cap 12 Materiales Flashcards
aprender (100 cards)
1
Q
- The oldest and most common NDT method is:
a. Magnetic particle testing.
b. radiographic testing.
c. visual testing.
d. liquid penetrant testing.
A
c. visual testing.
2
Q
- Visible light comes in the form of electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths in which of the following ranges?
a. 200 to 380 nm.
b. 380 to 780 nm.
c. 780 to 900 nm.
d. 840 to 950 nm.
A
b. 380 to 780 nm.
3
Q
- The intensity of visible light upon a surface area at a given angle as observed by the human eye is measured in:
a. lumens per square meter or lux.
b. brightness.
c. contrast.
d. watts.
A
a. lumens per square meter or lux.
4
Q
- The first NDT method typically applied to any object that is being inspected is:
a. electromagnetic testing.
b. visual testing.
c. liquid penetrant testing.
d. magnetic particle testing.
A
b. visual testing.
5
Q
- Proper lighting conditions are important for many NDT methods, and the purpose of lighting during visual testing is to provide adequate____________so that relevant discontinuities may be detected.
a. lighting
b. illumination
c. definition
d. contrast
A
d. contrast
6
Q
- During visual testing as the contrast ratio, illuminance, and magnification increase, the probability of detection wil
a. decrease.
b. increase.
c. even out.
d. remain the same.
A
b. increase.
7
Q
- Image quality during visual testing is based on all but which of the following factors?
a. Contrast.
b. Distortion.
c. Volume.
d. Artifacts.
A
c. Volume.
8
Q
- When light strikes the surface of an object being
visually tested, the angle of incidence is________the angle of reflection.
a. greater than
b. less than
c. equal to
d. unrelated to
A
c. equal to
9
Q
- The key component in visual testing is:
a. the light source.
b. the inspector.
c. environmental conditions.
d. the inspector’s visual acuity.
A
d. the inspector’s visual acuity.
10
Q
- Visual testing techniques are divided into which two of the following major categories?
a. Manual and automated.
b. Direct and indirect.
c. Local and remote.
d. Required and optional.
A
b. Direct and indirect.
11
Q
- When performing visual testing, viewing conditions such as illumination, allowable viewing angle, and maximum viewing distance are often:
a. left up to the inspector experience and discretion.
b. general rules of thumb.
c. mandated by codes and specifications.
d. purposely left out of procedures.
A
c. mandated by codes and specifications.
12
Q
- The end of the borescope that is nearest the specimen is known as the:
a. lens.
b. mirror.
c. focus.
d. distal tip.
A
d. distal tip.
13
Q
- The most common magnification power produced by a magnifying glass in visual testing is:
a. 2x.
b. 5x.
c. 10x.
d. 25x.
A
b. 5x.
14
Q
- Stereo, shadow, structured light, and_______ are the four techniques used by visual aids for characterizing the shape, orientation, and size of a feature.
a. direct comparison
b. reverse imaging
c. inverse proportioning
d. direct proportioning
A
a. direct comparison
15
Q
- A visual aid technique that uses a reference dimension that is observed in the same frame and focal distance to compare the relative sizes of the target and the reference is known as:
a. two-dimensional measurement.
b. direct comparison.
c. use of structured light.
d. stereo technique.
A
b. direct comparison.
16
Q
- A visual aid technique that uses a prism to divide the optical path into two, and when these paths converge on the target at a known angle, triangulation and computer vision calculations facilitate accurate dimensions. is known as:
a. two-dimensional measurement.
b. direct comparison.
c. use of structured light.
d. stereo technique.
A
d. stereo technique.
17
Q
- A visual aid technique that uses a shadow measurement probe to project a shadow onto the target surface, and then triangulation and computer vision calculations are used to determine dimensions, is known as:
a. two-dimensional measurement.
b. direct comparison.
c. use of structured light.
d. stereo technique.
A
a. two-dimensional measurement.
18
Q
- A visual aid technique that uses three-dimensional phase vision scanners sequentially projecting multiple light patterns onto a target surface, and then distortions in the observed pattern are used to calculate a three-dimensional map of the surface, is known as:
a. two-dimensional measurement.
b. direct comparison.
c. use of structured light.
d. stereo technique.
