Crosswords Flashcards

1
Q

Coffin lid shaped urinary crystal

A

Struvite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Urine is the same osmolarity as plasma

A

Isothenuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Term for blood in urine

A

Hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Dumbbell shaped crystal seen in rabbits and goats

A

Calcium carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Waste metabolite produced from red blood cell destruction

A

Bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Frequent small amounts of urine

A

Pollakiuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

These cells are 7 µm in diameter

A

Erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The direct measurement of specific gravity of urine

A

Urinometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

These epithelial cells are large, flat, irregularly shaped cells with abundant of cytoplasm and a small round nucleus

A

Squamous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Urine specific gravity less than 1.008

A

Hyposthenuric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

To lower the light on the microscope when looking at urine, what do you lower

A

Condensor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The presence of neutrophils in urine

A

Pyuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Under high-power these cells appear as round granular spheres about 14 µm in diameter and have a nucleus

A

Leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Uses light refraction to measure urine specific gravity

A

Refractometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Presence of Bilirubin in the urine

A

Bilirubinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dipstick test is 4+ in diabetes mellitus

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The protein detected on the urine dipstick test

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Epithelial cells originating from the bladder

A

Transitional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Frequent large volumes of urine

A

Polyuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The term for inflammation of the bladder

A

Cystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cylindrical structures with Parallel sides present in acid urine

A

Casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Phos

A

Phosphorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lipa

A

Lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tp

A

Total protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bun

A

Urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ca

A

Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Na

A

Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Alkaline phosphatase

A

Alkp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Crea

A

Creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Glob

A

Globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Chol

A

Cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

K

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tbil

A

Total bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Amyl

A

Amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Alananine transferase

A

Alt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Alb

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which color tube has the anticoagulant heparin

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which color tube has fluoride in it and thus is able to preserve glucose

A

Grey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which color tube has a reversible anticoagulant citrate

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which color tube contains EDTA

A

Purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which color tube contains no anticoagulant and is just in a sterile glass container

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which color tube contains no anticoagulant and a serum separator gel

A

Yellow and tiger top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which color tube is used to do a CBC

A

Purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which tube is used to obtain plasma for the vet test

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which tube is used to perform coagulation assays

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which color tube has an anticoagulant that is antithrombin

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Excitement releases which hormone

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Explain how excitement can cause polycythemia

A

Because it triggers splenic contractions that release red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Plasma is made up of 80% of what

A

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Name two major proteins in plasma

A

Albumin and globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Name three electrolytes in plasma

A

Sodium, chloride, potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is pus in the urine called

A

Pyuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is cloudiness of a solution called

A

Turbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is excess Bilirubin present in the urine called

A

Bilirubinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The range of which the urine specific gravity equals that of the glomerular filtrate meaning no dilution or concentration has occurred

A

Isosthenuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Decreased amounts of urine that is being produced and excreted

A

Oliguria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The weight of a solution as compared to distilled water

A

Specific gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Increased specific gravity of urine

A

Hypersthenuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

No urine formation or excretion

A

Anuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Presence of the muscle protein myoglobin in the urine

A

Myoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Accumulation of large quantities of Ketone bodies

A

Ketosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

After the centrifugation process, the solution is divided into two portions. The blank is the liquid portion of the top and the sediment is at the bottom

A

Supernatant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Substances that act as electron contributors

A

Reducing agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Presence of ketones in the Urine

A

Ketonuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The filtrate of plasma that passes through the glomerulus

A

️Glomerular filtrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

After the centrifugation process the top the blank is at the bottom and consists of solids

A

Sediment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Enzyme linked amino observant assay used to detect or measure antigens are antibodies

A

Elisa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Presence of abnormal levels of protein in the urine

A

Proteinurua

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Presence of hemoglobin in the urine

A

Hemoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The degree to which a substance is easily dissolved

A

Soluability

71
Q

Inflammation of the urinary bladder

A

Cystitis

72
Q

An instrument for measuring the concentration of solutes

A

Refractometer

73
Q

Decreased urine specific gravity

A

Hyposthenuric

74
Q

Evaporates rapidly

A

Velocity

75
Q

Presence of intact red blood cells in the urine

A

Hematuria

76
Q

What is polycythemia

A

Increase of erythrocytes

77
Q

A monolayer of cells in the blood smear is best described as

A

Cells with no overlapping or touching

78
Q

Decreased total protein can suggest all of the following except for

A

Dehydration

79
Q

Which erythrocyte Index gives an indication of the average size of a red blood cell

A

MCV

80
Q

An elevated hematocrit usually indicates which situation is present

A

Dehydration

81
Q

You know that a good ballpark estimate of the patient’s hemoglobin is

A

One third the packed cell volume

82
Q

What is the first step of the diff quick

A

Fixative. The jar contains methanol

83
Q

What is the second step of the diff quick

A

Eosin stain which is red

84
Q

What is the third step of the diff quick

A

Methylene blue. The stain is blue

85
Q

Is fibrinogen present in serum ?

