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B717 Refresher > A2 - Aircraft General Operating Policy & Procedures > Flashcards

A2 - Aircraft General Operating Policy & Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

When is revalidation training required?

A

Revalidation - 45days without flying
Revalidation - 90 days without TO/LDing at night
Requalification - 90 days without flying

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2
Q

What does TAXI fuel account for?

A

Used before take-of. Includes: APU usage, and local conditions at the departure aerodrome.

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3
Q

What does BURN fuel account for? (Trip)

A

Fuel that will be burnt, from TO to completion of landing roll
Includes: Takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, arrival, approach & landing

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4
Q

What does ALTN fuel account for?

A

Conduct a missed approach, then diversion via expected routing, conduct approach & landing at alternate aerodrome.

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5
Q

What is the Fixed Fuel Reserve (FRF)?

A

30mins at the consumption rate of holding at 1,500ft in ISA conditions at holding speed. 1.0t

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6
Q

What is the Variable Fuel Reserve (CONT)?

A

10% of trip fuel or 5mins at FRF rate.

Variable does not apply to alternate fuel

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7
Q

What is Holding Fuel & Hows it calculated? WX HOLD

A

HOLD 1 = Wx Holding calculated at FL200

HOLD 2 = ATC Traffic Holding

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8
Q

When is MINIMUM FUEL advised to ATC?

A

When any change to the existing clearance will result in the aircraft landing with less than Fixed Reserve.

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9
Q

When is MAYDAY FUEL advised to ATC?

A

When the aircraft is expected to land with less than fixed reserve available.

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10
Q

Requirements when refuelling with passengers onboard?

A
  • CC1 is to be informed (1 CC for every 72 pax)
  • Seat belt sign remains OFF.
  • Cabin Emergency Lights armed.
  • Area around stairs clear of hazards
  • APU/ Engines shall not be stopped or started whilst refuelling equipment is connected.
  • No transmissions on HF
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11
Q

What if a fuel spillage happens within 15m of aircraft?

A
  • Refuelling suspended, and RFF notified.
  • Refuelling not recommenced, Engines started or stopped until fire hazard is removed.
    PIC must ensure;
  • Passengers if embarking/disembarking are moved to 15m from spill.
  • Vehicles within 15m of spill shut down
  • Maintenance work suspended.
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12
Q

If strong winds are present or have been overnight, what must be checked on walk around?

A

Winds exceeding 35kts, PIC shall inspect the control system and surfaces for damage

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13
Q

When must flight crew occupy the control seats?

A
  • During Takeoff & Landing
  • During Instrument Approach
  • When the aircraft is below 10,000ft
  • In turbulent conditions
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14
Q

When are sterile cockpit procedures in place?

A

Cabin Secure-10,000ft & 10,000ft-Seat Bet Sign Off and only Interphone contact allowed

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15
Q

When are ‘Emergency Only Contact’ procedures in place? and when can cabin crew contact flight crew?

A

Application of TO Power-Gear Up & Gear Down-Vacating Runway & Rejected TO until after PA
-Only for Cabin Fire, Significant Smoke or Flames

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16
Q

If a request for jump seat travel is made, what type of passenger is allowed in this seat?

A

-A person other than an operating flight crew member, may travel with approval of PIC. Limited to Qantas employee’s and subsidiaries on either duty or vacation staff travel.

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17
Q

What is the CASA excemption provided for cabin crew numbers onboard, how many are required?

A

1 cabin crew for every 50 passengers.

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18
Q

When are hands required to be on the control wheel?

A
  • After TO till 1,000ft AGL

- During the conduct of any approach from commencement of configuring for landing.

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19
Q

When are hands required to be on the throttle?

A

During the conduct of any approach from commencement of configuring for landing except when making GCP changes.

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20
Q

When are First Officers met “minima’s” for PF duties?

A
  • All aircraft systems than have an adverse effect on aircraft handling must be serviceable
  • Visibility must be 2000m or greater
  • Cloud base is 500ft above DA for IAP conducted
  • Crosswind 20kts or less
  • Runway width 45m or greater
    • Discretionary with line training or check captain**
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21
Q

When a complex clearance is issued, is the other pilot required to confirm this?

A

Yes and both pilots should write details of the clearance during receipt to ensure accuracy then acknowledge only after clearance has been understood.

