cargar de 400 a 483

Question 1

401. Which welding process is depicted in Figure 7.4?

(A) Electron-beam welding.
(B) Ultrasonic welding.
(C) Plasma arc welding.
(D) Resistance spot welding.
(E) Friction welding.

Answer 1

(D) Resistance spot welding.

Question 2

402. A welding process that is most frequently carried out in a vacuum chamber is:

(A) plasma arc welding.
(B) electron-beam welding.
(C) electroslag welding.
(D) friction welding.
(E) none of the above.

Answer 2

(B) electron-beam welding.

Question 3

403. The welding process capable of very high intensity and rate of heat transfer is:

(A) braze welding.
(B) plasma arc welding.
(C) diffusion welding.
(D) soldering.

Answer 3

(B) plasma arc welding.

Question 4

404. The welding process in which the arc is extinguished after melting a slag cover and in which the base metal and copper slides form a sort of moving mold is called:

(A) electroslag welding.
(B) submerged arc welding.
(C) electron-beam welding.
(D) slag-mold welding.

Answer 4

(A) electroslag welding.

Question 5

405. In the process of diffusion welding- often called diffusion bonding- the base metal is joined by:

(A) melting the weld joint area with strip heaters.
(B) using high temperature adhesives.
(C) putting it under pressure- at temperatures below the melting point.
(D) the heat of frictional movement between the surfaces to be joined.
(E) detonating explosives covering the Materials to be joined.

Answer 5

(C) putting it under pressure- at temperatures below the melting point.

Question 6

406. What type of weld joint is depicted in Figure 7.5?

(A) Butt joint.
(B) Tee joint.
(C) Lap joint.
(D) Corner joint.
(E) Edge joint.

Answer 6

(D) Corner joint.

Question 7

407. What type of weld joint preparation is shown in Figure 7.6?

(A) J-groove.
(B) Double J-groove.
(C) U-groove.
(D) Cup groove.
(E) Buttress groove.

Answer 7

(C) U-groove.

Question 8

408. In Figure 7.7- which sketch contains an incorrect welding symbol with respect to the weld joint shown?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

Answer 8

(A) A

Question 9

409. A slag inclusion can result from which of the following?

(A) Small pieces of tungsten being dislodged from the electrode in the gas tungsten arc process.
(B) Insufficient cleaning of successive passes in a multipass weldment.
(C) Excessive undercut on intermediate passes in a multipass weldment.
(D) All of the above.
(E) Only b and c.

Answer 9

(E) Only b and c.

Question 10

410. Undercut on a weld pass is usually caused by:

(A) poor operator technique.
(B) a rate of travel that is too slow- which causes the base metal to become too hot.
(C) the use of an electrode that is too large for the current capacity of the welding machine.
(D) all of the above.
(E) only b and c.

Answer 10

(A) poor operator technique.

Question 11

411. Crater cracks may take the form of a single crack or star-shaped cracks and will usually be found:

(A) by magnetic particle techniques since crater cracks are always subsurface.
(B) anywhere along a weld where the welding was stopped and restarted.
(C) in the natural crater formed between the two plates in a typical fillet weld.
(D) in the root area of a multiple pass weld where the weld metal failed to flow completely into the root opening.

Answer 11

(B) anywhere along a weld where the welding was stopped and restarted.

Question 12

412. The principal purpose of pre-heat treatment and post-heat treatment in welds is to:

(A) reduce the probability of formation of porosity in the weld.
(B) neutralize residual stresses and geometric distortion.
(C) create grains in the weld that are the same as those in the base metal.
(D) cause the weld ripple and reinforcement to blend into the base metal.

Answer 12

(B) neutralize residual stresses and geometric distortion.

Question 13

413. In welding- the most obvious defects are those associated with structural discontinuities in the weld itself. Other conditions that can also be considered as defects are:

(A) improper weld dimensions and profiles.
(B) base metal irregularities that have been enlarged by welding stresses and distortion.
(C) structurally sound welds- but those with inadequate properties caused by errors in filler metal selection.
(D) both a and c.
(E) all of the above.

Answer 13

(E) todas las anteriores.

Question 14

414. If the V-groove weld shown in Figure 7.8 was made in multiple passes and not clamped or restrained- typical warping would take place in which direction?

(A) Edges A and B would be lowered due to the expansion of the weld metal in the weld zone.
(B) Edges A and B would be raised due to the contraction of the weld metal.
(C) In a multipass weld- there would be little if any warpage.
(D) Expansion and contraction would be equal in a V-groove weld as shown.

