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NDT > cap 12B Materiales > Flashcards

cap 12B Materiales Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Although there are many ways to present the data gathered during ultrasonic testing, all presentations are based on:

a. amplitude versus probe location.
b. amplitude versus time of flight.
c. probe location versus time of flight.
d. probe location versus thickness.

A

b. amplitude versus time of flight.

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2
Q
  1. A typical B-scan offers what type of view of the test object?

a. Amplitude versus time view.
b. Planar view.
c. Cross-sectional view.
d. End view.

A

c. Cross-sectional view.

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3
Q
  1. When scanning a part in a raster pattern while collecting A-scan data, the data can be represented in what type of view?

a. A-scan.
b. B-scan.
c. C-scan.
d. D-scan.

A

c. C-scan.

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4
Q
  1. When C-scan data are plotted as an end view of the test object, the resultant scan is a(n):

a. A-scan.
b. B-scan.
c. C-scan.
d. D-scan.

A

d. D-scan.

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5
Q
  1. One advantage that radiographic testing has over other methods is that:

a. safety is not a big concern.
b. only single-sided access is required.
c. many RT techniques provide a permanent record.
d. testing is relatively simple and cost effective.

A

c. many RT techniques provide a permanent record

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6
Q
  1. The underlying principles of radiography are based primarily on:

a. photography.
b. the structure of the atom.
c. chemical reactions.
d. conservation of energy.

A

b. the structure of the atom.

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7
Q
  1. While some isotopes of an element are stable and not useful for NDT, others are unstable and consequently radioactive. These isotopes are referred to as:

a. cobalt-60.
b. iridium-192.
c. cesium-137.
d. radioisotopes.

A

d. radioisotopes.

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8
Q
  1. The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom is referred to as the:

a. atomic mass number.
b. atomic number.
c. Z number.
d. isotope number.

A

a. atomic mass number.

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9
Q
  1. X-rays and gamma rays are part of the electromagnetic spectrum and have wavelengths with a frequency that is higher than ultraviolet light. The higher wavelength means that

a. the wavelengths are longer.
b. the wavelengths are shorter.
c. the wavelengths are the same.
d. the wavelength is not affected.

A

b. the wavelengths are shorter.

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10
Q
  1. A device that consists of a cathode and anode under high vacuum used to produce X-rays is referred to as a(n):

a. camera.
b. photon tube.
c. X-ray tube.
d. gamma tube.

A

c. X-ray tube.

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11
Q
  1. Increasing the voltage of an X-ray tube will give the X-rays:

a. shorter wavelengths and greater penetrating power.
b. longer wavelengths and greater penetrating power.
c. shorter wavelengths and less penetrating power.
d. longer wavelengths and less penetrating power.

A

a. shorter wavelengths and greater penetrating power.

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12
Q
  1. The amperage control on an X-ray tube regulates the:

a. energy of the X-ray tube.
b. flux emitted by the X-ray tube.
c. quantity of photons.
d. beam filter on the X-ray tube.

A

b. flux emitted by the X-ray tube.

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13
Q
  1. An isotope becomes a stable element with less energy in a process known as:

a. mass attenuation.
b. linear attenuation.
c. probability reversal.
d. spontaneous decay.

A

d. spontaneous decay.

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14
Q
  1. For radioisotopes the number of photons produced is controlled by the number of unstable atoms present or activity and their half-life, which is the time required for_______of the material to decay or transmute into daughtn- elements.

a. one-tenth
b. one-quarter
c. one-third
d. one-half

A

d. one-half

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15
Q
  1. The radioactive isotope cobalt-60 has a half-life of:

a. 73.8 days.
b. 119.78 days.
c. 5.27 years.
d. 30.17 years.

A

c. 5.27 years.

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16
Q
  1. The radioactive isotope iridium-192 has a half-life of:

a. 73.8 days.
b. 119.78 days.
c. 5.27 years.
d. 30.17 years.

A

a. 73.8 days.

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17
Q
  1. When compared to an X-ray tube, cobalt-60 emits photons with energies of:

a. 0.6, 0.47, and 0.31 MeV.
b. 1.33 and 1.17 MeV.
c. 1.89 and 1.45 MeV.
d. 0.8, 0.55, and 0.4 MeV.

