Kaplan Heme/Lymph 1 Flashcards

2/27 test: #1-33 3/12 test: #34-

1
Q

What condition are Birbeck granules associated with?

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis (Histiocytosis X)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What cancer is Philidelphia chromosome associated with?

A

Chronic myeloid leukemia (and occassionally acute lymphocytic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what molecular marker is used to diagnose hairy cell leukemia?

A

tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what hematologic disorder is associated with elevate leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

A

myeloid metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

explain the ristocetin test

A

ristocetin will only cause platelet agglutination in the presence of vWF so if you add it to blood and no agglutination occurs you can diagnose a deficiency of vWF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

why is desmopressin an effective treatment for vWF disease?

A

desmopressin triggers release of vWF from Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what do Reed Sternberg cells look like on histology and what disease are they associated with

A

“owl-eye”, bilobed “mirror-image” nucleus which may have a large nucleolus and clear halo around it
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what component of the eosinophilic granules of an esosinophil is involved in parasite destruction

A

major basic protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is chromium-51 used for

A

to measure RBC survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what processes are evidenced by decreased ESR

A

slower sedimentation and settling suggests sickle cell anemia (due to abnormal shape), polycythemia (many cells), CHF (mechanism unknown)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what kind of pathogens would elicit a high neutrophil count on the CBC differential

A

extracellular bacteria and parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what kind of pathogens would elicit a Th1 response

A

intracellular bacteria and viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A patient presenting with headaches and fatigue who has a past medical history of alcohol abuse and nodular liver on X-ray is shown to have 68% Hct and reticulocytosis as well as nucleated red cells. What’s the likely diagnosis?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what does DIC do to fibrin degredation products, PT, PTT and bleeding time

A

increases FDP (low platelets due to coagulation), increases PT, increases PTT and increases bleeding time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what do ITP, TTP and HUS do to PT and PTT

A

nothing;
bleeding time is increased and platelet count decreased, but nothing happens to PT and PTT since coag factors aren’t involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

celecoxib is contraindicated in patients with what general allergy

A

allergy to sulfa drugs

17
Q

of the three analgesics acetaminophen, NSAIDs and COX-2 inhibitors, which is safest for a patient with history of cardiovascular disease

A

acetaminophen;

NSAIDs and COX-2 inhibitors have cardiovascular toxicity risk

18
Q

what makes aspirin different from other NSAIDs

A

it is an irreversible cyclooxygenase inhibitor and it exerts more of its effects on COX-1 rather than COX-2

19
Q

what is the protein defect in hereditary spherocytosis

20
Q

what are the weeks when fetal erythropoesis occurs in the four main organs that produce fetal blood

A

yolk sac (3-8 weeks)
liver (6 weeks-birth)
spleen (10-28 weeks)
bone marrow (18 weeks-adulthood)

21
Q

what marker is upregulated in hairy cell leukemia and what CBC findings would you see

A

tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

hairy cell leukemia causes pancytopenia

22
Q

what disease are Birbeck granules associated with

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis (histiocytosis X)

23
Q

a cell that is granular on H&E and has a metachromatic cytoplasm on Giemsa stain

24
Q

what molecules do mast cells release

A

histamine, serotonin, platelet activating factor, leukotrienes

25
lytic bone lesions and monoclonal kappa light chains in urine suggest what disease
multiple myeloma
26
what are Schuffer dots and what genus and species of pathogen do they indicate
multiple, scattered brick-red dots; | Schuffer dots are found in erythrocytes infected with Plasmodium vivax or ovale
27
which plasmodium species can cause relapse? | which of these is found in the Western hemisphere?
vivax and ovale; | vivax is found in the Western hemisphere
28
in a patient for whom Auer rods are seen on blood smear, what treatment should be given
ATRA (all trans retinoic acid) to treat APML (AML type M3)
29
if a patient present with an ovarian mass and on blood smear you observe many small lymphocytes with interspersed macrophages surrounded by clear spaces what oncogene is involved in the patient's cancer
c-myc; the smear described is the characteristic "starry sky" appearance of Burkitt lymphoma
30
what are Heinz bodies made of
oxidized and denatured hemoglobin
31
what's the mnemonic for DiGeorge syndrome
CATCH-22: cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies (low set ears and shortened philtrum), thymic aplasia, clef palate, hypocalcemia (due to absent parathyroid glands) deletion on chromosome 22
32
in a patient with psoriasis who has recently traveled to South America, what antimalarial would you use to treat
atovaquone-proguanil (not chloroquine because the patient came from a known resistant area and chloroquine exacerbates psoriasis symptoms)
33
what does fibronectin do
fibronectin is a serum protein that acts as an opsonin for phagocytes in blood clots