A

False

86
Q

How does a square blood smear occur

A

The pause was too long and forward spreading speed was too slow.

87
Q

How do you fix a square blood smear

A

Take a shorter pause when backing into the drop and increase forward spreading speed

88
Q

How do you make a half bullet blood smear

A

Uneven downward pressure on the spreader slide left to right

89
Q

How do you fix a half bullet blood smear

A

Apply even downward pressure on the spreader slide

90
Q

How do you make a blood smear with holes

A

If the slide has a dirty or greasy film a smear with holes will result. Holes may also occur if they’re fat particles in the blood

91
Q

How do you fix a blood smear with holes

A

Clean your slide beforehand

92
Q

How do you get tails on the blood smear

A

Tells may be caused by lifting the spreader slide up at the end of the spreading motion

93
Q

How do you fix tails on the blood smear

A

Don’t lift us spreader side up at the end of the spreading motion

94
Q

How do you get a long and narrow blood smear

A

When pushing the blood drop too soon before the blood has spread across the edge of spreader slide

95
Q

How do you fix long and narrow blood smears

A

Pause longer when backing into the drop

96
Q

How do you get a short and wide blood smear

A

If the spreader site is held at an angle greater than 30°

97
Q

How do you fix a short And wide blood smear

A

Decrease the angle of the spreader slide

98
Q

Which of the following is a vital stain

A

New methylene blue

99
Q

Reticulocytes on a modified wrights stain example diff quick appear

A

Polychromatic

100
Q

A decrease in this value is described as a microcyte

A

MCV

101
Q

A decrease in this value describes hyperchromic

A

MCH

102
Q

Measures the concentration of hemoglobin in the whole red blood cell volume

A

MCHC

103
Q

Is measured in femtometers

A

MCV

104
Q

Tells you the average weight of hemoglobin per red blood cell

A

MCH

105
Q

How many days does it take to produce red blood cells in the bone marrow

A

6 to 8 days

106
Q

Approximately _____ percent of the circulating blood cells of the dogs are replaced daily

A

1%

107
Q

Effete red blood cells are phagocytized and metabolized by _____ of spleen, bone marrow, liver

A

Macrophages

108
Q

Iron and amino acids are preserved for reutilization, and ____ is the waste product

A

Bilirubin

109
Q

Where is BiliRubin excreted

A

Bile

110
Q

Describe two things you need to do the week before your hematology duty week

A
  1. Meet with tech to let them know when you’ll be performing the blood draw. 2. Ensure you know how to use the machines properly for the next week
111
Q

A variation in the staining pattern of the red blood cell. Typically appears more purple in color

A

Polychromic

112
Q

A red blood cell that has a smaller diameter than what is considered normal for that species

A

Microcytic

113
Q

Meaning renewal. In hematology refers to the increase production of new cells to replace the ones that have been lost.

A

Regenerative

114
Q

A plasma protein that is involved in the clotting process. Under the influence of thrombin, fibrinogen is converted into fibrin.

A

Fibrinogen

115
Q

Also referred to as a metarubricyte , these are immature, nuclear did red blood cells.

A

Nrbc

116
Q

The simplified version of the activated partial thromboplastin time test. Assesses the intrinsic coagulation pathway

A

Activated clotting time

117
Q

A condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is decreased due to low hemoglobin content or low red blood cell numbers

A

Anemia

118
Q

A measurement that represents the average hemoglobin content of a red blood cell

A

MCH

119
Q

The process of forming vacuoles, or a cavity within the cytoplasm of the cell

A

Vacuolation

120
Q

A term used to describe the bright yellow coloring of mucous membranes or plasma sample. Associated with increased levels of bile pigments

A

Icteric

121
Q

A clotting tests used to measure the activity of clotting factors V, VII, X, prothrombin, fibrinogen

A

Prothrombintime

122
Q

Parasites found in the blood

A

Hemoparasites

123
Q

Referring to variation in cell color

A

Chromasia

124
Q

Inorganic compounds that disassociate in body fluids and carry a positive or negative

A

Electrolytes

125
Q

Referring to the rupturing of red blood cells

A

Hemolyzed

126
Q

Blood test and calculation that provide insight into the size of hemoglobin content of the average by blood cell of the sample

