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NDT > Joining and Fastening > Flashcards

Joining and Fastening Flashcards

Joining and Fastening

1
Q
  1. An assembly that has been created by joining two or more parts by one or more welds is called a:

a. joint.
b. bonded structure.
c. weld.
d. weldment.

A

d. weldment.

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2
Q
  1. A general definition of welding describes the joining of two surfaces:

a. with a filler metal that has a higher melting point than the base metal.
b. with a filler material that is different from the base material.
c. in a permanent union established by atom-to-atom bonds.
d. where both heat and pressure are necessary for permanent bonding.

A

c. in a permanent union established by atom-to-atom bonds.

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3
Q
  1. Melting of faying surfaces, proximity of surfaces, and cleanliness are requirements for:

a. soldering.
b. adhesive bonding.
b. fastening.
d. fusion bonding.

A

d. fusion bonding.

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4
Q
  1. Metallurgical effects in a weld, such as grain size variation and shrinkage, are similar to those that occur in:

a. forgings.
b. castings.
c. extrusions.
d. hot-rolled plates.

A

b. castings.

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5
Q
  1. Pressure welding can be accomplished with pressure alone, but what else is usually added?

a. Heat.
b. Filler material.
c. Oxides.
d. Adhesives.

A

a. Heat.

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6
Q
  1. In pressure bonding, heat has the effect of:

a. increasing malleability.
b. age hardening.
c. reducing the grain size.
d. causing a phase change.

A

a. increasing malleability.

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7
Q
  1. Soldering, brazing, and braze welding all:

a. have the same strength characteristics.
b. use a process where only the filler metal is actually melted.
c. are fusion-type weldments.
d. use a process where both the base metal and filler metal are melted.

A

b. use a process where only the filler metal is actually melted.

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8
Q
  1. Melting of only the filler material, proximity of surfaces, and cleanliness are requirements for:

a. fusion bonding.
b. brazing.
c. diffusion bonding.
d. friction stir welding.

A

b. brazing.

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9
Q
  1. In the process of diffusion welding, often called diffusion bonding, the base metal is joined by:

a. melting the weld joint area with strip heaters.
b. using high-temperature adhesives.
c. putting it under pressure at temperatures below the melting point.
d. the heat of frictional movement between the surfaces to be joined.

A

c. putting it under pressure at temperatures below the melting point.

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10
Q
  1. What type of weld joint is depicted in Figure 5?

a. Corner joint.
b. Butt joint.
c. Tee joint.
d. Edge joint.

A

a. Corner joint.

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11
Q
  1. What type of weld joint preparation is shown in Figure 6?

a. J-groove.
b. Double J-groove.
c. Vee-groove.
d. Square groove.

A

c. Vee-groove.

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12
Q
  1. In Figure 7, which weld symbol needs to be changed to match the weld condition shown?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

A

a. A

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13
Q
  1. The uneven shrinkage and brittle structures that occur due to the rapid cooling of a weld can often be reduced by:

a. preheating the weldment prior to welding.
b. using a filler metal with a higher carbon content than the base metal.
c. clamping the weldment in a rigid fixture.
d. over designing the size of the weldment to prevent shrinkage.

A

a. preheating the weldment prior to welding.

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14
Q
  1. Welds and weldments have been known to develop cracks long after cooling but prior to being used in service. What is the principal cause for such cracks?

a. Accelerated corrosion at high temperature.
b. Scattered porosity in the weld.
c. Improper selection of base material.
d. Excessive residual stresses.

A

d. Excessive residual stresses.

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15
Q
  1. The principal purpose of preheat treatment and post-heat treatment in welds is to:

a. reduce the probability of formation of porosity in the weld.
b. neutralize residual stresses and geometric distortion.
c. create grains in the weld that are the same as those in the base metal.
d. cause the weld ripple and reinforcement to blend into the base metal.

A

b. neutralize residual stresses and geometric distortion.

