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5
Q

Mycoplasmas and obligate intracelluars

A 
Chlamydia
Coxiella
Ehrlichia*
Mycoplasma
Rickettsia*
Ureaplasma
* = vector-borne
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6
Q

Gram positive anaerobes

A

Actinomyces
Clostridium (forms spores and toxins)
Lactobacillus

*assoc. with deep infections, often refractory to treatment

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7
Q

Gram negative anaerobes

A

Bacteroides

Fusobacterium

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8
Q

Canine adenovirus –> what disease? What kind of virus is it?

A

Infectious canine hepatitis

-DS linear DNA virus, nonenveloped

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9
Q

Name 2 DS linear DNA ENVELOPED viruses in small animal

A

Canine herpesvirus 1,2

Feline viral rhinotracheitis virus

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10
Q

What type of virus is canine (and feline) parvovirus?

A

SS linear DNA, non-enveloped

*feline panleukopenia = feline parvovirus

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11
Q

What type of virus is feline pox virus?

A

DS linear DNA enveloped virus

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12
Q

Which type of viruses contains important foreign animal disease agents?**

A

Poxviridae:
DS linear DNA, enveloped

Paramyxoviridae (SS linear)
Bunyaviriae (ie. Rift Valley fever virus, Hantavirus)

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13
Q

Adenoviridae = DS linear DNA nonenveloped

Herpesviridae = DS linear DNA enveloped

Parvoviridae = SS linear DNA nonenveloped

Poxviridae = DS linear DNA enveloped, larger in size

**

A

:)

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14
Q

What type of virus is contagious ecthyma/contagious postular dermatitis/orf virus?

A

DS linear DNA enveloped

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15
Q

Gram positive cocci (4)

A

Enterococcus
Micrococcus
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus

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16
Q

Classes of RNA viruses

A

Arenaviridae (canine lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus)
Astroviridae (feline astrovirus - gastroenteritis)
Bunyaviridae
Caliciviridae
Paramyxoviridae (canine distemper, parainfluenza)
Retroviridae (FIV, FeLV)
Coronaviridae (canine coronavirus, feline enteric coronaviruses, FIP)
Rhabdoviridae (rabies)

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17
Q

Types of transmission routes

A
  • aerosol
  • oral
  • direct contact
  • reproductive
  • fomite
  • traffic
  • vector-borne
  • zoonotic
  • environmental contamination
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18
Q

Review transmission tables slide 8-10…if you want

A

:)

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19
Q

Methods of dx of microbial infections

A
  1. Detection of pathogen (culture, molecular/PCR, Ag detection assay)
  2. Detection of immune response
  3. Detection of lesions/microbes associated with lesions
20
Q

Methods of detection of immune response For dx of microbial infections

A

1) ELISA (enzyme-linked immunoassay) –> most commonly used
2) FA (fluorescent antibody test)
3) CF (complement fixation)
4) HA (hemagglutination direct and indirect)

21
Q

Methods of detection of lesions/microbes assoc. with lesions for dx of microbial infections

A
  • histology/immunohistology
  • molecular probes
  • electron microscopy
22
Q

Which rises first: IgM or IgG

A

IgM

23
Q

Problems with classical bacterial culture

A
  • slow growing microbes
  • fastidious microbes
  • non-cultivable microbes
  • new molecular techniques faster
  • Ag capture assays
  • fungal cultures may require different media
24
Q

PCR

A

Amplification of target sequence from DNA

25
Q

Reverse transcription PCR

A

Amplification of target sequence from RNA

26
Q

Quantitative real time PCR

A

Amplification and simultaneous quantification of targeted DNA molecule

27
Q

Advantages of PCR diagnostics

A
  • fast and efficient
  • can use target gene or “generic” primers followed by sequencing
  • can IF non-cultivatable or slow-growing microbes
  • esp. Good for viruses
28
Q

Disadvantages of PCR diagnostics

A
  • no isolate = no sensitivity testing**

- easily contaminated; requires rigorous QC

29
Q

Sensitivity

A

The proportion of positives that are correctly identified as such

= TP/TP + FN

Higher sensitivity = better at avoiding false negatives

30
Q

Specificity

A

The proportion of negatives correctly identified as such

= TN/TN + FP

Higher specificity = better at avoiding false positives

Increasing sensitivity –> decreasing specificity

31
Q

Positive predictive value

A

Proportion of positives that are true positives

32
Q

Negative predictive value

A

Proportion of negatives that are true negatives

33
Q

Sampling sites without normal microflora

A 
Blood 
CSF
Joint fluid
Bladder, urine
SQ
Surgical preparation
34
Q

Sampling sites with normal microflora

A

Skin

Mucosal sites

35
Q

Method of choice for sampling anaerobes

A

Biopsy or needle aspirates

Swabs least desirable

36
Q

Info to include on biological specimen label

A
  • clear identifier of patient
  • source
  • specific collection site, date, time of collection
  • person that collected specimen
  • contact info
  • relevant clinical history
37
Q

“Efficacy” is a function of:

A

Surface, contact time, product, and dilution

38
Q

Info required on product label

A
  • use pattern
  • site and method of application
  • area and type of surfaces on which it may be applied
  • contact time
  • temp
  • pH
  • conc.
  • mixing directions
  • mode of application and dose rates for intended use
  • time a diluted and/or mixed disinfectant solution may be kept, reused and stored
39
Q

Classes of chemical disinfectants

A
  • acids
  • alcohols
  • aldehydes
  • alkalis
  • biguanides
  • halogens
  • oxidizing agents
  • phenols
  • quartenary ammonium compounds
40
Q

Most susceptible to most resistant microorganisms

A 
Mycoplasmas
Gram +
Gram -
Pseudomonads
Rickettsiae
Enveloped viruses
Chlamydia
Non-enveloped viruses
Fungal spores
Picornaviruses
Parvoviruses
Acid-fast bacteria
Bacterial spores
Coccidia
Prions
41
Q

Quarterinary ammoniums

A 
Roccal
Zepharin
DiQuat
Parvosol
D-256
Ascend
42
Q

Oxidizing agents

A 
Accel
H2O2
Peroxyacetic acid
Trifectant
Virkon S
Oxy-Sept 333
43
Q

Biguanides

A 
Chlorhexidine
Novalsan
Chlorhex
Virosan
Hibistat
44
Q

Halogens

A

Bleach*
Betadyne
Povidone

45
Q

Phenols

A 
One-stroke environ
Lysol
Osyl
Amphyl
Tektrol
Pheno-tek II
46
Q

Cleaning and disinfection protocol

A

1) remove all grossly visible debris
2) wash the area or item with water and detergent
3) thoroughly rinse the cleaned area to remove any detergent residue (some disinfectants inactivated by detergents)
4) allow area to dry completely
5) apply appropriate disinfectant
6) allow the proper contact time!
7) thoroughly rinse away any residual disinfectant and allow the area or item to dry

SA Microbiology (10 decks)

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