A
c. use of structured light.
19
Q
- Liquid penetrant testing is a powerful method for detecting surface-breaking discontinuities and through-thickness leak paths in what type of material?
a. Unglazed material.
b. Nonporous material.
c. Fibrous material.
d. Laminated material.
A
b. Nonporous material.
20
Q
- The ultraviolet spectrum is commonly divided into three regions: UV-C, UV-B, and UV-A. The wavelength for UV-A ranges from:
a. 100 to 280 nm.
b. 280 to 315 nm.
c. 315 to 400 nm.
d. 380 to 780 nm.
A
c. 315 to 400 nm.
21
Q
- Ultraviolet radiation exposure presents a measurable health risk, including a chance of all but which of the following?
a. Cataracts.
b. Retinal burns.
c. Skin cancer.
d. Ocular fluorescence.
A
d. Ocular fluorescence.
22
Q
- The low-temperature emission of light from a substance caused by electronic excitation of a molecule is referred to as:
a. fluorescence.
b. luminescence.
c. photo emissivity.
d. radiance.
A
b. luminescence.
23
Q
- Most modern fluorescent penetrants contain at least two different fluorophores, which produce a much brighter indication than is possible when only one fluorophore is used. This brighter indication is caused by the:
a. amplification effect.
b. multiple phosphor effect.
c. cascade effect.
d. fluorescent effect.
A
c. cascade effect.
24
Q
- The liquid penetrant testing process consists of____ basic steps regardless of the type of penetrant and removal method.
a. three
b. five
c. six
d. eight
A
c. six
25
25. When performing a liquid penetrant test, precleaning of the surfaces to be inspected is important for all but which of the following reasons?
a. Proper wetting of the test surfaces by the penetrant.
b. Proper drying of the test surfaces by warm air.
c. Entry of the penetrant into discontinuities.
d. The subsequent bleed-out of penetrant from discontinuities.
b. Proper drying of the test surfaces by warm air.
26
26. The importance of drying a test object after cleaning cannot be overemphasized because:
a. liquids that remain trapped in discontinuities will displace penetrant.
b. dry test objects allow the developer to evaporate more quickly.
c. the surfaces of dry test objects are more porous.
d. the surfaces of dry test objects are less porous.
a. liquids that remain trapped in discontinuities will displace penetrant.
27
27. Fluorescent penetrants that are exposed to excessive drying times or temperatures will exhibit:
a. improved luminescence.
b. greater concentration.
c. heat fade.
d. temperature sensitivity.
c. heat fade.
28
28. The ratio of photons absorbed versus photons remitted that determine the brightness of a fluorescent dye is referred to as the____________ of the dye.
a. brightness ratio
b. luminescence ratio
c. concentration
d. quantum yield
d. quantum yield
29
29. The action of a penetrant entering a surface-breaking discontinuity is referred to as:
a. wetting action.
b. capillary action.
c. filling action.
d. crevice weep.
b. capillary action.
30
30. The contact angle made between a drop of liquid and the target surface is used to describe which property of a liquid penetrant?
a. Dew point.
b. Moisture content.
c. Surface wetting.
d. Viscosity.
c. Surface wetting.
31
31. A penetrant that exhibits both color contrast and fluorescence is classified as which of the following?
a. Type I.
b. Type II.
c. Type III.
d. Type IV.
c. Type III.
32
32. A penetrant that can be subdivided into levels of sensitivity in SAE or ASTM standards is known as which of the following?
a. Type I.
b. Type II.
c. Type III.
d. Type IV.
a. Type I.
33
33. A penetrant that is based on a color contrast existing between the penetrant and the developer is classified as which of the following?
a. Type I.
b. Type II.
c. Type III.
d. Type IV.
b. Type II.
34
34. Liquid penetrants may also be classified by the type of post-dwell removal technique. These techniques are either pre- or post-:
a. lipophilic.
b. hydrophilic.
c. emulsifiable.
d. removable.
c. emulsifiable.
