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B717 Refresher > Jeppesen/ERSA Theory > Flashcards

Jeppesen/ERSA Theory Flashcards

1
Q

What are the RVSM flight levels, and how much separation is provided?

A

FL290-FL410

1000ft Separation between RVSM approved aircraft

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2
Q

What does a declaration of MINIMUM FUEL mean?

A

It is not an emergency declaration, but is an indication that if any further delay occurs an emergency situation may result.

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3
Q

What does an RNP Value represent?

A

A containment value in nautical miles from the intended position in which the aircraft must be within 95% of the time

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4
Q

What is the difference between RV & RVR values?

A 
RV = Runway Visibility = Human derived
RVR = Runway Visual Range = Instrument derived
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5
Q

What does calling ‘Visual’ imply for ATC?

A

Indicate acceptance for responsibility to see and avoid obstacles when operating below MVA/MSA

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6
Q

For En-route displayed LSALTs what RNP is this based on?

A

RNP 2

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7
Q

In regards to LSALT calculations, what height of obstacles are considered?

A

Unreported obstacles may exist up to 360ft, so the min LSALT is 1360ft above the highest elevation, but if the highest elevation is below 500ft, a min LSALT of 1500ft applies

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8
Q

If ATC advise ‘Resume Normal Speed’ which speed does this cancel?

A

Only the previously issued ATC speed restriction, Airspace & STAR restrictions will still apply following this.
Wont be used if already complying with a published speed limitation Resume Published Speeds would be said

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9
Q

If ATC advise ‘No Speed Restrictions’ which speeds does this cancel?

A

All airspace and ATC speed restrictions

Note* this will not be used whilst conducting a STAR or SID where published speeds exist

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10
Q

Aerodrome forecasts are issued for weather within what distance?

A

5nm from the ARP (Aerodrome Ref Point)

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11
Q

In a METAR or SPECI and 360V090 (for example) is shown, what does this mean?

A

The wind has varied between 360-090 in the 10min sample period, this will only show when winds vary by over 60degrees.

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12
Q

When visibility is shown in a METAR/SPECI as (for example) 6000m 700S, what does this mean?

A

The prevailing visibility is 6000m, and 700m Vis to the south (only shown when min vis less than 5000m)

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13
Q

When a SPECI indicates R16/0900U, what does this indicate?

A

The RVR indicates 900m Vis in an upward trend (improving), averaged over the 10min reporting period

U - Upward Trend, D - Downward Trend, N - Nil Change

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14
Q

When a SPECI indicates R16/0900V1200, what does this indicate?

A

That RVR is varying greatly over the reporting period, the first figure (900m) indicates 1 minute mean min vis, (1200m) indicates 1 minute mean max vis

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15
Q

When a SPECI indicates R16/P2000, what does this indicate?

A

The RVR is 2000m (or more), which is greater than the instrument can measure, and gives the maximum value that can be assessed

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16
Q

When a SPECI indicates R16/M0100 what does this indicate?

A

The RVR is 100m or less, this is the lowest value that can be assessed by the instrument.

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17
Q

At what percentage probability will thunderstorms or reduced visibility periods be included in the main body of the TAF?

A

Over 50% probability, if not PROB30 or PROB40, if below 30% this will not be included.

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18
Q

If a SPECI indicates VV010, what does this indicate?

A

A vertical visibility of 1000ft. This is commonly used when thick smoke is present. The VV is the ‘equivalent’ to an overcast cloud layer when practically planning for approaches.

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19
Q

A GPWT chart shows 25120-50 what does this show?

A

Wind 250degrees at 120kts, Temp -50

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20
Q

On RSWT (Route Sector Winds & Temps) chart, what does 340-42 2505545 Indicate?

A

At FL340, ISA is -42degrees

Wind is 250/55, Temp is -45 (ISA-3)

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21
Q

What time can ELTs be tested, or if an ELT is heard during this time testing might be assumed?

A

Within the first 5mins of the hour, and only 5 seconds in duration.

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22
Q

Unless tracking via SID or instructed by ATC, when is the departure track required to be intercepted?

A

Within 5nm of departure aerodrome

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23
Q

What requirements do ATC require to issue an aircraft with a Visual Approach Clearance? (BY DAY)

A
  • Within 30nm of aerodrome
  • Pilot has established and can maintain visual reference with ground/water to the aerodrome.
  • Visibility not less than 5000m
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24
Q

What requirements do ATC require to issue an aircraft with a Visual Approach Clearance? (BY NIGHT)

A
  • Pilot has established and can maintain visual reference with ground/water to the aerodrome.
  • Visibility not less than 5000m
  • Aircraft within 30nm or if A/C is being vectored at the MVA given a heading to intercept final
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25
Q

If cleared a visual approach by ATC and not tracking via a STAR, at what point can tracking be adjusted to position for landing?