A

b. 1.33 and 1.17 MeV

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18
Q
  1. When compared to an X-ray tube, iridium-192 emits photons with energies of:

a. 0.6, 0.47, and 0.31 MeV.
b. 1.33 and 1.17 MeV.
c. 1.89 and 1.45 MeV.
d. 0.8, 0.55, and 0.4 MeV.

A

a. 0.6, 0.47, and 0.31 MeV.

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19
Q
  1. Gamma-ray source activity is measured in:

a. curies.
b. electron volts.
c. becquerels.
d. amperes.

A

c. becquerels.

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20
Q
  1. One of the biggest advantages of an X-ray
    source over a gamma-ray source is the fact that
    the X-ray source:
    a. does not require electrical supplies.
    b. produces less scatter.
    c. only emits radiation in a single direction.
    d. can simply be turned off when not in use.
A

d. can simply be turned off when not in use.

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21
Q
  1. The_______ states that the radiation intensity (I), or dose rate, is inversely proportional to the square of the distance (D) from the source.

a. distance intensity law
b. inverse square law
c. proportional square law
d. intensity reduction law

A

b. inverse square law

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22
Q
  1. The thickness of a material required to reduce the intensity of radiation of a particular energy to half of its original value is the material’s:

a. absorption factor.
b. protection factor.
c. half-value layer.
d. tenth-value layer.

A

c. half-value layer.

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23
Q
  1. The thickness of a material required to reduce the intensity of radiation of a particular energy one-tenth of its original value is the material’s:

a. absorption factor.
b. protection factor.
c. half-value layer.
d. tenth-value layer.

A

d. tenth-value layer.

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24
Q
  1. When considering the health and safety aspects of the use and storage of radioactive materials, attenuation coefficient value tables for shielding materials are often consulted. The values that are especially useful are:

a. radiation intensity values.
b. half- and tenth-value layers.
c. mechanical property values.
d. material reflectivity values.

A

b. half- and tenth-value layers.

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25
Q
  1. Most radiographic applications are shadow images produced by the localized attenuation of penetrating radiation. The image is the result of the fact that:

a. different thicknesses and types of materials absorb radiation at different rates.
b. radiation passes evenly through a test object.
c. the film image is black and gray.
d. radiation is reflected back through the material onto the recording medium.

A

a. different thicknesses and types of materials absorb radiation at different rates

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26
Q
  1. A radiographic testing technique that allows for real-time, or live, viewing of objects and structures is known as:

a. phosphor imaging.
b. photostimulable.
c. radioscopy
d. fluoroscopy.

A

c. radioscopy

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27
Q
  1. Hole-in-plaque, wire-diameter, step-wedge, and duplex wire pair are all different types of indicators used to demonstrate that the radiographic testing procedure meets the required:

a. dimensional tolerance.
b. image quality.
c. image location.
d. image content.

A

b. image quality.

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28
Q
  1. __________ help to assess three factors in a radiographic image: image sharpness, image contrast, and image noise.

a. Photographic filters
b. Imaging lenses
c. Image quality indicators
d. Densitometers

A

c. Image quality indicators

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29
Q
  1. A radiographic technique used to obtain a three-dimensional image is known as:

a. realistic holography.
b. computed tomography.
c. realistic radiography.
d. invasive radiography.

A

b. computed tomography.

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30
Q
  1. A common backscatter single-sided evaluation technique known as positive material identification is also known as:

a. compton scattering.
b. elastic scattering.
c. pair production.
d. X-ray fluorescence.

A

d. X-ray fluorescence.

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31
Q
  1. Because radiography is sensitive to changes in density or thickness, cracks and delamination-type discontinuities are only detectable when they are:

a. perpendicular to the X-ray beam.
b. parallel to the X-ray beam.
c. at oblique angles to the X-ray beam.
d. positively located prior to X-ray.

A

b. parallel to the X-ray beam.