35
35. A penetrant system is typically made up of a penetrant, a remover, and a developer. Which of the following describes a developer in accordance with ASTM E 1417 or SAE AMS 2644?
a. Type I.
b. Method D.
c. Class 3.
d. Form E.
d. Form E.
36
36. Fluorescent penetrants will exhibit their peak excitation (brightness) between which of the following ultraviolet wavelength ranges?
a. 100 and 280 nm.
b. 280 and 362 nm.
c. 362 and 371 nm.
d. 380 and 780 nm.
c. 362 and 371 nm.
37
37. A radiometer is used in liquid penetrant testing
to measure:
a. radiation.
b. radio waves.
c. white light.
d. ultraviolet light.
d. ultraviolet light.
38
38. A luxmeter is used in liquid penetrant testing to
measure:
a. radiation.
b. radio waves.
c. white light.
d. ultraviolet light.
c. white light.
39
39. Visual background noise that occurs when
UV-A reaches the inspector's eyes, causing intraocular veiling glare, can be eliminated with the use of:
a. properly filtered inspection lamps.
b. long-pass filtering glasses.
c. shade 2 safety glasses.
d. red-tinted safety glasses.
b. long-pass filtering glasses.
40
40. Penetrant systems required some type of in-process monitoring to ensure the effectiveness of the system. Which of the following is not used to monitor penetrant effectiveness?
a. Quench-cracked aluminum block.
b. TAM panels.
c. Twin nickel-chrome panels.
d. Boron carbide test panels.
d. Boron carbide test panels.
41
41. A limiting factor for liquid penetrant testing is that it is only capable of detecting:
a. shrinkage and porosity.
b. cracks and inclusions.
c. surface-breaking discontinuities.
d. subsurface discontinuities .
c. surface-breaking discontinuities.
42
42. Magnetic particle testing is primarily performed on______ materials to locate surface and near-surface discontinuities.
a. ferromagnetic
b. paramagnetic
c. diamagnetic
d. nonferrous
a. ferromagnetic
43
43. Discontinuities are the strongest when the magnetic lines of flux are oriented ________to the discontinuity.
a. 180°
b. 120°
c. 90°
d. 45°
c. 90°
44
44. The detectability of a discontinuity using magnetic particle testing depends primarily on its depth and:
a. length.
b. width.
c. magnetic flux strength.
d. orientation.
d. orientation.
45
45. The point at which ferromagnetic materials lose their potential for magnetization is called:
a. magnetization point.
b. demagnetization point.
c. curie temperature.
d. neutral point.
c. curie temperature.
46
46. Which of the following factors affect the penetration depth of a magnetic particle test?
a. Material permeability and magnetization waveform.
b. Magnetization waveform, particle color, and test equipment.
c. Thickness of any coatings, magnetization waveform, and particle application method.
d. Type of discontinuity sought and particle color.
a. Material permeability and magnetization waveform.
47
47. During magnetic particle testing, indications that are surface breaking will appear sharp and distinct while indications below the surface appear:
a. the same.
b. shorter.
c. more diffuse.
d. thicker.
c. more diffuse.
48
48. When performing a magnetic particle test through coatings such as paint or chrome, test sensitivity is not greatly reduced for thicknesses less than:
a. 0.025 mm.
b. 0.050 mm.
c. 0.076 mm.
d. 0.100 mm.
c. 0.076 mm.
49
49. The technique selected to perform a magnetic particle test is primarily based on the:
a. equipment available to perform the test.
b. size, depth, and orientation of discontinuity sought.
c. size and location of the test specimen.
d. type of particles used and the strength of the magnetic field.
b. size, depth, and orientation of discontinuity sought.
50
50. Magnetic particles may be either wet or dry and fluorescent or visible. All magnetic particles have
one thing in common and that is they are all made from_________.
a. paramagnetic material.
b. diamagnetic material.
c. nonferrous material.
d. ferromagnetic material.
d. ferromagnetic material.
51
51. Typical yellow-green fluorescent magnetic particles emit visible light with a wavelength of approximately:
a. 520 nm.
b. 480 nm.
c. 400 nm.
d. 320 nm.
a. 520 nm.