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16
Q
  1. In welding, the most obvious discontinuities are those associated with structural anomalies in the weld itself.
    Which conditions are welding process discontinuities?

a. Part fit-up, laminations, incorrect base metal.
b. Weld dimension, location, distortion.
c. Correct filler metal, corrosion, sequence.
d. Insulation, paint, metallic coatings.

A

b. Weld dimension, location, distortion.

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17
Q
  1. Thermal conductivity of a metal is an important factor to consider in making quality weldments because:

a. some metals, such as aluminum, have a low conductivity, which results in weld discontinuities due to localized heat buildup.
b. some metals, such as stainless steel, have a high conductivity, which results in lack of fusion discontinuities as the heat is quickly removed from the weld zone.
c. in some metals, such as aluminum, very high temperature gradients are produced, causing stresses during cooling.
d. some metals, such as stainless steel, have low conductivity, which results in weld discontinuities caused by localized overheating.

A

d. some metals, such as stainless steel, have low conductivity, which results in weld discontinuities caused by localized overheating.

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18
Q
  1. In arc welding, the electric arc is usually sustained between an electrode and the:

a. welding machine.
b. workpiece.
c. coating on the electrode.
d. shielding gas.

A

b. workpiece.

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following gases are most frequently used as shielding to provide an inert atmosphere in the vicinity of
    the weld?

a. Argon, helium, and carbon dioxide.
b. Neon, tritium, and helium.
c. Sulphur dioxide, argon, and oxygen.
d. Argon, nitrogen, and hydrogen.

A

a. Argon, helium, and carbon dioxide.

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20
Q
  1. The burn-off rate and amount of spattering during the arc welding process can often be controlled by:

a. proper post-heating of the entire weldment.
b. frequent changing of the tungsten electrode.
c. maintaining the longest arc length possible to reduce the heat in the weld zone.
d. selecting the proper electrode polarity.

A

d. selecting the proper electrode polarity.

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21
Q
  1. Due to high temperatures and rapid rate of cooling, the filler material used in fusion welds:

a. is coated with an oxide to help reduce weld discontinuities.
b. contains alloys that will help compensate for properties lost during the welding process.
c. is alloyed with nickel, copper, and carbon to eliminate cracking.
d. should be as close as possible to the same alloy content as the base material.

A

b. contains alloys that will help compensate for properties lost during the welding process.

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22
Q
  1. When molten metal is transferred from the electrode to the weld zone, which of the following can be used to shield the molten metal from the atmosphere?

a. Base metal, filler metal, supplemental powder.
b. Tungsten, solid wire, spray powder.
c. Electrode coating, shielding gas, granular flux.
d. Controlled heat input, clean surfaces, qualified weld procedure.

A

c. Electrode coating, shielding gas, granular flux.

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following welding processes uses a nonconsumable electrode with the arc maintained in an
    atmosphere of inert gas?

a. Gas tungsten arc welding.
b. Submerged arc welding.
c. Gas metal arc welding.
d. Electroslag welding.

A

a. Gas tungsten arc welding.

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24
Q
  1. Shielding in the submerged arc welding process is provided by:

a. gases.
b. a flux-coated welding rod.
c. granular flux that completely surrounds the arc.
d. chopped glass fibers.

A

c. granular flux that completely surrounds the arc.

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25
Q
  1. A welding process that is most frequently carried out in a vacuum chamber is:

a. plasma arc welding.
b. electron beam welding.
c. electroslag welding.
d. friction welding.

A

b. electron beam welding.

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26
Q
  1. The welding process capable of very high intensity and rate of heat transfer is:

a. braze welding.
b. diffusion welding.
c. soldering.
d. plasma arc welding.

A

d. plasma arc welding.

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27
Q
  1. The welding process in which the arc is extinguished after melting a slag cover and in which the base metal and
    copper slides form a sort of moving mold is called:

a. submerged arc welding.
b. electroslag welding.
c. electron beam welding.
d. slag mold welding.

