Kidneys/UA Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four ways to collect specimens for urinalysis

A

Voided, bladder expression, catheterization, Cystocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is a voided sample the best to check for Hematuria

A

Because you know that the blood is not your fault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the advantage of cystocentesis

A

Avoids any risk of urine contamination by blood or bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Would your shipping Urine to the lab which tube do you use

A

Red top tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do you do if you’re not going to examine the urine right away

A

Refrigerate it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the normal output of urine

A

20 to 40 mL per kilogram per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Pollakiurua

A

Small amounts of urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is polyuria

A

Frequent urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some common causes of abnormal turbidity

A

Increased cells, numerous crystals, bacteria, lipiduria, mucus, semen, fecal contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are three ways to determine urine specific gravity

A

Refractometer, urinometer, reagent test strip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the five functions of the kidney

A
  1. Water balance 2. Filter out waste 3. Acid-base balance 4. Erythropoietin 5. It involved a blood pressure maintenance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Concentrated urine

A

Functional kidneys: USG> 1.035 (dog) Or >1.040 (cat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is hyposthenuric

A

Dilute urine: USG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is moderately concentrated urine

A

USG 1.013-1.029 (dog) or 1.034 (cat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Isothenuria

A

1.007-1.012. When the urine is the same osmolarity as possible. Neither concentrated or diluted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the three rules for reagent strips

A

Store reagent strips and original container at room temperature. Avoid exposing reagent strips moisture, sunlight, heat. Do not touch test areas of reagent strip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the factors that may decrease the pH of urine

A

Fever, starvation, high-protein diet, excessive muscular activity, administration of certain drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is increased pH due too

A

Alkalosis, high Fiber diets, urinary tract infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where do protein of the urine come from

A

Cystitis, high ph (false positive), fever, concentrated urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does glucosuria and normoglycemia mean

A

Suggests tubular damage:
Lepto
Antifreeze
Fanconi syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why are ketones formed

A

Starvation, peak lactation in dairy cattle, diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do ketones in the body cause

A

Central nervous system depression and acidosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What about bilirubin in cats on urine dipstick

A

Should always be negative. Bilirubinemia in cats is pathologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When do we see Bilirubinuria

A

Increased destruction of red blood cells (hemolytic anemia), liver disease, obstruction of bile flow from the liver, clinical jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How do you change The microscope to see urine
Lower the condenser and closedown the substage iris diaphragm
26
For the urinalysis what would you see in low magnification
Casts, large crystals, debris, parasitic ova
27
What would you see under high magnification in a urinalysis
Leukocytes, erythrocytes, epithelial cells, far droplets, small crystals, sperm
28
How big are red blood cells in the microscope
7um
29
What happens to red blood cells when you have a high specific gravity
The red blood cells become crenated
30
What happens to red blood cells in urine with low specific gravity
The cells may be lysed and not visible
31
Describe fat droplets
Found in normal dog and cat sediments. Focus up and down and you could visualize their perfectly round appearance
32
What do increased numbers of transitional epithelial cells indicate
Urinary tract infections
33
Where are casts formed
In the lumen of the distal and collecting tubules
34
Describe Casts
Cylindrical structures with Parallel sides present an acid urine
35
Normal casts
Hyaline casts
36
What are the abnormal casts
``` Granular casts Epithelial casts Leukocyte casts Erythrocytes casts Waxy casts Fatty casts ```
37
When do you see epithelial cell casts
Acute nephritis | Degradation of renal epithelium
38
When do you see a leukocyte cast
Pyelonephritis
39
When do you see a waxy cast
Severe degeneration of renal tubules
40
When do you see a fatty cast
In cats with renal disease
41
When do you see a struvites
In basic urine
42
When do you see amorphous crystals
In acidic urine
43
When do you see calcium carbonate crystals
In horses, | Or rabbits and goats
44
When do you see ammonium biurate crystals
In liver disease
45
When do you see calcium oxalate dihydrate crystals
In acidic urine
46
When do you see calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals
AntifreeZe poisoning
47
When do you see uric acid crystals
Associated with dalmatians
48
When do you see leucine or tyrosine crystals
Liver disease
49
When do you see Cystine crystals
Renal tubular dysfunction
50
What happens if there's too much alcohol at the venipuncture site
Lyse the red blood cells
51
What happens if you put too much pressure with the syringe
Collapse the vein
52
What hormone is released with excitement
Epinephrine
53
What hormone is released with stress
Cortisol
54
What Effect does epinephrine have on red blood cells
Increase red blood cells due to splenic contractions
55
What does cortisol do to white blood cell
Double the neutrophils or in cats sometimes it's lymphocytes
56
Describe what epinephrine does to the body
Increases white blood cells, red blood cells, physiologic neutrophils, polycythemia
57
What affect does cortisol have on the body
Increased neutrophils, decrease eosinophils, increased lymphocytes
58
What does the coagulant EDTA do
Binds calcium
59
What is plasma made up of
90% water, 10% dissolved constituents: proteins, electrolytes etc
60
What is serum made up of
It is plasma minus fibrinogen and clotting proteins
61
How does heparin work
It has antithrombin
62
What can heparin cause
Clumping of wbc
63
What happens if you underfill the EDTA container
It can dilute blood
64
What do grey top tubes do
Preserve glucose levels
65
What are sodium citrate tubes used for
It is reversible anticoagulant and these tubes are used for coagulation assays. Works by binding calcium
66
What happens to blood when it's in the refrigerator
The more Clumped platelets appear
67
How much sample volume do you need
Enough to run a biochem three times
68
What does a complete blood cell count do
Red blood cell, PCV, total protein, blood differential, reticulocyte, hemoglobin concentration, red blood cell indices
69
Hematocrit tubes should be within what percentage of each other
2%
70
What happens the pact cell volume when the animal is dehydrated
Decreased plasma increase total protein
71
What percent of plasma is protein
Five and 10%
72
What does albumin do
Retains blood pressure
73
What is a normal plasma protein for adult mammals
6-8 gm/dl
74
What is the normal plasma protein for pediatric
4-6gm/dl due to decreased antibodies
75
What is a decreased total protein do to
Protein losing enteropathy, chronic blood loss, liver disease, starvation
76
What is elevated total protein do to
Dehydration
77
When you're dehydrated what happens
Increase in globulin
78
What percentage of total protein is albumin
35 to 50%. Losses occur in kidney disease
79
How will the ratio change with chronic inflammation and the cat or dog
Increased globulin and decreased ratio
80
How do you estimate white blood cell count
10 times objective equals average number for field times 100