Answer 14

(B) Edges A and B would be raised due to the contraction of the weld metal.

Question 15

415. Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which three types?

(A) Shallow- deep- and intermittent.
(B) Longitudinal- transverse- and crater.
(C) Laminar- through- and oblique.
(D) Longitudinal- laminar- and intermittent.

Answer 15

(B) Longitudinal- transverse- and crater.

Question 16

416. Thermal conductivity of a metal is an important factor to consider in making quality weldments because:

(A) some metals- such as aluminum- have a low conductivity- which results in weld defects due to localized heat build-up.
(B) some metals- such as stainless steel- have a high conductivity- which results in lack of fusion defects as the heat is quickly removed from the weld zone.
(C) in some metals- such as aluminum- very high temperature gradients are produced- causing stresses during cooling.
(D) all of the above.
(E) none of the above.

Answer 16

(E) none of the above.

Question 17

417. Deformation of metals provides a number of advantages. Which of the following is not an advantage?

(A) Deformation processes increase the probability of defect formation.
(B) High duplication accuracy results from most deformation processes.
(C) In general- the properties of wrought metals are improved over their cast counterparts.
(D) Thin sections can be more economically and more successfully produced than by casting.

Answer 17

(A) Deformation processes increase the probability of defect formation.

Question 18

418. Among other things- the advantageous effects of recrystallization depend upon:

(A) the rate of deformation.
(B) the temperature at which deformation takes place.
(C) the presence of carbon in excess of 2.5% for steels.
(D) all of the above.
(E) both a and b.

Answer 18

(E) both a and b.

Question 19

419. Wrought products invariably exhibit:

(A) high susceptibility to corrosion.
(B) lower strength than their cast counterparts.
(C) directional properties.
(D) poor weldability.
(E) poor surface finishes unless machined.

Answer 19

(C) directional properties.

Question 20

420. During the steel-making process- a large number of faults such as slag- porosity- and shrinkage cavities exist in the top of the ingot. These discontinuities are:

(A) mostly eliminated in subsequent hot working due to the pressure that “welds” the void shut.
(B) located with NDT techniques at later stages of production.
(C) almost nonexistent with modem steel-making processes.
(D) removed by cropping up to one-third off the top of the ingot.

Answer 20

(D) removed by cropping up to one-third off the top of the ingot.

Question 21

421. Discontinuities with their origin in the original ingot can be reduced in severity by the closing and welding of voids and the breaking up and elongation of inclusions by which of the following processes?

(A) Cold working.
(B) Hot working.
(C) Heat treatment.
(D) Welding.

Answer 21

(B) Hot working.

Question 22

422. Which of the following would have the least ductility?

(A) Cold rolled steel plate.
(B) Hot rolled steel plate.
(C) Gray cast iron.
(D) Hot rolled aluminum plate.

Answer 22

(C) Gray cast iron.

Question 23

423. A NDT technique best suited to locating discontinuities caused by inclusions rolled into steel plate is:

(A) radiographic inspection.
(B) ultrasonic inspection.
(C) visual inspection.
(D) magnetic particle inspection.

Answer 23

(B) ultrasonic inspection.

Question 24

424. Which of the following statements is true concerning deformation processes?

(A) Hot working usually follows cold working.
(B) Hot working must be followed by heat treatment.
(C) Hot worked materials must be cold worked before they can be used.
(D) Cold working usually follows hot working.
(E) Cold working renders brittle material more ductile.

Answer 24

(D) Cold working usually follows hot working.

Question 25

425. Machinability and fatigue resistance are improved in most metals that have been:

(A) hot worked.
(B) cold worked.
(C) heat treated.
(D) cast.

Answer 25

(B) cold worked.

Question 26

426. NDT is often used just following hot and cold working operations to:

(A) assure that further operations are not performed on material that contains defects that could reject the manufactured part.
(B) determine that defects do not exist in the material that could damage the rolling mills and other equipment.
(C) determine the ductility of the material after the rolling operation is complete.
(D) accurately determine the compressive strength of the material after it passes through the rolling mill.

Answer 26

(A) assure that further operations are not performed on material that contains defects that could reject the manufactured part.

Question 27

427. Slabs- blooms- and billets are:

(A) the three consecutive stages that the metal goes through during the production of products such as angle iron and channel iron.
(B) the shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a variety of secondary operations.
(C) types of defects that occur during the hot rolling of steel.
(D) the three different shapes produced during typical cold rolling operations.