52
52. Wet bath magnetic particles are suspended in oil or a treated water bath, which must be constantly monitored to ensure:
a. correct particle distribution.
b. correct particle concentration.
c. correct particle color.
d. correct particle fluorescence.
b. correct particle concentration.
53
53. Each waveform used for magnetic particle testing has advantages and disadvantages. Alternating current works better for:
a. deep penetration on complex geometry.
b. shallow penetration on simple geometry.
c. deep penetration on simple geometry.
d. shallow penetration on complex geometry.
d. shallow penetration on complex geometry.
54
54. Each waveform used for magnetic particle testing has advantages and disadvantages. Direct current works better for:
a. deep penetration on complex geometry.
b. shallow penetration on simple geometry.
c. deep penetration on simple geometry.
d. shallow penetration on complex geometry.
c. deep penetration on simple geometry.
55
55. The directional relationship between flowing electrical current and the resultant magnetic field is known as:
a. a rule of thumb.
b. an electrical constant
c. the left-hand rule.
d. the right-hand rule.
d. the right-hand rule.
56
56. Circular magnetic fields used in magnetic particle testing are produced by:
a. placing the test object in a coil.
b. wrapping cables around the test object.
c. passing current directly through the test object.
d. placing the legs of the yoke approximately 15.24 cm (6 in.) apart.
c. passing current directly through the test object.
57
57. A head shot and an internal central conductor both produce what type of magnetic field in the test object?
a. Longitudinal.
b. Circular.
c. Direct.
d. Indirect.
b. Circular.
58
58. A coil and an electromagnetic yoke both produce what type of magnetic field in the test object?
a. Direct.
b. Indirect.
c. Longitudinal.
d. Circular.
c. Longitudinal.
59
59. The aspect ratio of a part to be magnetic particle tested utilizing a rigid five-turn coil is determined by which of the following formulas?
a. L/D x 5
b. (L/D)/5
c. 5 x L x D
d. L/D
d. L/D
60
60. Test objects that have aspect ratios less than_____ experience a decrease in the overall field strength in the part.
a. 5.5
b. 5
c. 3
d. 1
c. 3
61
61. The flux density of a magnetic particle testing yoke is inversely proportional to:
a. leg diameter.
b. leg length.
c. leg articulation.
d. leg spacing.
d. leg spacing.
62
62. The lifting capacity of an electromagnetic yoke is checked periodically, as it directly affects testing:
a. duration.
b. location.
c. configuration.
d. sensitivity.
d. sensitivity.
63
63. A magnetization technique that uses at least two independently variable power supplies triggering slightly out of sync with each other to impart magnetic flux that varies rapidly in orientation is called:
a. multidirectional.
b. induced current.
c. longitudinal.
d. circular.
a. multidirectional.
64
64. A magnetization technique utilized to inspect test specimens with very low aspect ratios (gears and bearing races) is referred to as:
a. longitudinal.
b. circular.
c. toroidal.
d. multidirectional.
c. toroidal.
65
65. The universally accepted tool for determining active and residual uniaxial magnetic field strength outside of the test object is a:
a. pie gauge.
b. berthold penetrameter.
c. pocket magnetometer.
d. hall effect probe.
d. hall effect probe.
66
66. Shared flux indicators, which use artificial discontinuities or gaps and are held in intimate contact with the test object, include all but which of the following?
a. Magnetic stripe cards.
b. Pie gauges.
c. flexible laminated strips.
d. Berthold penetrameters.
a. Magnetic stripe cards.
67
67. A powerful volumetric inspection method based on the propagation of acoustic waves is called:
a. radiography.
b. audiology.
c. ultrasonics.
d. Eddy current.
c. ultrasonics.
68
68. Audible sound in the range of human hearing has a frequency range of.
a. 20 to 2000 Hz.
b. 20 to 20 000 Hz.
c. 200 to 200 000 Hz.
d. 200 to 20 000 Hz.
b. 20 to 20 000 Hz.