A

b. electroslag welding

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28
Q
  1. Which welding process is depicted in Figure 8?

a. Electron beam welding.
b. Plasma arc welding.
c. Resistance spot welding.
d. Friction welding.

A

c. Resistance spot welding.

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29
Q
  1. If the vee-groove weld shown in Figure 9 was made in multiple passes and not clamped or restrained, typical warping would take place in which direction?

a. Edges A and B would be raised due to the contraction of the weld metal.
b. Edges A and B would be lowered due to the expansion of the weld metal in the weld zone.
c. In a multipass weld, there would be little if any warpage.
d. Expansion and contraction would be equal in a vee groove weld as shown.

A

a. Edges A and B would be raised due to the contraction of the weld metal.

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30
Q
  1. Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which three types?

a. Shallow, deep, and intermittent.
b. Longitudinal, transverse, and crater.
c. Laminar, through, and oblique.
d. Longitudinal, laminar, and intermittent.

A

b. Longitudinal, transverse, and crater.

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31
Q
  1. A slag inclusion can result from which of the following?

a. Small pieces of tungsten being dislodged from the electrode in the gas tungsten arc process.
b. Excessive overlap on intermediate passes in a multipass weldment.
c. Insufficient cleaning of successive passes in a multipass weldment.
d. Contaminants in the welding flux.

A

c. Insufficient cleaning of successive passes in a multipass weldment.

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32
Q
  1. Undercut on a weld pass is usually caused by:

a. poor operator technique.
b. a rate of travel that is too slow, which causes the base metal to become too hot.
c. the use of an electrode that is too large for the current capacity of the welding machine.
d. welding in the vertical position.

A

a. poor operator technique.

33
Q
  1. Crater cracks may take the form of a single crack or star shaped cracks and will usually be found:

a. by magnetic particle techniques since crater cracks are always subsurface.
b. anywhere along a weld where the welding was stopped and restarted.
c. in the natural crater formed between the two plates in a typical fillet weld.
d. in the root area of a multiple-pass weld where the weld metal failed to flow completely into the root opening.

A

b. anywhere along a weld where the welding was stopped and restarted.

34
Q
  1. Weldments subject to restraint during welding can develop high residual stresses. Unrestrained weldments can develop:

a. geometric distortion.
b. high residual stresses.
c. cracking after the weld has cooled.
d. fatigue cracking.

A

a. geometric distortion.

35
Q
  1. After welding, many steel weldments are heat treated to obtain more uniform properties between the weld and base metal and to relieve stress. Which heat-treatment method is often used following welding?

a. Tempering.
b. Martensitic aging.
c. Normalizing.
d. Spheroidizing.

A

c. Normalizing.

36
Q
  1. When steel has been quench hardened and then reheated to some point below the lower transformation temperature for the purpose of reducing brittleness, this is called:

a. austenitization.
b. thermal slip deformation.
c. allotropic change.
d. tempering.

A

d. tempering.

37
Q

Material Removal Processes
1. In describing machinability, three different measurements are generally considered on a relative, if not quantitative, basis. These are:

a. shear, tensile, and impact strength of the material being machined.
b. surface finish of the material achievable, power consumption required to remove a given volume of material, and expected tool life.
c. softness of the material, sharpness of the cutting tool, and type of machine used to remove the material.
d. volume of material before machining, volume of material after machining, and time required to remove that volume.

A

b. surface finish of the material achievable, power consumption required to remove a given volume of material, and expected tool life.

38
Q
  1. Equipment that aids in material removal from a workpiece by establishing a suitable set of motions and maintaining known positions are:

a. millworking machines.
b. factory machines.
c. machine tools.
d. metal-cutting machines.

A

c. machine tools.

39
Q
  1. A cutting operation that has the ability to cut through thicknesses of more than 0.9 m (3 ft) of steel and is commonly used to remove surface discontinuities on
    castings and forgings by “scarfing” is called:

a. oxyacetylene cutting.
b. friction cutting.
c. ultrasonic cutting.
d. plasma arc cutting.