Answer 27

(B) the shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a variety of secondary operations.

Question 28

428. Cold rolling sheet steel usually begins with a material that:

(A) has been completely inspected with an automated radiography system.
(B) has been previously hot-rolled to dimensions close to the size of the finished product.
(C) has less ductility and greater hardness than typical hot rolled steel.
(D) will have a lower yield and tensile strength after cold working.

Answer 28

(B) has been previously hot-rolled to dimensions close to the size of the finished product.

Question 29

429. Before cold finishing operations can be done on hot rolled materials- cleaning is often done by immersing the hot-rolled material in acid baths in a process called:

(A) degreasing.
(B) descaling.
(C) anodizing.
(D) pickling.
(E) galvanizing.

Answer 29

(D) pickling.

Question 30

430. The millworking process performed principally on flat products and bars that improves hardness- strength- surface finish- and dimensional accuracy is:

(A) cold rolling.
(B) hot rolling.
(C) forging.
(D) extrusion.
(E) sintering.

Answer 30

(A) cold rolling.

Question 31

431. Most steel pipe is produced by forming and:

(A) drawing.
(B) welding.
(C) extrusión.
(D) casting.
(E) pressing.

Answer 31

(B) welding.

Question 32

432. Most seamless tubing made without welds is processed by:

(A) brazing
(B) forging.
(C) casting.
(D) piercing.
(E) cold rolling.

Answer 32

(D) piercing.

Question 33

433. A process that requires the use of large powerful equipment that forms ductile material into a wide variety of long length uniform cross sectional shapes best describes:

(A) die casting.
(B) forging.
(C) powder metallurgy.
(D) extrusion.

Answer 33

(D) extrusion.

Question 34

434. The millworking process used most to form metals into three-dimensional shapes is:

(A) casting.
(B) cold rolling.
(C) welding.
(D) forging.

Answer 34

(D) forging.

Question 35

435. Which of the following product forms is generally selected for high strength and controlled property directionality?

(A) Castings.
(B) Extrusions.
(C) Hot-rolled flat stock.
(D) Forgings.
(E) None of the above.

Answer 35

(D) Forgings.

Question 36

436. Powder metallurgy provides two unique advantages in metals processing. One is the capability to produce shapes and objects of refractory metals that are extremely difficult or impractical to melt; the other is to:

(A) economically produce metals with extremely low melting temperatures.
(B) produce metal shapes with controlled porosity.
(C) produce metals that can be easily machined by electrochemical processes.
(D) produce metals that are corrosion resistant.

Answer 36

(B) produce metal shapes with controlled porosity. ·

Question 37

437. A major purpose of pressing the metal powders during powder metallurgy processing is to:
     (A) squeeze out excess moisture.
     (B) further refine the grains.
     (C) compact the powders into mechanical and atomic closeness.
     (D) provide all of the above.

Answer 37

(C) compact the powders into mechanical and atomic closeness.

Question 38

438. In the powder metallurgy process- sintering is:

(A) in most cases- a fully solid-state process.
(B) never a fully solid-state process.
(C) principally done at room temperature.
(D) always done at elevated temperature and high pressure.

Answer 38

(A) in most cases- a fully solid-state process.

Question 39

439. Powdered metallurgy products cannot:

(A) be hot worked after sintering.
(B) be heat treated after sintering.
(C) be machined after sintering.
(D) attain 100% of theoretical density.
(E) be subjected to any of the processes mentioned above.

Answer 39

(D) attain 100% of theoretical density.

Question 40

440. Which of the following is an application for powdered metal products?

(A) Cemented carbide cutting tools and dies.
(B) Tungsten rocket nozzles.
(C) Oil-impregnated bushings.
(D) Both b and c are applications.
(E) All of the above are applications.

Answer 40

(E) All of the above are applications.

Question 41

441. Which of the following terms describe operations that bend- stretch- and shape sheet metals into three-dimensional shapes without significant plastic flow and deformation?

(A) Bending.
(B) Forming.
(C) Drawing.
(D) Only a and b.
(E) All of the above.

Answer 41

(E) All of the above.

Question 42

442. In drawing and deep drawing- the final shape often can be completed in a series of draws- each successively deeper. What process performed between draws might effectively reduce the number of draws required?

(A) Recrystallization.
(B) Pickling.
(C) Etching.
(D) Hardening heat treatment.
(E) Hot rolling.

Answer 42

(A) Recrystallization.