A

By day within 5nm of aerodrome

By night within the circling area

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26
Q

What are the minimum altitude requirements when tracking via a Visual Approach? (DAY & NIGHT)

A

By day not less than 500ft above lower limit of CTA
By night not less than the appropriate LSALT/MSA or DGA step until;
- Within circling area
- 5nm Established not below slope (7nm ILS Rwy)
- 10nm Not below ILS G/S, within full scale LOC

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27
Q

If cleared a visual approach (although following an instrument approach) and a go-around is required, what must be flown?

A

Must initially climb on Rwy Track until advised by ATC, however if the aircraft cannot maintain obstacle clearance the aircraft my turn.

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28
Q

If cleared via an instrument approach, but the aircraft is established in VMC what tracking is required during a go-around?

A

The published missed approach or advised by ATC regardless if the aircraft is established in VMC

29
Q

What is the navigational order of precision?

A

Localiser, GNSS, VOR then NDB

30
Q

What is the cross-track tolerance before ATC need to be advised when operating in RNP 2 & RNP 1 airspace?

A

Greater than 2nm X-track error - RNP 2 airspace

Greater than 1nm X-track error - RNP 1 airspace

31
Q

What weather conditions are required for the conduct of LAHSO operations? (Crosswind/Tailwind/Visibility)

A
  • Max of 20kts crosswind
  • Max of 5kts of Tailwind DRY (0 if WET)
  • 8km Vis, can be reduced to 5km if ATC can sight aircraft before separation standards are reduced.
32
Q

What equipment is required for RSVM operations?

A
  • 2 independent primary altimetry systems
  • Mode C SSR Transponder
  • Altitude alert system
  • Autopilot with height lock
33
Q

If RVSM equipment is U/S, can operations in RVSM airspace still allowed?

A

Yes, but NEGATIVE RVSM must be advised to ATC, they may approve flight within FL290-FL410 with conventional separation standards

34
Q

During changes of flight level in RVSM airspace what is the tolerance allowed?

A

Not more than 150ft overshoot or undershoot.

35
Q

What should be done if 1 primary altimetry system fails in RVSM airspace?

A
  • Couple the autopilot to the side with the functioning altimeter.
  • Advise ATC that “For information, operating on 1 primary altimeter only”
36
Q

What should be done if both primary altimeter systems fail?

A
  • Maintain cleared flight level on the standby altimeter

- Advise ATC “Negative RVSM”

37
Q

What is the altimeter tolerance in RVSM airspace, and what should be done if this is not within tolerance?

A
  • 200ft between primary altimeters
  • Check standby altimeter, determine malfunctioning altimeter and couple autopilot to functioning side
  • If troubleshooting doesn’t fix, advise ATC “operating on 1 primary altimeter only”
38
Q

Once established at the CFL ‘Cleared Flight Level’ what altitude deviations are required to be reported?

A

300ft or more from CFL, including TCAS manoeuvres

39
Q

If departing from a non-controlled aerodrome, and contact with ATC is unable to made can you still depart?

A

Yes, if you have contact with company that has a phone able to contact ATS. or other than RPT flights a sartime EOBT+30mins can be set with ATC.

40
Q

If using a TAF3 in the first 3hours for planning requirements, a probability of reduction in visibility & associated PROB30 or 40 of Thunderstorms, what fuel is required?

A

No additional, this only applies to PROB weather requirements in first 3 hours. Also no buffers apply to periods (similar to old TTF system)

41
Q

If in flight calculated FOB on landing is less than fixed reserves (i.e. 1.0t), what is required?

A

MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL

And if required “Expecting normal approach & landing, emergency services not required”

42
Q

If on final and a laser illumination event takes place, what details are handy to note to pass onto tower?

A

Event position, altitude, colour of laser, originating direction and position.

43
Q

What are the Class D speed restrictions that need to be considered for departure planning?

A

Speed restriction of 200kts within 4nm and below 2,500ft AGL

44
Q

When restricted airspace is designated RA1, RA2 & RA3 what do each of these mean?

A

RA1 (Least Restrictive) - May plan & expect clearance through
RA2 - May not plan through, unless on a route, clearances are not assured
RA3 (Most Restrictive) - Do not plan through, no clearances through

45
Q

What are the minimum wake turbulence separation standards required, when the proceeding aircraft is a Heavy?

A

All operations = 2mins (5nm)

Intersection departure & Heavy used full length = 3mins

46
Q

What are the Category speeds of the B717?