A

a. oxyacetylene cutting.

40
Q
  1. The process used for shaping metals by chemical dissolution only, with selective removal accomplished by masking areas where metal is not to be removed, is called:

a. electrical discharge machining.
b. chemical milling.
c. electrochemical machining.
d. electroforming.

A

b. chemical milling.

41
Q
  1. The acronym EDM refers to:

a. engineering design materials.
b. energy discharge machines.
c. electrodynamic machining.
d. electrical discharge machining.

A

d. electrical discharge machining.

42
Q
  1. Figure 10 illustrates:

a. chemical milling.
b. electrochemical machining.
c. ultrasonic machining.
d. electrolytic grinding.

A

b. electrochemical machining.

43
Q
  1. The process illustrated in Figure 11 is called:
    a. ultrasonic machining.
    b. electrical discharge machining.
    c. electrochemical machining.
    d. abrasive drilling.
A

a. ultrasonic machining.

44
Q
  1. When used with respect to machine tools, the acronym N/C means:

a. nonmetal cutters.
b. noncorrosive coolant.
c. numerical control.
d. negative clearance.

A

c. numerical control.

45
Q
  1. Which of the following can result in economical setup and reduced machine time with an increase in repeatability
    and accuracy for a variety of machining operations?

a. The use of NDT to evaluate the finished product.
b. The use of electrical discharge machining to replace the conventional lathes and surface grinders.
c. The use of modern ultrasonic machining operations.
d. The use of numerical control systems applied to conventional types of machining operations.

A

d. The use of numerical control systems applied to conventional types of machining operations.

46
Q

Surface Treatments and Coatings
1. Which of these are properties of surface coatings?

a. Weld strength, profile, and surface finish.
b. Corrosion protection, appearance, and change surface friction.
c. Surface hardness, discontinuity covering, and fluid tight.
d. Light protection, flux removal, and acoustic emission reduction.

A

b. Corrosion protection, appearance, and change surface friction.

47
Q
  1. A pickling bath would be used in the manufacturing of metallic components to:

a. apply a corrosion-resistant layer.
b. remove iron-based oxides.
c. produce an attractive green patina.
d. grow a wear-resistant layer of chromium or nickel.

A

b. remove iron-based oxides.

48
Q
  1. Carburizing and flame hardening are examples of:

a. annealing processes.
b. case-hardening processes.
c. processes that produce ductile surfaces.
d. electrochemical processes.

A

b. case-hardening processes.

49
Q
  1. Which of the following nondestructive tests would provide the best results in measuring the case depth on a case hardened part?

a. Ultrasonic immersion testing using a very low frequency probe.
b. Radiographic testing.
c. Electromagnetic testing.
d. Magnetic particle testing.

A

c. Electromagnetic testing.

50
Q
  1. The best and most economical cleaners used for removal of oils and greases are:

a. pickling baths.
b. deionized water sprays.
c. wire brushes and cloth buffers.
d. petroleum solvents.

A

d. petroleum solvents.

51
Q
  1. Coatings are often applied to protect a material; their thicknesses can frequently be determined nondestructively by:

a. acoustic emission testing.
b. electromagnetic testing.
c. surface-wave ultrasonic techniques.
d. optical holography.

A

b. electromagnetic testing.

52
Q
  1. A process that is the reverse of electrochemical machining and that involves the deposition of metals on other metals or nonmetals is called:

a. chemical milling.
b. electrical discharge machining.
c. electroplating.
d. magnetoforming.

A

c. electroplating.

53
Q
  1. Metals commonly applied to other metals by electroplating are:

a. nickel, chromium, and cadmium.
b. tin, zinc, and tungsten.
c. silver, gold, and carbon.
d. copper, aluminum, and magnesium.

A

a. nickel, chromium, and cadmium.