Question 43

443. Spinning can be used to form:

(A) spherical tank halves.
(B) cemented carbide cutting tools.
(C) crane hooks.
(D) rectangular sheet metal tanks.
(E) solid spheres.

Answer 43

(A) spherical tank halves.

Question 44

444. Most new developments in sheet metal forming typically use nonconventional energy sources. What is a common feature of these processes?

(A) The use of lasers for controlled heat input.
(B) The use of cryogenics to super-cool the metal prior to forming.
(C) The use of energy sources that release large amounts of energy in a very short time.
(D) The use of large autoclaves that contain both the tooling and the metal being formed.

Answer 44

(C) The use of energy sources that release large amounts of energy in a very short time.

Question 45

445. Machines designed to hold a cutting tool and a workpiece and establish a suitable set of motions between them to remove material from the workpiece are called:

(A) mill-working machines.
(B) factory machines.
(C) machine tools.
(D) metal-cutting machines.

Answer 45

(C) machine tools.

Question 46

446. In describing machinability- three different measurements are generally considered on a relative- if not quantitative- basis. These are:

(A) shear- tensile- and impact strength of the material being machined.
(B) surface finish of the material achievable- power consumption required to remove a given volume of material- and expected tool life.
(C) softness of the material- sharpness of the cutting tool- and type of machine used to remove the material.
(D) volume of material before machining- volume of material after machining- and time required to remove that volume.

Answer 46

(B) surface finish of the material achievable- power consumption required to remove a given volume of material- and expected tool life.

Question 47

447. When used with respect to machine tools- the acronym N/C means:

(A) nonmetal cutters.
(B) noncorrosive coolant.
(C) numerical control.
(D) nonconventional.
(E) negative clearance.

Answer 47

(C) numerical control.

Question 48

448. Which of the following can result in economical set-up and reduced machine time with an increase in repeatability and accuracy for a variety of machining operations?

(A) The use of NDT to evaluate the finished product.
(B) The use of electrical discharge machining to replace the conventional lathes and surface grinders.
(C) The use of modem ultrasonic machining operations.
(D) The use of numerical control systems applied to conventional types of machining operations.

Answer 48

(D) The use of numerical control systems applied to conventional types of machining operations.

Question 49

449. Which of the following statements is true regarding plastics processing?

(A) Unlike metals- plastics must be processed without the addition of heat.
(B) Both thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics may be processed by molding- casting- and extrusion.
(C) All plastics molding processes use liquid-state materials introduced into the mold cavity.
(D) Injection molding can be done only with thermosetting materials.

Answer 49

(B) Both thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics may be processed by molding- casting- and extrusion.

Question 50

450. Reinforced plastics molding involves use of:

(A) thermosetting plastics and fibrous reinforcement materials.
(B) thermosetting plastics and metallic powder reinforcement.
(C) thermoplastics and wood fiber reinforcement materials.
(D) thermoplastics and metallic powder reinforcement.

Answer 50

(A) thermosetting plastics and fibrous reinforcement materials.

Question 51

451. The mechanism of adhesion combines mechanical interlocking and:

(A) stickiness of the adhesive.
(B) roughness of the adherends.
(C) dynamic mechanical forces.
(D) interatomic forces.
(E) all of the above.

Answer 51

(D) interatomic forces.

Question 52

452. Which of the following statements is true concerning composite materials?

(A) Composite materials include combinations of nonmetallic materials only.
(B) When composite materials are cured- the constituents lose their original identity and form chemical compounds with one another.
(C) A unique feature of composite materials is that their tensile strength frequently exceeds the strength of the strongest constituent.
(D) Composites are usually formed into complex three-dimensional shapes with each dimension approximately equal to the other two.
(E) None of the above statements are true.

Answer 52

(E) None of the above statements are true.

Question 53

453. Which of the following statements is true concerning honeycomb?

(A) Nonmetallic honeycomb derives high strength and rigidity from a structural combination of relatively weak- thin- lightweight materials.
(B) In honeycomb- the walls of the cellular core material are aligned parallel with the plane of the face sheets.
(C) All-metallic honeycomb can be bonded by adhesives- brazing- or diffusion welding- but honeycomb containing nonmetallic elements can be bonded only by adhesives.
(D) Both a and b are true.
(E) Both a and c are true.

Answer 53

(E) Both a and c are true.