32
Q
  1. Nuclear reactor research facilities, particle accelerators, and D-T tubes are all sources that can be used to perform:

a. computed tomography.
b. gamma-ray radiography.
c. X-ray radiography.
d. neutron radiography

A

d. neutron radiography

33
Q
  1. There are two general techniques for static neutron radiographic imaging. Which of the following is useful only for nonradioactive samples?

a. The attenuation propagation technique.
b. The direct technique.
c. The indirect transfer technique.
d. The latent imaging technique

A

b. The direct technique.

34
Q
  1. When performing indirect neutron radiography, conversion screens made from either dysprosium or__________are used.

a. aluminum
b. antimony
c. gold foil
d. indium

A

d. indium

35
Q
  1. In eddy current testing, a set of partial differential equations that integrate electric, magnetic, and electromagnetic induction theories is referred to as:

a. Snell’s law.
b. Planck’s constant.
c. Maxwell’s equations.
d. Roswell’s equations.

A

c. Maxwell’s equations

36
Q
  1. Magnetic flux leakage testing often uses test frequencies:

a. between 0 and 60 Hz.
b. between 100 Hz and 10 MHz.
c. between 1.0 and 15 MHz.
d. greater than 300 MHz.

A

a. between 0 and 60 Hz.

37
Q
  1. Eddy current testing often uses test frequencies:

a. between 0 and 60 Hz.
b. between 100 Hz and 10 MHz.
c. between 1.0 and 15 MHz.
d. as high as 300 MHz.

A

b. between 100 Hz and 10 MHz.

38
Q
  1. Microwave testing often uses test frequencies:

a. between 0 and 60 Hz.
b. between 100 Hz and 10 MHz.
c. between 1.0 and 15 MHz.
d. greater than 300 MHz.

A

d. greater than 300 MHz.

39
Q
  1. A relative scale that uses annealed, or soft, copper with a sample temperature of 20°C (68 °F) as a basis for comparison to identify materials based on their conductivity is known as the:

a. ASME scale.
b. SAE scale.
c. SSPC scale.
d. IACS scale.

A

d. IACS scale.

40
Q
  1. Because of the complicated relationship between test variables and eddy current testing applications such as alloy sorting, heat-treatment verification, hardness determination, or thickness measurement, it is important that:

a. equipment standardization with proper reference standards is performed.
b. a probe is chosen that can be used for all inspection types.
c. a separate probe is used for both calibration and inspection.
d. only magnetic probes are used when testing nonferrous materials.

A

a. equipment standardization with proper reference standards is performed.

41
Q
  1. Eddy currents only flow in near-surface of a test object. The phenomenon is referred to as the skin effect and the depth of penetration into the thickness is known as the;

a. wave depth.
b. skin depth.
c. surface depth.
d. subsurface depth.

A

b. skin depth.

42
Q
  1. When performing an eddy current test to detect small changes in impedance, the test coil is usually balanced:

a. away from the specimen.
b. near the specimen.
c. near the test unit.
d. away from the test unit.

A

b. near the specimen.

43
Q
  1. Eddy current testing uses two test coil configurations, absolute and _______.

a. encircling.
b. circumferential.
c. differential.
d. liftoff.

A

c. differential.

44
Q
  1. Absolute eddy current probes consist of a(n):

a. single test coil.
b. minimum of two test coils.
c. combination of different test coils.
d. array of multiple test coils.

A

a. single test coil.

45
Q
  1. Differential eddy current probes consist of:

a. a single test coil.
b. a minimum of two test coils.
c. a combination of different test coils.
d. an array of multiple test coils.

A

b. a minimum of two test coils.

46
Q
  1. Absolute eddy current coils can struggle to indicate small changes in coil impedance, and
    changes in the distance between the coil and the test object can result in nonrelevant indications. This change in distance between the coil and the test object is referred to as:

a. probe wobble.
b. index variation.
c. planar parallelism.
d. liftoff.

A

d. liftoff.

47
Q
  1. Differential eddy current probes detect:

a. an imbalance in the electronic fields under the coils.
b. a direct measure of the impedance of the coil.
c. a direct measure of the induced voltage of the coil.
d. a change in the induced voltage.