A 
Cat C
Initial = 240kts - 160kts
Final =115kts - 160kts
Vat = 121 - 140kts
Missed Approach = 240kts
Circling (Not Allowed) = 180kts
47
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance for Cat C aircraft, and what is the size of the circling area?

A

400ft & 4.2nm

48
Q

When can an aircraft descend below the MDA?

A
  • Visual Reference can be maintained
  • All elements of Met minima are met (cloud/vis)
  • The aircraft is in a position to land with a normal rate of descent.
49
Q

If a runway has an offset Non-Precision approach, when can the aircraft break off and establish a centreline track?

A
  • Within the circling area (4.2nm)
  • Visual Reference can be maintained
  • Continuously in sight of ground/water
50
Q

When is a missed approach required (Jepp)?

A
  • When the aircraft is out of tolerance for the prescribed approach aid
  • During an IAP below MSA and the aid becomes suspect or fails
  • Visual reference is not obtained by the MDA/DA
  • If landing via a circling approach, and visual reference cannot be established by circling minima
  • Visual reference is lost whilst circling
51
Q

To descend below an MDA/DA visual reference is required to be established, what does this mean?

A

The runway threshold, approach lighting or markings identifiable with the landing runway. And visibility not less than that listed on the chart.

52
Q

What is the missed approach climb gradient, and what obstacle clearance is provided?

A

2.5% & 100ft obstacle clearance

53
Q

What are the max holding speeds, and outbound timings? and can you exceed these speeds?

A

Up to and including FL140 = 230kts/ 1min
Above FL140 and including FL200 = 240kts/1.5min
Above FL200 = 265kts
** Due Turb can be increased up to 280kts/M.8 with ATC permission**

54
Q

If a holding pattern shows a distance limitation how is the pattern adapted for this?

A

This is an outbound leg limitation, however the turn is to be commenced at or before the distance. Don’t have to stay within distance limitation.

55
Q

What is the take-off minima for qualifying multi-engine aircraft (disregard NJS exemption)?

A

0’ & 550m
- Listed on chart (which confirms centreline markings/lighting, edge lighting & secondary power with 1 sec swapover)
otherwise 800m

56
Q

What are the requirements for 800m Vis on an ILS approach?

A
  • Aircraft is manually flown to DA via a flight director, or coupled approach to DA
  • Aircraft has failure warning for attitude & heading reference
  • Runway HIRL’s are ON (Edge Lighting)
  • Runway HIAL’s on ON (Approach Lighting)
57
Q

What equipment is required to use special alternate minima? (Updated by NOTAM)

A
  • Duplicated LOC/GS/VOR receivers

- Either duplicated DME or GNSS or 1 DME/ 1 GNSS

58
Q

When is special alternate minima not available?

A

-Local METAR/SPECI service N/A
-ATC not provided
NOTAM will advise when;
-Protracted U/S of any VHF Nav Aid (more than 7days)
-Facilities required for approach U/S or N/A

59
Q

What is the standard SID climb gradient?

A

3.3%

60
Q

If ATC issue a speed on descent, what speed restrictions can be ignored and which remain?

A

If ATC advise a speed, published speeds are cancelled however Airspace speeds still apply. Speed can be reduced as normal for approach & landing.

61
Q

What is the standard IFR altimeter tolerance?

A

Within 60ft of listed elevation, greater than 75ft is U/S, between 60-75ft can be rechecked at first landing point.

62
Q

What is the COBT window for arrivals?

A

-5mins to +15mins

63
Q

What traffic restrictions are there for non-compliance of a COBT?

A

Early Non-Compliance - Up to 60mins

Late Non-Compliance - Published traffic holding

64
Q

When ATC applies a waypoint crossing time restriction, what buffer applies to this?

A

Aircraft can cross up to 30sec early, but no later than the specified time.

65
Q

For planning a offpeak un-scheduled flight, what validity must the forecast TAF at the destination have remaining on arrival?

A

No less than 60mins left on TAF validity after planned arrival.

66
Q

During LAHSO operations, the white oscilating lights show the hold short location are operating, however you’ve been cleared to land or takeoff without further instruction, can you pass these lights?

A

Yes, they only apply if instructions have been given

67
Q

How far and what altitude are aerodrome beacons intended to be seen from?

A

8km and between 1,000ft-5,000ft

68
Q

When are aerodrome beacons operated?

A

By day in reduced visibility & at night. The beacon can be turned off by ATC when there are no traffic movements.

69
Q

What is the RFFS Frequency?

A

131.0 (ATC must be advised first though)

B717 Refresher (11 decks)

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