54
Q
  1. Which coating process causes paint particles to be directly attracted to a substrate to efficiently form an even coating?

a. Chemical conversion coating.
b. Electrostatic spraying.
c. Electroplating.
d. Thermal spraying.

A

b. Electrostatic spraying.

55
Q
  1. Some materials, such as aluminum, are corrosion resistant:

a. by virtue of the immediate oxidation of newly exposed surfaces.
b. only if anodized.
c. because the material itself will not readily combine with oxygen.
d. against all types of corrosive atmospheres.

A

a. by virtue of the immediate oxidation of newly exposed surfaces.

56
Q
  1. A process that converts the base metal surface to an oxidized barrier layer of very small porous cells is called:

a. galvanizing.
b. anodizing.
c. plating.
d. metallizing.

A

b. anodizing.

57
Q
  1. The anodized surface on aluminum:

a. can produce a high background during a penetrant test.
b. is very dense and makes X-ray penetration difficult.
c. can produce cracks that are easily detected by electromagnetic testing techniques.
d. must be removed before performing ultrasonic tests.

A

a. can produce a high background during a penetrant test.

58
Q
  1. A corrosion protection material commonly applied to steel by hot dipping and galvanizing is:

a. porcelain.
b. paint.
c. zinc.
d. chromic acid.

A

c. zinc.

59
Q

Introduction to Nondestructive Testing
1. Which of the following statements best differentiates a defect from a discontinuity?

a. Discontinuities can propagate and become defects.
b. All discontinuities are defects.
c. All defects will lead to failure if undetected; discontinuities are harmless.
d. Discontinuities are external natural boundaries only; defects are internal flaws originating from errors in processing.

A

a. Discontinuities can propagate and become defects.

60
Q
  1. NDT is often differentiated from other measurement or inspection techniques in that:

a. NDT is a measurement of dimensions, geometry, and appearance.
b. NDT uses electronic instruments to identify, evaluate, and locate discontinuities.
c. NDT involves indirect tests related to some other quality or characteristic of the material.
d. NDT is an inspection tool used to confirm the findings of the many other quality assurance techniques.

A

b. NDT uses electronic instruments to identify, evaluate, and locate discontinuities.

61
Q
  1. Which of the following are a function of NDT?

a. Testing product to failure point, product application, and cost reduction.
b. Tensile tests, charpy tests, and vickers hardness testing.
c. Identifying material, checking for discontinuities, and testing without destroying the product.
d. Checking dimensions, geometry, and appearance.

A

c. Identifying material, checking for discontinuities, and testing without destroying the product.

62
Q
  1. A false indication is one formed by a:

a. discontinuity larger than accept/reject criteria.
b. discontinuity smaller than accept/reject criteria.
c. fatigue crack.
d. factor unrelated to a discontinuity.

A

d. factor unrelated to a discontinuity.

63
Q
  1. An important basis for the success of NDT design procedures is:

a. the need to ensure that unexpected discontinuities of some critical size are not present when the component enters service.
b. that all discontinuities are detected by NDT or proof testing before the component enters service.
c. in the use of large factors of safety.
d. in the use of a value of strength that the material used in the design is presumed to possess.

A

a. the need to ensure that unexpected discontinuities of some critical size are not present when the component enters service.

64
Q
  1. If properly used, NDT can assist in determining whether a test specimen is functioning as designed by:

a. accurately measuring the tensile strength of design materials.
b. predicting the time it will take a given size discontinuity to grow to a critical size.
c. determining the corrosion rate.
d. providing an accurate evaluation of the number and type of discontinuities that exist in a material.

A

d. providing an accurate evaluation of the number and type of discontinuities that exist in a material.

65
Q
  1. Even at the early stages of product planning, NDT should be considered because:

a. codes and specifications are too restrictive.
b. the design of the part should permit easy access to critical areas for later inspection.
c. the NDT method may strengthen the product.
d. the NDT processes are generally more time-intensive than other processes.

A

b. the design of the part should permit easy access to critical areas for later inspection.