A

a. an imbalance in the electronic fields under the coils.

48
Q
  1. Which of the following eddy current techniques used to size surface or near-surface discontinuities beneath the probe alters the electrical resistance of the material as current is forced around and underneath it?

a. Direct current potential drop.
b. Alternating current potential drop.
c. Half-wave rectified alternating current.
d. Full-wave rectified direct current.

A

b. Alternating current potential drop.

49
Q
  1. Which of the following eddy current techniques used to size subsurface discontinuities beneath the probe alters the electrical resistance of the material as current is forced around and underneath it?

a. Direct current potential drop.
b. Alternating current potential drop.
c. Half-wave rectified alternating current.
d. Full-wave rectified direct current.

A

a. Direct current potential drop.

50
Q
  1. For locating and sizing surface-breaking discontinuities in conductive materials, alternating current field measurement inspections may be performed at relatively high speeds and:

a. over areas five times the probe diameter.
b. over areas ten times the probe diameter.
c. on both dry or submerged surfaces.
d. through coatings more than 10 mm (0.4 in.) thick.

A

c. on both dry or submerged surfaces.

51
Q
  1. An eddy current technique (remote field testing) that uses the through-transmission effect with two widely separated coils to produce a field that is affected by anomalies is primarily used for the inspection of:

a. nonferrous tubular products and pipe.
b. conductive ceramic insulation sleeves.
c. ferromagnetic tubular products and pipe.
d. aluminum plate and sheet material.

A

c. ferromagnetic tubular products and pipe.

52
Q
  1. In eddy current remote field testing of
    ferromagnetic tubular products, the variations in the alternating current energy distribution are divided into three zones. The detector coil is in which of the following zones?

a. Near field zone.
b. Transition zone.
c. Remote field zone.
d. Indirect energy zone.

A

c. Remote field zone.

53
Q
  1. The best known electromagnetic testing technique is eddy current testing, which is only applied to what type of material?

a. Insulators.
b. Conductors.
c. Polymers.
d. Low frequency.

A

b. Conductors.

54
Q
  1. When performing a magnetic flux leakage test, a__________is used to detect magnetic flux leakage, instead of the magnetic particles used in the closely related magnetic particle testing method.

a. pie gauge
b. hall effect sensor
c. gauss meter
d. berthold penetrameter

A

b. hall effect sensor

55
Q
  1. There are two hall effect probe configurations
    used to sense magnetic flux density. Which of the following probe configurations will detect magnetic flux parallel to a test object’s surface?

a. Parallel probe.
b. Transverse probe.
c. Circular probe.
d. Axial probe.

A

b. Transverse probe.

56
Q
  1. There are two hall effect probe configurations used to sense magnetic flux density. Which of the following probe configurations will detect magnetic flux perpendicular to a test object’s surface?

a. Parallel probe.
b. Transverse probe.
c. Circular probe.
d. Axial probe.

A

d. Axial probe.

57
Q
  1. In microwave testing, the measurement setups are divided into all but which of the following categories?

a. Reflection.
b. Refraction.
c. Transmission.
d. Scattering.

A

b. Refraction.

58
Q
  1. The testing frequencies for microwave testing techniques are in which of the following ranges?

a. 20 to 20 000 KHz.
b. 1 MHz to 15MHz.
c. 2.25 to 50 MHz.
d. 300 MHz to 300 GHz.

A

d. 300 MHz to 300 GHz.

59
Q
  1. The testing frequencies for ground penetrating radar testing techniques are in which of the following ranges?

a. 500 to 2 GHz.
b. 1.0 to 15.0 MHz.
c. 2.25 to 50.0 MHz..
d. 300 MHz to 300 GHz.

A

a. 500 to 2 GHz.

60
Q
  1. Ground penetrating radar inspection systems are described as either air-coupled or ground-coupled. An air-coupled system allows for a higher inspection speed but sacrifices__________at a given frequency.

a. resolution
b. penetration
c. accuracy
d. positioning

A

b. penetration

61
Q
  1. The lowest point on the kelvin temperature scale where atomic/molecular motion essentially ceases is_______, indicating a thermal energy of zero.

a. zero point
b. absolute zero
c. theoretical zero
d. practical zero

A

b. absolute zero

62
Q
  1. The transfer of heat by diffusion and collisions between constituents is referred to as:

a. convection.
b. radiation.
c. conduction.
d. emission.

