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Ground School > KV > Flashcards

KV Flashcards

1
Q

Where do we find tropopause information on a dispatch release? Why is it important?

A

MWL in the route section of the dispatch. Signifies potential performance impacts such as winds, fuel burn, and turbulent air.

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2
Q

What is the TO Pitch Angle Logic for both engines operating and single engine operating?

A

All engines operating:
- V2 + 10
Single engine operating:
- Engine failure below V2 + 10: Guides V2 + 10
- Engine failure between V2 and V2+10: Guides present speed
- Engine failure above V2 + 10: guides V2 + 10

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3
Q

What action does the SOPM require when passing through 14,500’ on an emergency descent?

A

Turn the Passenger Oxygen from AUTO to OVRD

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4
Q

How must the MFD be configured for an emergency descent?

A

Terrain selected

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5
Q

List four of the seven conditions that require the pilot to manually abort the start.

A

No positive oil pressure indication within 10 seconds after N2 speed starts to increase
• During engine start with a tailwind, when a positive increase of N1 is not indicated before starter cutout (50%N2). In this case, the airplane is repositioned
prior to engine start to minimize tailwind effects.
• No ITT indication within 30 seconds of engine start
• ITT exceeds start limit (815°C - Hot)
• When oil pressure stabilizes below the engine limits
• N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed (hung start)
• An intermittent electrical pneumatic or starter malfunction occurs before the starter disengagement

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6
Q

What does BATT 1-2 Off mean vs BATT 1(2) off?

A

with a dash, means “and”. Both batteries are off. With parenthesis, means “or” meaning only one of them is off

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7
Q

How would you alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies with a PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY?

A

Continuous turns helps to alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies. Prepare to overcome unwanted pitch change:
Pitch Trim System 1 Cutout Button.. PUSH OUT
Pitch Trim Switch……………………….. ACTUATE

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8
Q

When must maintenance be called regarding the brake pins?

A

If the brake wear indicator pin is flush with the housing.

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9
Q

When wouldn’t you want to taxi single engine?

A

Ramp/Taxiway surface contamination
• Maneuvering room in the ramp/gate area is marginal
• Taxi time to/from a runway is expected to be < 5 minutes
• Airport-specific regulations prohibit single-engine taxi
• Risk of injury to personnel or damage to equipment Additionally, when making the decision to conduct a single engine taxi, consider airplane weight, uphill
slopes, time to warm up the engine, and time to the active runway.

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10
Q

When are reduced thrust takeoffs prohibited?

A
  • Takeoff on contaminated runways
  • Reported or forecast windshear
  • When a special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff
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11
Q

If the flex N1 value on the EICAS is less than the calculated release value, what would you do?

A

Lower the flex temperature

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12
Q

Give at least two reasons why a pilot must amend or obtain a new release?

A
  • A flight cannot depart in accordance with the release.
  • The PIC or dispatcher requests a change (changes are required for 121.687 items).
  • Aircraft change.
  • A flight returns to the airport from which it departed.
  • Crewmember change (SkyWest only).
  • A deferral affecting performance.
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13
Q

If we lose electrical power, how long will the controls have power for? And how?

A

The fly-by-wire has backup batteries. The batteries provide 15 mins of power.

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14
Q

A minor reduction of release fuel will avoid an overweight condition and allow all passengers and cargo to be loaded. What does FOM ch. 5 allow regarding “fuel
decrease”?

A

Fuel can be decreased by 200 lb or 50% of contingency (whichever is less) without notifying dispatch

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15
Q

When would you consider a runway wet for performance reasons?

A

More than 25% of a runway is covered by more than 1/8in of contamination.

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16
Q

Performance data is valid for what range of temperatures/QNH on the release?

A
  • POAT +0 to -10C. OAT can’t be higher.

- The actual QNH can be now lower than 0.10” below PQNH.

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17
Q

Approach speed Vap

A

Approach speed in the landing configuration.

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18
Q

Approach climb speed Vac

A

The speed to be used in case of a single engine go around with go around flaps and gear retracted

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19
Q

Vfs

A

Final segment speed - the speed to be achieved during the final takeoff segment with gear up and flaps retracted

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20
Q

Vref

A

Landing reference speed - A reference for Vap calculation. It is the minimum recommended speed at 50 feet over the threshold. It is the speed used in landing distance calculations.

21
Q

V2

A

Takeoff safety speed - the speed to be attained at a height of 35 feet agl when rotation is initiated at Vr, following a failure of the critical engine at Vef.

22
Q

When is an alternate needed?