69
69. Most ultrasonic testing is performed at a test frequency of:
a. 1.0 to 50 MHz.
b. 2.25 to 10.0 MHz.
c. 2.25 to 5.0 MHz.
d. 1.0 to 15 MHz.
d. 1.0 to 15 MHz.
70
70. Common modes of mechanical vibration (waves) in ultrasonic testing include all but which of the following?
a. Longitudinal.
b. Shear.
c. Fresnel.
d. Rayleigh.
c. Fresnel.
71
71. Compressional waves, which travel in the same direction as the atomic motion, are composed of compressions and:
a. decompressions.
b. rarefactions.
c. refractions.
d. deflections.
b. rarefactions.
72
72. The wavelength for all types of waves is directly proportional to acoustic velocity and inversely proportional to:
a. material density.
b. modulus of rigidity.
c. material homogeneity.
d. test frequency.
d. test frequency.
73
73. Each type of acoustic wave travels with a specific wave motion that can be influenced by the material it is traveling through. All but which of the following wave modes requires the material to have an appreciable shear modulus?
a. Longitudinal.
b. Shear.
c. Rayleigh.
d. Lamb.
a. Longitudinal.
74
74. Shear wave velocity is approximately what
percentage of compressional wave velocity?
a. 150%.
b. 90%.
c. 75%.
d. 50%.
d. 50%.
75
75. The most common type of transducer used in ultrasonic testing is:
a. electromagnetic.
b. piezoelectric.
c. magnetostrictive.
d. capacitive.
b. piezoelectric.
76
76. Piezoelectric transducers work on the principle
that:
a. if an electrical impulse is applied to the transducer a mechanical vibration occurs and if a mechanical vibration is applied an electrical impulse occurs.
b. if mechanical energy is applied to the transducer mechanical energy will in turn be released.
c. if electrical energy is applied to the transducer electrical energy will in turn be released.
d. either mechanical energy or electrical energy may be applied only to the exposed surface of a transducer crystal.
a. if an electrical impulse is applied to the transducer a mechanical vibration occurs and if a mechanical vibration is applied an electrical impulse occurs.
77
77. The central oscillation frequency of a transducer
is based on:
a. crystal material.
b. crystal diameter.
c. crystal type.
d. crystal thickness.
d. crystal thickness.
78
78. When a transducer vibrates, oscillations occur at points across the whole area of the face. Because the waves produced by each point source constructively and destructively interact, this area is known as the:
a. fraunhofer zone.
b. fresnel zone.
c. neutral zone.
d. congestión zone.
b. fresnel zone.
79
79. The point at which sound intensity from an ultrasonic transducer decreases in a predictable manner is known as the:
a. far field.
b. near field.
c. neutral región.
d. normal zone.
a. far field.
80
80. The primary purpose of a couplant used in
ultrasonic testing is to:
a. lubricate the inspection surface and the transducer crystal.
b. prevent crystal wear due to surface roughness.
c. remove air between the transducer and the
specimen.
d. increase the acoustic impedance of the test specimen.
c. remove air between the transducer and the
specimen.
81
81. Although the frequency of the transducer is generally marked on the case, this designation only represents the:
a. central frequency of the transducer.
b. sum of all frequencies present in the transducer.
c. average of all frequencies present in the transducer.
d. root mean square of all frequencies in the transducer.
a. central frequency of the transducer.
82
82. Attenuation is caused by scattering and absorption, and their effects vary with material properties and test frequency. Higher frequency energies offer:
a. better resolution and are harder to attenuate.
b. worse resolution and are easier to attenuate.
c. worse resolution and are harder to attenuate.
d. better resolution and are easier to attenuate.
d. better resolution and are easier to attenuate.
83
83. When sound encounters a boundary at an angle, both reflection and_______occur.
a. rarefaction
b. refraction
c. dispersión
d. attenuation
b. refraction
84
84. The angle of refraction may be calculated using
a mathematical formula known as:
a. triangulation.
b. Hamm's law.
c. Snell's law.
d. crystal diffraction.
c. Snell's law.
85
85. The angle at which only shear waves are produced in a test object is known as the:
a. shear wave angle.
b. first critical angle.
c. second critical angle.
d. compressional angle.
b. first critical angle.
