KRE 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of a known suspect?

A

There is sufficient information about the suspect to make an arrest. It does not mean they necessarily have previous convictions or the victim/witness knows them. The witness will be asked to complete a formal identification process Eg video ID
An example could be a domestic involving a husband who has since fled the scene - he would be known (not necessarily to the police)

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2
Q

What is the definition of an unknown suspect?

A

There is insufficient information to make an arrest and an informal identification must be completed (eg street ID)
An example of this would be a robbery whereby the suspect has fled the scene

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3
Q

List some formal identification processes

A

Video ID - images of suspects who look similar
ID parade - Line up of suspects among others who look similar
Group ID - suspect is mixed into a crowd in a busy location
Confrontation - one to one confrontation with witness and suspect

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4
Q

What rank of officer is able to authorise a formal identification process?

A

Inspector

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5
Q

List some informal identification processes

A

Street ID/Drive-by - suspect is in a crowd with a police officer and victim/witness ID’s them from a police vehicle
Street ID/Drive-around - suspect is in a crowd without any police and victim/witness ID’s them ideally from am unmarked police vehicle
WADS (witness album display system) - album of photographs of nominals relative to the crime committed. Must be authorised by sergeant
E-fit - composite created by specialist that is circulated via the media

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6
Q

List the 9 policing principles

A

Honesty, integrity, accountability, fairness, leadership, objectivity, openness, respect, selflessness

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7
Q

List the 10 standards of professional behaviour

A

Honesty and integrity, authority respect and courtesy, equality and diversity, use of force, orders and instructions, duties and responsibilities, confidentiality, fitness for work, conduct, challenging and reporting improper behaviour

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8
Q

Who is a victim?

A

Someone who has been subjected to physical, emotional or mental harm that was directly caused by criminal behaviour OR someone who is a close relative of someone that has been harmed.

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9
Q

When identifying if a victim/witness is vulnerable or intimidated, what must a PC consider?

A
Vulnerable:
Are they U18
Do they have a mental disorder/disability 
Are they in shock 
Are they a repeat victim
Intimidated:
The nature of the offence
The victims personal circumstances 
The behaviour towards the victim 
Views of the victim
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10
Q

When being assigned a victim, how long does a PC have to make contact?

A

24 hours

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11
Q

What are the 9 protected characteristics?

A
Marriage/civil patnership
Age
Sex
Disability 
Religion/belief 
Gender reassignment 
Sexual Orientation 
Colour
Pregnancy/maternity
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12
Q

Describe the term hate crime

A

Any offence or incident which is perceived, by the victim or any other person, to be motivated by hostility or prejudice based on race, religion, sexual orientation, disability or transgender (or perceived association with any of the above)

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13
Q

Describe S146 Criminal Justice Act 2003

A

Increases sentences for offences that are partly or wholly motivated due to disability, sexual orientation or being transgender

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14
Q

Describe S28 Crime and Disorder Act 1998

A

Increases sentences for offences that are partly or wholly motivated due to race or religion

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15
Q

What offences and what characteristics mean that a sentence can be increased if the offence is aggravated because of a characteristic (mnemonic)

A
CORN on CHAP
Colour
Origin
Race
Nationality
on 
Criminal Damage 
Harassment 
Assault (GBH, Common, ABH)
Public Order (S4/4a/5)
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16
Q

Describe S135 Mental Health Act 1983

A

Allows a constable, in the presence of an approved mental health worker, to force entry into a premise for the purpose of a removing said person to a place of safety if they are considered to be ill-treated, neglected or unable to take care of themselves and they live alone. It also allows a warrant for the purpose of returning someone to a mental health facility

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17
Q

Describe S136 Mental Health Act 1983

A

Allows a constable, who has reasonable grounds to believe a person is suffering from a mental health disorder, to be removed from any place where the public has access, and taken to a place of safety for the protection of themselves and/or the public

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18
Q

Describe S138 Mental Health Act 1983

A

A person who has escaped from legal custody can be re-taken by a constable or approved mental health worker

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19
Q

Describe S4 of the Mental Capacity Act 2005

A

Identifying the persons best interest (capacity). Must be a persons 16 years or over.
I.D A C.U.R.E (mnemonic)

Do they have an:
Impairment (temp or permanent)?
Disturbance of the mind?

And cannot (you only have to satisfy one of the below::

Communicate
Understand
Retain
Employ (based on the information can they make a decision?)

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20
Q

Who is considered a child?

A

Anyone U18 and unborn children

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21
Q

Describe S46 of the Childrens Act 1989

A

If a constable has reasonable cause to believe a child between 0 and 18 may likely experience significant harm, they can remove said child to a place of safety or take reasonable stops to prevent a child from being removed from a hospital

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22
Q

How long can a child be kept in police protection?

A

72 hours

23
Q

What rank of officer can become a designated officer when dealing with a child that have been taken into police protection?

A

Inspector

24
Q

Describe Anti-social behaviour

A

Behaviour that causes or is likely to cause another person harassment, alarm or distress that does not live in the same household as them

25
Q

What are 8 different disposal options for ASB?