Question 54

454. The major difference between materials classified as composites and those classified as mixtures is that:

(A) mixtures are a type of composite with random orientation and shape of the constituents.
(B) composites contain metallic constituents and mixtures are nonmetallic.
(C) mixtures start as liquids blended together and composites start as solids.
(D) mixtures are elastomeric- while composites are characterized as having at least one plastic component.

Answer 54

(A) mixtures are a type of composite with random orientation and shape of the constituents.

Question 55

455. The acronym EDM refers to:

(A) engineering design materials.
(B) energy discharge machines.
(C) electro-dynamic machining.
(D) electrical discharge machining.
(E) elastomeric/diatomic mixture.

Answer 55

(D) electrical discharge machining.

Question 56

456. The process used for shaping metals by chemical dissolution only- with selective removal accomplished by masking areas where metal is not to be removed- is called:

(A) electrical discharge machining.
(B) chemical milling.
(C) electrochemical machining.
(D) electroforming.
(E) none of the above.

Answer 56

(B) chemical milling.

Question 57

457. Figure 7.9 illustrates:

(A) chemical milling.
(B) electrochemical machining.
(C) ultrasonic machining.
(D) vapor honing.
(E) electrolytic grinding.

Answer 57

(B) electrochemical machining.

Question 58

458. The process illustrated in Figure 7.10 is called:

(A) electrical discharge machining.
(B) ultrasonic machining.
(C) chemical milling.
(D) electrochemical machining.
(E) abrasive drilling.

Answer 58

(B) ultrasonic machining.

Question 59

459. A process that is the reverse of electrochemical machining and that is the basis for electroplating is called:

(A) chemical milling.
(B) electrical discharge machining.
(C) electroforming.
(D) magnetoforming.

Answer 59

(C) electroforming.

Question 60

460. A cutting operation that has the ability to cut through thicknesses of over 0.9 m (3 ft) of steel and is commonly used to remove surface defects on castings and forgings by “scarfing” is called:

(A) friction cutting.
(B) oxyacetylene cutting.
(C) ultrasonic cutting.
(D) gas metal arc cutting.
(E) plasma arc cutting.

Answer 60

(B) oxyacetylene cutting.

Question 61

461. Which of the following statements is not true concerning surface finishing?

(A) Cleaning operations are considered to be surface finishing processes.
(B) Surface finishing is often performed for corrosion protection.
(C) Surface finishing is not typically followed by further processes.
(D) Surface finishing is sometimes performed to improve surface and near-surface mechanical properties.

Answer 61

(C) Surface finishing is not typically followed by further processes.

Question 62

462. Carburizing and flame hardening are examples of:

(A) annealing processes.
(B) casehardening processes.
(C) processes that produce ductile surfaces.
(D) electrochemical processes.

Answer 62

(B) casehardening processes.

Question 63

463. Which of the following nondestructive tests would provide the best results in measuring the case depth on a case hardened part?

(A) Ultrasonic immersion testing using a very low frequency probe.
(B) Radiography.
(C) Eddy current.
(D) Magnetic particle.
(E) All of the above could provide case depth measurements.

Answer 63

(C) Eddy current.

Question 64

464. Coatings are often applied to protect a material; their thickness can frequently be determined nondestructively by:
     (A) acoustic emission.
     (B) eddy current.
     (C) surface wave ultrasonic techniques.
     (D) optical holography.

Answer 64

(B) eddy current.

Question 65

465. The best and most economical cleaners used for removal of oils and greases are:

(A) pickling baths.
(B) deionized water sprays.
(C) wire brushes and cloth buffers.
(D) petroleum solvents.

Answer 65

(D) petroleum solvents.

Question 66

466. Some materials- such as aluminum- are corrosion resistant:

(A) by virtue of the immediate oxidation of newly exposed surfaces.
(B) only if anodized.
(C) because the material itself will not readily combine with oxygen.
(D) against all types of corrosive atmospheres.

Answer 66

(A) by virtue of the immediate oxidation of newly exposed surfaces.

Question 67

467. An advantage of electrostatic spraying is that:

(A) the material being sprayed is directly attracted to all of the surfaces to be covered.
(B) there is less waste due to over-sprayed material.
(C) there is more uniform coverage of the surfaces.
(D) both a and c.
(E) all of the above.

Answer 67

(E) all of the above.

Question 68

468. A corrosion protection material commonly applied to steel by hot dipping and galvanizing is:

(A) porcelain.
(B) copper.
(C) paint.
(D) zinc.
(E) chromic acid.

Answer 68

(D) zinc.