86
86. The angle at which the shear wave is refracted at
90° is known as the:
a. shear wave angle.
b. first critical angle.
c. second critical angle.
d. compressional angle.
c. second critical angle.
87
87. Common wedge angles for conventional shear
wave inspection techniques include:
a. 30°,45°,and 75°.
b. 30°,45°,and 90°.
c, 45°,65°,and 75°.
d. 45°,60°,and 70°.
d. 45°,60°,and 70°.
88
88. Ultrasonic testing techniques have three general purposes detection and characterization of discontinuities, evaluation of material properties or thickness, and:
a. material identification.
b. material sorting.
c. configuration verification.
d. bond testing.
d. bond testing.
89
89. Pulse-echo, tandem, pitch-catch, and through-transmission are all examples of.
a. transducer types.
b. transducer configurations.
c. transducer crystal cuts.
d. transducer names.
b. transducer configurations.
90
90. The finite amount of time that is required for a transducer to stop ringing and then act as a receiver causes a layer of the inspected material (near-surface) in the test object to be missed. This layer of material is referred to as the:
a. skin layer.
b. fraunhofer zone.
c. dead zone.
d. fresnel zone.
c. dead zone.
91
91. When water coupling using immersion, bubbler, or squirter systems is not an option, there are two choices for inspecting the near-surface of a specimen, either a
dual-element probe or a:
a. refracted element probe.
b. multiple reflection probe.
c. near-surface mirror probe.
d. delay-line probe.
d. delay-line probe.
92
92. An ultrasonic testing probe that has both a transmitting crystal and a receiving crystal in the same housing that are acoustically and mechanically isolated from each other is known as a:
a. delay-line probe.
b. shear wave probe.
c. dual-element probe.
d. compressional probe.
c. dual-element probe.
93
93. A ultrasonic probe that places a plastic coupling piece between the face of the transducer and the specimen surface to mechanically separate the initial pulse from the material interface, effectively removing the dead zone, is called a:
a. delay-line probe.
b. shear wave probe.
c. dual-element probe.
d. compressional probe.
a. delay-line probe.
94
94. Cross-section evaluation is a common ultrasonic technique that is better known as:
a. through-transmission.
b. thickness gauging.
c. pitch-catch.
d. material identification.
b. thickness gauging.
95
95. A portable ultrasonic instrument used for both thickness gauging and flaw detection is commonly referred to as a(n):
a. thickness gauge.
b. A-scan thickness gauge.
c. flaw detector.
d. time of flight meter.
c. flaw detector.
96
96. The main advantage of phased array ultrasonic testing (PAUT) over conventional ultrasonic testing (UT) is that:
a. PAUT can optimize discontinuity detection and minimize test time.
b. PAUT equipment is simpler and cheaper to operate.
c. UT equipment utilizes very expensive transducer and wedge combinations.
d. UT equipment is more difficult to operate than PAUT equipment.
a. PAUT can optimize discontinuity detection and minimize test time.
97
97. Typical phased array probes operate between:
a. 1 and 15 MHz.
b. 2.0 and 10 MHz.
c. 2.25 and 5.0 MHz.
d. 1.0 and 50 MHz..
b. 2.0 and 10 MHz.
98
98. When sizing discontinuities using ultrasonic testing,___________is the most accurate technique available.
a. the 6 dB drop method
b. multiple angle evaluation
c. time of flight diffraction
d. through-transmission
c. time of flight diffraction
99
99. Long-range ultrasonic testing (guided wave) can propagate for long distances and insonify a large volume of a test object from a single position. Frequencies as low as________are used.
a. 1.0 to 5.0 MHz
b. 1.0 to 2.25 MHz
c. 1.0 to 2.0 MHz
d. 20 to 800 kHz
d. 20 to 800 kHz
100
100. Electromagnetic acoustic transducers may be designed to produce a variety of incident angles and wave modes. Which of the following modes is unique to EMAT transducers?
a. Compression.
b. Shear vertical.
c. Shear horizontal.
d. Rayleigh.
c. Shear horizontal.