A
  • Airport is in Alaska and does not have more than one separate suitable runway authorized for the type of aircraft to be used.
  • Destination airport has no instrument approach available (refer to Weather Requirements for Release Instrument Flight Rules above).
  • Freezing precipitation in forecast
  • RCC values of less than 3.
  • 123 rule
23
Q

When can’t the 17347 alternate exemption be used?

A
  • Destinations or alternate cities outside the 48 contiguous United States
  • High minimum captains.
  • The ceiling requirement of a circle-to-land maneuver.
  • Departure alternate
  • driftdown alternate
24
Q

What elements can be missing in a weather report?

A

Sky condition:

(1) A flight may depart under IFR with a missing sky condition unless required by the standard instrument departure (SID) / departure procedure (DP).
(2) A flight may be dispatched to and land at an airport with a missing sky condition report unless required by the instrument approach procedure.
(3) A visual approach is allowed with a missing sky condition report

Temperature:
(1) can be missing in the US only if the dispatcher obtains from the NWS an airport temperature using the RTMA ( real time mesoscale analysis) system.

Altimeter:
(1) altimeter can be missing provided the instrument approach provided an alternate altimeter source

25
Q

Mandatory fuel requirements?

A

1) No person may dispatch or take off an airplane unless it has enough fuel:
a) To fly to the airport to which it is dispatched;
b) Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (where required) for the airport to which dispatched; and
c) Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

26
Q

Runway Status Lights (RSL)

A

An integrated lighting system providing visual cues to flight crews and vehicle operators on or approaching the runway as to whether it’s unsafe to enter, cross, or takeoff from a runway.

27
Q

Takeoff Hold Lights (THL)

A

The THL system is composed of in-pavement, unidirectional fixtures in a double
longitudinal row aligned either side of the runway centerline lighting. Fixtures are focused toward the arrival end of the runway at the “line up and wait” point, and extend for 1,500 ft in front of the holding aircraft. Illuminated red lights provide a signal to an aircraft in position for takeoff or rolling, that it is unsafe to takeoff because the runway is occupied or about to be occupied by another aircraft or ground vehicle.

28
Q

Regulations regarding circle to land operations?

A

1) Circle-to-land maneuvers are not authorized below a ceiling of 1,000 feet and 3 miles visibility. Circle-to-land maneuvers are authorized when:
a) The reported ceiling is at least 1,000 feet and the visibility is at least 3 statute miles; or
b) The reported weather is at least equal to the charted circling landing minimums for the approach to be used, whichever is higher.

29
Q

Minimum Runway Length for Landing?

A

1) The required minimum runway length for landing for all aircraft types is 5,400 ft.

2) The minimum runway length for landing may be reduced to the following lengths at SAAT Level 3 or lower airports, when that airport’s field elevation is less than 4,000 ft:
ERJ 175: 5,000 ft

3) Runways that do not meet these guidelines require additional assessment and approval from Aircraft Operations.

30
Q

No connectivity for EFB to activate the flight:

A

1) Contact the dispatcher to:
a) Activate for each flight.
b) Obtain a paper dispatch or flight release.
c) Accept aircraft airworthiness:

(1) Verify aircraft status is In Service.
(2) Review the DMIs for compliance.
(3) Ensure all MELs and CDLs are accurately documented on the dispatch flight release.
(4) Obtain a paper copy of the last 14 flight days of maintenance log and current DMI list.

31
Q

Takeoffs and landings are PROHIBITED when:

A

a) NIL BA is reported.
b) RwyCC reports of 1 or 2 are reported with a crosswind component greater than 10 kt.
c) BA reports of POOR are being reported with a crosswind component greater than 10 kt.
d) Wet Ice, Water over Compacted Snow, or Dry Snow/Wet Snow over Ice are reported with RwyCC values less than 1 or BA NIL.

32
Q

Classification of fires:

A

1) Class A Fires - These are fires that occur in ordinary combustible materials, such as wood, cloth, paper, rubbish, etc. where the cooling effects of water, or of solutions containing large percentages of water, are most important. Fires of this type usually leave large quantities of glowing embers that must be cooled below their ignition point, in order to prevent “flash-backs” or restarting.
2) Class B Fires - These are fires that occur in flammable liquids, such as gas, paint, oil, grease, etc., where a blanketing or smothering action is desired to cut off the oxygen supply to the blaze. Using water on a fire of this type generally causes it to spread, thus creating an additional hazard.
3) Class C Fires - These are fires that involve electrical equipment, wiring, etc., where it is necessary to use a “non-conducting” extinguishing agent in order to prevent short-circuiting or electrocution of the person attempting to extinguish the fire. Never use water on this type of fire.