66
Q
  1. Unexpectedly early fatigue failure can often be prevented by using NDT to:

a. verify the cyclic loading on a component.
b. detect surface discontinuities that could be stress risers.
c. measure the endurance limit of a part undergoing cyclic stresses.
d. determine percent elongation of a material before it is placed in service.

A

b. detect surface discontinuities that could be stress risers.

67
Q
  1. A technique for the inspection of manufactured products that utilizes the selection of a certain percentage of parts for inspection is called:

a. standard deviation.
b. natural selection.
c. analysis of variance.
d. sampling.

A

d. sampling.

68
Q
  1. Implied in sampling inspection is:

a. that the chosen plan will produce precise numbers of acceptable parts.
b. the need for a sample size of 100 units or multiples thereof.
c. an understanding that defective products may be present and untested.
d. the need to collect data in the form of variables instead of attributes.

A

c. an understanding that defective products may be
present and untested.

69
Q
  1. A vernier line measurement in a visual acuity test permits verification of:

a. letter recognition.
b. trichromatic vision.
c. code interpretation.
d. hyperacuity.

A

d. hyperacuity.

70
Q
  1. Factors of safety are often in the range of 2 to 4. These factors:

a. are provided for engineering mistakes.
b. are added as a corrosion allowance.
c. could possibly be reduced with the assurance of NDT techniques that the material was free of discontinuities.
d. provide allowances for poor welding techniques.

A

c. could possibly be reduced with the assurance
of NDT techniques that the material was free of
discontinuities.

71
Q

Nondestructive Testing Methods
1. In visual testing, which of the following measurement tools uses the principle of light wave interference to check surface flatness?

a. Optical comparator.
b. Vernier caliper.
c. Sine bar.
d. Optical flat.

A

d. Optical flat.

72
Q
  1. Devices that show magnified, reflected, or profile images of the workpiece on a frosted glass screen are called optical:

a. comparators.
b. flats.
c. projectors.
d. micrometers.

A

a. comparators.

73
Q
  1. An NDT method that has the ability to measure changes in electrical conductivity caused by the effects of heat treatment is:

a. magnetic particle testing.
b. acoustic emission testing.
c. electromagnetic testing.
d. immersion ultrasonic testing.

A

c. electromagnetic testing.

74
Q

NDT Applications
1. Process control based on the means and ranges of measurements taken on periodic samples requires the measurements to be taken of:
a. attributes.
b. variables or parameters.
c. either attributes or variables.
d. neither attributes nor variables.

A

b. variables or parameters.

75
Q
  1. Monitoring temperature for industrial process control is an example of:

a. parameter-based measurement.
b. geometric dimensioning and tolerancing.
c. the direct comparison technique.
d. lateral measurement.

A

a. parameter-based measurement.

76
Q
  1. Metal corrosion that is accelerated when the metal is under load is called:

a. pitting corrosion.
b. galvanic corrosion.
c. intergranular corrosion.
d. stress corrosion.

A

d. stress corrosion.

77
Q

NDT and Engineering
1. A statement that a particular experiment produced a 0.9 probability of detection with a 95% confidence level means that:

a. there is a 90% likelihood that the probability of detection is overstated.
b. there is a 95% likelihood that the probability of detection is overstated.
c. on average, 90% of discontinuities will be detected 95% of the time.
d. on average, 95% of discontinuities will be detected 90% of the time.

A

c. on average, 90% of discontinuities will be detected 95% of the time.

78
Q
  1. On the probability of detection (PoD) curve shown in Figure 12:

a. the ANDE line indicates the length of discontinuity that is undetectable in the given test.
b. the Y axis is set for a 90% confidence level that detectable discontinuities will be detected.
c. the Y axis is set for a 90% probability level that detectable discontinuities will be detected.
d. only “hits” are recorded, not “misses.”

A

c. the Y axis is set for a 90% probability level that detectable discontinuities will be detected.

NDT (11 decks)

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