Kaplan Heme/Lymph 1 Flashcards

2/27 test: #1-33 3/12 test: #34-

1
Q

What condition are Birbeck granules associated with?

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis (Histiocytosis X)

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2
Q

What cancer is Philidelphia chromosome associated with?

A

Chronic myeloid leukemia (and occassionally acute lymphocytic leukemia

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3
Q

what molecular marker is used to diagnose hairy cell leukemia?

A

tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

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4
Q

what hematologic disorder is associated with elevate leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

A

myeloid metaplasia

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5
Q

explain the ristocetin test

A

ristocetin will only cause platelet agglutination in the presence of vWF so if you add it to blood and no agglutination occurs you can diagnose a deficiency of vWF

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6
Q

why is desmopressin an effective treatment for vWF disease?

A

desmopressin triggers release of vWF from Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelial cells

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7
Q

what do Reed Sternberg cells look like on histology and what disease are they associated with

A

“owl-eye”, bilobed “mirror-image” nucleus which may have a large nucleolus and clear halo around it
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

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8
Q

what component of the eosinophilic granules of an esosinophil is involved in parasite destruction

A

major basic protein

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9
Q

what is chromium-51 used for

A

to measure RBC survival

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10
Q

what processes are evidenced by decreased ESR

A

slower sedimentation and settling suggests sickle cell anemia (due to abnormal shape), polycythemia (many cells), CHF (mechanism unknown)

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11
Q

what kind of pathogens would elicit a high neutrophil count on the CBC differential

A

extracellular bacteria and parasites

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12
Q

what kind of pathogens would elicit a Th1 response

A

intracellular bacteria and viruses

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13
Q

A patient presenting with headaches and fatigue who has a past medical history of alcohol abuse and nodular liver on X-ray is shown to have 68% Hct and reticulocytosis as well as nucleated red cells. What’s the likely diagnosis?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

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14
Q

what does DIC do to fibrin degredation products, PT, PTT and bleeding time

A

increases FDP (low platelets due to coagulation), increases PT, increases PTT and increases bleeding time

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15
Q

what do ITP, TTP and HUS do to PT and PTT

A

nothing;
bleeding time is increased and platelet count decreased, but nothing happens to PT and PTT since coag factors aren’t involved

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16
Q

celecoxib is contraindicated in patients with what general allergy

A

allergy to sulfa drugs

17
Q

of the three analgesics acetaminophen, NSAIDs and COX-2 inhibitors, which is safest for a patient with history of cardiovascular disease

A

acetaminophen;

NSAIDs and COX-2 inhibitors have cardiovascular toxicity risk

18
Q

what makes aspirin different from other NSAIDs

A

it is an irreversible cyclooxygenase inhibitor and it exerts more of its effects on COX-1 rather than COX-2

19
Q

what is the protein defect in hereditary spherocytosis

A

spectrin

20
Q

what are the weeks when fetal erythropoesis occurs in the four main organs that produce fetal blood

A

yolk sac (3-8 weeks)
liver (6 weeks-birth)
spleen (10-28 weeks)
bone marrow (18 weeks-adulthood)

21
Q

what marker is upregulated in hairy cell leukemia and what CBC findings would you see

A

tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

hairy cell leukemia causes pancytopenia

22
Q

what disease are Birbeck granules associated with

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis (histiocytosis X)

23
Q

a cell that is granular on H&E and has a metachromatic cytoplasm on Giemsa stain

A

mast cell

24
Q

what molecules do mast cells release

A

histamine, serotonin, platelet activating factor, leukotrienes

25
Q

lytic bone lesions and monoclonal kappa light chains in urine suggest what disease

A

multiple myeloma

26
Q

what are Schuffer dots and what genus and species of pathogen do they indicate

A

multiple, scattered brick-red dots;

Schuffer dots are found in erythrocytes infected with Plasmodium vivax or ovale

27
Q

which plasmodium species can cause relapse?

which of these is found in the Western hemisphere?

A

vivax and ovale;

vivax is found in the Western hemisphere

28
Q

in a patient for whom Auer rods are seen on blood smear, what treatment should be given

A

ATRA (all trans retinoic acid) to treat APML (AML type M3)

29
Q

if a patient present with an ovarian mass and on blood smear you observe many small lymphocytes with interspersed macrophages surrounded by clear spaces what oncogene is involved in the patient’s cancer

A

c-myc;

the smear described is the characteristic “starry sky” appearance of Burkitt lymphoma

30
Q

what are Heinz bodies made of

A

oxidized and denatured hemoglobin

31
Q

what’s the mnemonic for DiGeorge syndrome

A

CATCH-22: cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies (low set ears and shortened philtrum), thymic aplasia, clef palate, hypocalcemia (due to absent parathyroid glands)
deletion on chromosome 22

32
Q

in a patient with psoriasis who has recently traveled to South America, what antimalarial would you use to treat

A

atovaquone-proguanil (not chloroquine because the patient came from a known resistant area and chloroquine exacerbates psoriasis symptoms)

33
Q

what does fibronectin do

A

fibronectin is a serum protein that acts as an opsonin for phagocytes in blood clots