Question 69

469. Metals commonly applied to other metals by electroplating are:

(A) nickel- chromium- and cadmium.
(B) tin- zinc- and tungsten.
(C) silver- gold- and carbon.
(D) copper- aluminum- and magnesium.
(E) both a and d.

Answer 69

(A) nickel- chromium- and cadmium.

Question 70

470. A process that converts the base metal surface to an oxidized barrier layer of very small porous cells is called:

(A) galvanizing.
(B) plating.
(C) anodizing.
(D) metallizing.

Answer 70

(C) anodizing.

Question 71

471. The anodized surface on aluminum:

(A) can produce a high background during a penetrant test.
(B) is very dense and makes X-ray penetration difficult.
(C) can produce cracks that are easily detected by eddy current testing techniques.
(D) must be removed before performing ultrasonic tests.
(E) can apply to all of the above.

Answer 71

(A) can produce a high background during a penetrant test.

Question 72

472. A technique for the inspection of manufactured products that utilizes the selection of a certain percentage of parts for inspection is called:

(A) standard deviation.
(B) random sampling.
(C) consumer risk curve.
(D) natural selection.
(E) analysis of variance.

Answer 72

(B) random sampling.

Question 73

473. Implied in sampling inspection is:

(A) that the chosen plan will produce precise numbers of acceptable parts.
(B) the need for a sample size of 100 units or multiples thereof.
(C) a willingness to sometimes accept defective products.
(D) the need to collect data in the form of variables instead of attributes.

Answer 73

(C) a willingness to sometimes accept defective products.

Question 74

474. On the operating characteristic curve shown in Figure 7.11: Lot Fraction Defective

(A) the line P2 indicates that in the given sample- four parts were found to be defective.
(B) the line P1 indicates that if the lot being inspected had 1% defectives- there is a 6% probability that this plan would reject the lot.
(C) the lot fraction defective cannot exceed 6%.
(D) there is a 10% probability of accepting a 1 % defective lot.

Answer 74

(B) the line P1 indicates that if the lot being inspected had 1% defectives- there is a 6% probability that this plan would reject the lot.

Question 75

475. A process control chart based on the means and ranges of measurements taken on periodic samples requires the measurement to be taken of:

(A) attributes.
(B) variables.
(C) either attributes or variables.
(D) neither attributes nor variables.

Answer 75

(B) variables.

Question 76

476. Frequently- dimensions are permitted to vary within specified limits. These variations are called:

(A) variances.
(B) fudge factors.
(C) absolute dimensions.
(D) factors of safety.
(E) tolerances.

Answer 76

(E) tolerances.

Question 77

477. Measurements are classified as being either:

(A) comparative or absolute.
(B) comparative or dimensional.
(C) general or specific.
(D) dimensional or angular.
(E) microscopic or macroscopic.

Answer 77

(A) comparative or absolute.

Question 78

478. A vernier measurement permits:

(A) accurate interpolation between major divisions on a measuring device.
(B) measurements to be accurate within 0.03 mm (0.001 in.).
(C) extending the length of a measurement scale by ten times.
(D) measurements to be traced to the National Bureau of Standards.

Answer 78

(A) accurate interpolation between major divisions on a measuring device.

Question 79

479. Indicating gages are usually used in applications that provide:

(A) absolute measurements.
(B) comparative measurements.
(C) long linear measurements.
(D) reflected or projected images of the workpiece.

Answer 79

(B) comparative measurements.

Question 80

480. Which of the following measurement tools uses the principle of light wave interference to check surface flatness?

(A) Optical comparator.
(B) Vernier caliper.
(C) Optical Flat.
(D) Go/no go gage.
(E) None of the above.

Answer 80

(C) Optical Flat.

Question 81

481. Gages such as plug gages- ring gages- go/no go gages- profile gages- thread gages- radius gages- etc.- are all types of:

(A) variable measurement tools.
(B) absolute gages.
(C) optical gages.
(D) fixed gages.

Answer 81

(D) fixed gages.

Question 82

482. Devices that show magnified reflected or profile images of the work piece on a frosted glass screen are called:

(A) optical comparators.
(B) optical flats.
(C) optical projectors.
(D) optical micrometers.
(E) optical gages.

Answer 82

(A) optical comparators.

Question 83

483. Which of the following measurement tools uses the principle of light wave interference to check surface flatness?

(A) Optical comparator.
(B) Vernier caliper.
(C) Sine bar.
(D) Go/no go gage.
(E) None of the above.

Answer 83

(E) None of the above.