A
Verbal/written warnings
Restorative Justice 
Community resolutions 
PND
Injunctions
Criminal Behaviour Orders
Parenting contracts 
Mediation 
Acceptable Behaviour Contracts
26
Q

Describe S50 Police Reform Act 2002

A

An police constable in uniform or PCSO can request the name and address of a person who is displaying anti-social behaviour. Failure to provide these details is a criminal offence

27
Q

Describe S59 Police Reform Act 2002

A

If someone is driving a vehicle in a manner that causes harassment, alarm or distress whether on road or off road (eg car park), a police constable in uniform may stop the vehicle, seize the vehicle, enter any premises where the vehicle is believed to be and use reasonable force in execution of the above

28
Q

Describe Domestic Abuse

A

Any incident of controlling, coercive or threatening behaviour, violence or abuse between those aged 16 years or over that is or was in an intimate relationship or family members regardless of gender or sexuality.

29
Q

Describe S76 Serious Crime Act 2015

A

It is an offence for a person to engage someone they personally know in controlling and coercive behaviour, the behaviour seriously effects the victim and the suspect know or ought to know that that would be the outcome

30
Q

Describe S2 Protection from Harassment Act 1997

A

A person who pursues a course of conduct in breach of S1/S1A will be guilty of the offence

31
Q

Describe S2A Protection from Harassment Act 1997

A

Stalking

32
Q

Describe S1 and S1A Protection from Harassment Act 1997

A

S1 is the prohibition of harassment against 1 person and S1A is the prohibition of harassment against 2 people

33
Q

Describe S3 Protection from Harassment Act 1997

A

Breach of injunction

34
Q

Describe S2A Protection from Harassment Act 1997

A

Allows a police constable to apply for a warrant for access into a premises if there is reasonable ground to believe a S2 offence has been or is taking place or there is reasonable ground to believe there is evidence within that premises in relation to the offence

35
Q

Describe S4 Protection from Harassment Act 1997

A

A person whose course of conduct causes another to fear, on at least two occasions, that violence will be used against him is guilty of an offence if he knows or ought to know that his course of conduct will cause the other so to fear on each of those occasions.

36
Q

Describe S4A Protection from Harassment Act 1997

A

A persons whose conduct amounts to stalking and also causes another on at least 2 occasions to fear violence or serious alarm or distress

37
Q

Describe S5 (5)

A

Breach of restraining order

38
Q

What sections of the Protection from Harassment Act 1997 may be racially or religiously aggravated?

A

S2, S2A, S4 and S4A

39
Q

Describe a high, medium and low risk missing person

A

High - the risk is considered immediate and there are substantial grounds to believe that the subject or public are in danger because of their mental state or vulnerabilities
Medium - the risk posed is likely to put the subject in danger or they are a threat to themselves or the public. This is the minimum level of risk for a person under 18
Low - No apparent threat of danger to themselves or public

40
Q

Describe S1 Theft Act 1968

A

When a person dishonestly appropriates property, belonging to another, with the intention of permanently depriving them of it

41
Q

What is not considered property in relation to the Theft Act 1968

A

Wild flora unless sold
Land
Wild animals unless captive
Electricity

42
Q

What are the defenses in relation to the Theft Act 1968?

A

They had an honest held belief that they had a legal right to take the property, the property did not have an owner or they thought they had permission from the owner

43
Q

Describe S9 (1) (A) Theft Act 1968

A

If a person enters any building or part of a building as a trespasser and steals, inflicts GBH or criminal damage or attempts to, they will be guilty of burglary
(Eg enters a building with the sole purpose of stealing items)

44
Q

Describe S9 (1) (B) Theft Act 1968

A

If a person, having entered any building or part of a building as a trespasser, steals or inflicts GBH or attempts to, they are guilty of burglary.
(Eg is at a house party with permission but enters a room which is outside of the invite and steals something)

45
Q

Describe S10 Theft Act 1968

A
Aggravated burglary (think W.I.F.E)
Weapon
Imitation firearm
Firearm
Explosives
46
Q

Describe S39 Criminal Justice Act 1988

A

Common assault - little or not injury

47
Q

Describe S47 Offence Against the Persons Act 1861

A

Actual Bodily Harm - hurt or injury that includes psychological damage (more extreme than fear/shock/panic that will pass)

48
Q

Describe S20 Offence Against the Persons Act 1861

A

Maliciously or unlawfully wounds or inflicts GBH on another with or without a weapon or instrument.
Injuries include permanent disability, serious disfigurement, loss of function, broken bones etc

49
Q

Describe S18 Offence Against the Person Act 1861

A

Intentionally commits GBH or resist or prevents lawful apprehension or detention

50
Q

Describe S89 Police Act 1996

A

Assault, resist or willfully obstruct police during lawful execution of their duty or someone assisting them

51
Q

Describe S5 Public Order Act 1986

A

Actions that cause or are likely to cause harassment, alarm or distress to a person of reasonable firmness . Can be said, written or displayed. There does not have to be intent and it can be racially or religiously aggravated

52
Q

Describe S4a Public Order Act 1986

A

Intentional harassment, alarm or distress aimed at a particular person or group of people. Can be racially or religiously aggravated and can be an either way offence which warrants a S17 if necessary (victim must be outside, cannot occur when both parties are inside a dwelling)

53
Q

Describe S4 Public Order Act 1986

A

Fear or provocation of violence - the suspect intends for the victim to fear IMMEDIATE violence (eg ‘i’m gunna f*** you up NOW’)
Can be racially or religiously aggravated

54
Q

Describe S3 Public Order Act 1986

A

Affray - used or threatened unlawful violence toward another. There does not have to be a witness but it needs to be determined if a person of reasonable firmness would fear violence.
Can arrest if both parties are in a dwelling