A

c. conduction.

63
Q
  1. The application or presence of coating such as tape, carbon black, paint, or metallic surface treatments can all have an effect on the___________of a test object during a thermal imaging inspection.

a. reflectivity
b. emissivity
c. reactivity
d. refractivity

A

b. emissivity

64
Q
  1. A thermography technique that is useful on moving targets, targets in a controlled environment or field, or when the targets are at extremely high temperatures is known as:

a. contact thermography.
b. remote thermography.
c. noncontact thermography.
d. emission thermography.

A

c. noncontact thermography.

65
Q
  1. To use an optical pyrometer, the temperature of the test object must be greater than:

a. 500 °C (932 °F).
b. 700 °C (1292 °F).
c. 900 °C (1652 °F).
d. 1100 °C (2012 °F).

A

b. 700 °C (1292 °F).

66
Q
  1. A thermographic map created of the energy of a surface is compiled into an image known as a:

a. thermopile.
b. gradient image.
c. thermogram.
d. thermal image.

A

c. thermogram.

67
Q
  1. Two thermography techniques are common in industry, passive and active. Active thermography techniques are:

a. based on introducing heat to the test subject with an external heat source and then monitoring over time.
b. used to look for changes to the resistance of electrical flow, which causes an increase in temperature.
c. concerned with friction heating or valve leakage and blockage.
d. primarily used to inspect insulation and buildings.

A

a. based on introducing heat to the test subject with an external heat source and then monitoring over time.

68
Q
  1. Acoustic emission testing equipment is designed to detect all but which of the following?

a. The return of transmitted ultrasonic waves from discontinuities.
b. The structure-borne sound generated by a test object.
c. Certain phase changes or growth in microstructural phases.
d. Turbulent flow or leakage in a test object.

A

a. The return of transmitted ultrasonic waves from discontinuities.

69
Q
  1. The acoustic emission testing method may be divided into two common applications, detection of discontinuities and detection of leaks. The detection of leaks is concerned with which type of signal?

a. Transient or short-lived burst signals.
b. Signals with long durations.
c. Transmitted and reflected signals.
d. Transmitted signals only.

A

b. Signals with long durations.

70
Q
  1. An acoustic emission test requires that the test object be exposed to:

a. acoustic waves.
b. ultrasonic waves.
c. applied stress.
d. the kaiser effect.

A

c. applied stress.

71
Q
  1. Leak testing techniques include all but which of the following?

a. Bubble.
b. Airborne ultrasonic.
c. Mass migration.
d. Halogen detector.

A

c. Mass migration.

72
Q
  1. Leak testing is commonly applied to prevent all but which of the following?

a. The loss of costly materials or energy.
b. Contamination of the environment.
c. Regulating the amount of fluid released into a system.
d. A fire or explosion.

A

c. Regulating the amount of fluid released into a system.

73
Q
  1. Holography and shearography both use_______ to produce a test signal.

a. direct laser light.
b. refracted laser light.
c. a beam splitter to create an optical path.
d. the destructive interference of laser light.

A

d. the destructive interference of laser light.

74
Q
  1. Shearography and holography based on relative strain provide:

a. indirect measurements of discontinuities.
b. direct measurements of discontinuities.
c. out-of-plane X-axis deformation.
d. strain as a function of time.

A

b. direct measurements of discontinuities.

75
Q
  1. During vibration analysis, multiple data sets are collected and analyzed to monitor for a change in acoustic signature over time. This is referred to as:

a. fast fourier analysis.
b. mechanical analysis.
c. electrical analysis.
d. trending analysis.

A

d. trending analysis.

76
Q
  1. Three amplitude types are used in evaluating a
    vibration signal: displacement, velocity, o.nd:

a. frequency.
b. transient.
c. acceleration.
d. sinusoidal.

A

c. acceleration.

NDT (26 decks)

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