A

Red blood cell indices

127
Q

Peripheral blood smear

A

Pbs

128
Q

Revolutions per minute

A

Rpm

129
Q

Anticoagulant used in blood collection tubes. Typically used to collect blood for coagulation studies

A

Sodium citrate

130
Q

A cell displaying polychromasia

A

Polychromatophils

131
Q

The formation and production of erythrocytes

A

Erythropoesis

132
Q

A small piece of chromatin seem during interface of female cells. Typically seen in a drumstick shape

A

Barrbody

133
Q

An enlarged platelet

A

Megathrombocyte

134
Q

The portion of the cell that surrounds the nucleus. May contain various organelles

A

Cytoplasm

135
Q

A group of Eosin and methylene blue stains used in hematology and cytology

A

Romanowskystains

136
Q

Including test that assesses the intrinsic coagulation pathway of whole blood

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time

137
Q

Referring to the presence of fatty materials or lipids in plasma or serum

A

Lipemic

138
Q

The fluid portion of whole blood before coagulation

A

Plasma

139
Q

A red blood cell that has decreased hemoglobin content and therefore appears pale in color

A

Hypochromic

140
Q

A measurement that represents the average volume of a red blood cell

A

MCV

141
Q

A aggregation of platelets visualized on the blood smear

A

Platelet clumping

142
Q

Reticulocyte production index. Corrects the reticulocyte count by taking into account the presence of anemia. Gives a more accurate representation of red cell regeneration

A

Rpi

143
Q

An area of a peripheral blood smear where the blood cells are evenly distributed

A

Monolayer

144
Q

The fluid portion of coagulated blood. Does not contain any coagulation proteins

A

Serum

145
Q

A measurement that represents the average hemoglobin concentration of a red blood cell

A

Mchc

146
Q

A body within a cell that contains the chromosomes and nucleoli

A

Nucleus

147
Q

Accumulation of residual endoplasmic reticulum found immature neutrophils. Associated with toxemia

A

Dohlebodies

148
Q

And immature erythrocyte but no longer contains a nucleus

A

Reticulocyte

149
Q

Anticoagulant used in the blood collection tubes. Sodium heparin or lithium heparin are two available forms

A

Heparin

150
Q

Instrument used to count cells in a variety of fluids. Consists of a counting chamber etched with a grid covered by a coverslip.

A

Hemocytometer

151
Q

Stain particles that settle out if the solution. Is a source of artifacts

A

Stain precipitate

152
Q

Referring to abnormally shaped red blood cells

A

Poikilocytosis

153
Q

A measure of the variation size of red blood cells

A

Rdw

154
Q

The area of a peripheral blood spear where Counts are performed and morphologys are assessed

A

Monolayer

155
Q

The middle layer of a packed so valuable that contains the leukocytes thrombocytosis

A

Buffy coat

156
Q

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

A

Edta

157
Q

A stain used in blood, vaginal smears, cytology. Provides high nuclear detail. Used to identify the presence of reticulocytes a lot of blood smear

A

Nmb

158
Q

When you use the unopette method on bird blood that stains eosinophils, what other avian WBC is also stained

A

heterophils

159
Q

What is a heterophil equivelent to

A

neutrophil

160
Q

what biochem value is used in birds to assess renal function

A

uric acid

161
Q

how would you determine if a bird has responsive anemia when looking at the smear

A

more than 5% polychromasia

162
Q

T/F a bird with elevated CPK and a normal AST has a liver problem

A

false

163
Q

What electrolyte would be elevated in a reproductively active female bird

A

calcium

164
Q

Which pancreatic enzyme is responsible for protein digestion

A

trypsin

165
Q

which electrolyte is responsible for maintaining plasma oncotic pressure

A

sodium

166
Q

the _______ test is considered the most sensitive indicitor of pancreatitis in cats

A

pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity

167
Q

what does the X-ray film digestion test actually measure

A

fecal trypsin

168
Q

what are the vitamin K dependent coagulation factors

A

factors I, VII, X, XII

169
Q

What is the primary site for production of coagulation factors

A

liver

170
Q

which of the following is not a coagulation factor: Factor II (prothrombin), Factor X, von Willebrand’s factor, Factor VII

A

Von Willebrand’s factor

171
Q

What cannot be detected with mucosal bleeding time

A

rodenticide toxicity

172
Q

What increases with malignancy, particularly with lymphosarcoma

A

calcium

173
Q

Hyperkalemia is commonly associated with which endocrine disorder

A

hypoadrenocorticism