33
Q

High Minimums Captain

A

a) At an alternate, when conducting the approach, do not add 100 feet and one-half mile to the minimums. The minimums for that approach are 300 feet and one mile visibility, or published, whichever is higher.
b) Category II minimums are not authorized
c) The 100 hours of PIC experience required above may be reduced (not to exceed 50 percent) by substituting one landing in operations under in the type of airplane for one required hour of PIC experience when the pilot has at least 100 hours as PIC of another type airplane in operations 121

34
Q

Emergency Fuel means:

A

Emergency fuel provides 30 minutes of fuel endurance based upon 1,500 ft AFE / Green dot / clean

35
Q

Minimum Fuel means:

A

Minimum fuel provides 45 minutes of fuel endurance based upon 1,500 ft AFE / Green Dot / clean

36
Q

Under what conditions must a cold weather pre-flight inspection be performed?

A
  • The OAT is 5 degrees C or less
  • The wing fuel temperature is 0 degrees C or less
  • Atmospheric conditions conducive to icing exists
  • The aircraft has remained overnight and may have frozen contaminants due to exposure to frost or precip
  • On any flight where residual ice from the inbound flight may have accumulated on airframe surfaces or components
  • Cold soak ice is suspected in the fuel tank area
37
Q

“Cabin Altitude Hi” means what?

A

Cabin altitude has reached 9,700 or higher or if the cabin altitude is higher than +500 feet above LFE for LFE higher than 9,400

38
Q

How many weight on wheel sensors are there?

A

6 in total, 2 for each gear

39
Q

What happens if two WOW’s fail on the same gear?

A

On the ground the landing gear lever will not move up as well as you’ll get a landing gear no dispatch caution message.

Inflight, the landing gear lever will be stuck down, and the landing gear WOW system fail caution message

40
Q

SIC responsibilities for an emergency evacuation?

A
  • Complete appropriate checklists
  • Uses interphone to notify FA’s to be prepared for possible emergency evacuation
  • Perform duties as commanded by PIC
  • Exit immediately and assist in the evacuation from outside the aircraft.
  • Remove flight deck fire extinguisher and crash axe
  • Remove all passengers beyond fire equipment and out of range from fire/explosion.
  • Direct all passengers at least 500’ upwind
  • Assist PIC and FA’s as necessary
41
Q

Lower than standard takeoff minimums: 1/4 SM prevailing visibility vis. or RVV

A 
Runway requirements:
Either HIRL or 
CL or 
RCLM or 
adequate visual reference
42
Q

Lower than standard takeoff minimums: At or above 1600 RVR TDZ

A

Runway requirements:
Either HIRL or CL or RCLM
1 operative RVR required (TDZ or MID)

Substitutions:
TDZ is controlling
MID report may be substituted for TDZ if TDZ is unavailable.

43
Q

Lower than standard takeoff minimums:
1200 RVR TDZ
1200 RVR MID
1000 RVR RO

A

Runway requirements:
Daylight: RCLM or HIRL or CL
Nighttime: HIRL or CL
2 operative RVRs required

Substitutions:

  • All available RVR are controlling and 2 required
  • Any one report may be missing on a 3 or 4 RVR system
44
Q

Lower than standard takeoff minimums:
1000 RVR TDZ
1000 RVR MID (If available)
1000 RVR RO

A

Runway requirements:
CL or HIRL and RCLM
2 operative RVRs required

Substitutions:

  • All available RVR are controlling
  • Any one report may be missing on a 3 or 4 RVR system
45
Q

Lower than standard takeoff minimums:
600 RVR TDZ
600 RVR MID (If available)
600 RVR RO

A

Runway requirements:
HIRL and CL
2 operative RVRs required

Substitutions:

  • All available RVR are controlling
  • -Any one report may be missing on a 3 or 4 RVR system
46
Q

What is the lowest RVR approved for Cat 1 approaches?

A

1800 RVR. Can have inoperative TDZ and/or CL lights provided:

  • The approach has an 1800 RVR
  • Flight director engaged until DA, missed approach initaiated, or runway insight
47
Q

What is the standard CAT ll landing RVR minimums?

A

TDZ - 1200
MID - 600
RO - 300

  • If only TDZ RVR is available, then TDZ RVR must be 1400
48
Q

What substitutions can be made for CAT ll approaches RVR

A

Must have at least TDZ 1200 and Rollout of 300.
If no Rollout exists you can substitute it with MID or Far End reports.
-MID 600 minimum
-Far End 300 minimum

Ground School (9 decks)

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