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22
Q

What items in emergency checklists are required to be verbally confirmed by the PF before action?

A
  • Throttle
  • Fuel Switches
  • Engine Fire Handles
  • Fire Bottle Discharge
  • IRS mode selector
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23
Q

If a significant bird hazard exists what can be done?

A
  • Delaying take off or landing until dispersion

- Continuous ignition can be selected to ON

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24
Q

What equipment must be serviceable for RVSM operations?

A
  • Two independent primary altimetry systems
  • Mode C capable transponder
  • Altitude Alert System
  • Autopilot with height lock
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25
Q

What are the RVSM flight levels?

A

FL290-FL410 (Including FL290)

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26
Q

Can you still fly in RVSM airspace if some of the critical equipment is U/S?

A

Yes it may be available, but negative RVSM must be reported to ATC

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27
Q

What can be altered in the flight plan to ensure ATC are aware of the negative RVSM status?

A

‘W’ can be deleted from the ATC notification, but negative RVSM must be reported to each ATC sector on transfer

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28
Q

What is the primary altimeter tolerance on the ground to be RVSM compliant?

A

Primary Altimeters should read within 50’ at sea level

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29
Q

What deviations from assigned level must be reported? (Including TCAS, Turb or Contingency Procedures

A

Deviations of 300’ or more, submitted through the Intelex system

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30
Q

If ‘TRAFFIC TRAFFIC’ is annunciated, what must be done?

A

TCAS is advising another aircraft is 35-45sec from collision. No action is necessary but attempt to gain visual contact. Extend Landing Lights and illuminate ground floods for extra visibility.

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31
Q

If “TCAS Climb/Descent” is annunciated, what must be done?

A

-Disengage the autopilot (Autothrottle can remain ON)

Assumption on 5 second reaction time, increase or reversal RA is 2.5 seconds

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32
Q

What must be advised to ATC when TCAS RA is issued?

A

QJE___ TCAS RA

(After) “Clear of conflict”

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33
Q

If GPWS alert is issued during daylight hours with terrain in sight, what must be done?

A

Alert may be considered cautionary, but take positive corrective action until alert ceases. Report via Intelex, but ATSB report is not required.

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34
Q

If GPWS alert is issued during night in VMC or in IMC, what must be done?

A
  • Disconnect Autopilot & Authothrottle, into emergecny overated thrust whilst rotating to 20 nose up at normal rotation rate.
  • Climb aircraft to LSALT, or MSA
  • Intelex & ATSB report is required (IRM)
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35
Q

What FMS are available to crew below MSA?

A
  • Engine Out Selection
  • Nav Rad Selection
  • Direct to Flight Plan Waypoints
  • Activation of Secondary Plan
    • Note: Cancelling of Speed Restrictions on Departure shall not be actioned till above MSA**
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36
Q

If on arrival to flight deck, circuit breakers that are not tied or collared are tripped what must be done?

A

Flight crew must consult with engineering prior to resetting CB.

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37
Q

If during APU start on ground (for example) circuit breakers are tripped, what must be done?

A

Flight crew must consult with engineering prior to resetting CBs that trip during ground operations.

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38
Q

What circuit breakers not to be reset in flight?

A

Fuel pumps or Hydraulic pump CBs, all other CBs should not be reset unless in accordance with QRH procedures.

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39
Q

If a circuit breaker is to be reset (already tripped) in conduct of an Abnormal/Emergency checklist what must be done?

A

If considered safety critical for completion of the flight, a one-time reset is allowed after allowing 2min cooling period

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40
Q

If a checklist directs pulling & resetting a CB how long must you wait before resetting?

A

10 seconds between pulling and resetting

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41
Q

If a CB trips in flight, what must be done after landing?

A

A DL entry is required regardless of whether the reset was successful or not.

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42
Q

If ‘Unable RNP’ is displayed on the ND during a SID or STAR, what must be done?

A

ATC must be advised and alternative procedures established (Radar Vectors?)

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43
Q

What are the taxi speed limits?

A

30kts straight line DRY
20kts straight line WET
15kts ramp areas
10kts straight line slippery.
10kts for taxi turns greater than 90 degrees

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44
Q

What are some usual threats to discuss during for departure?

A

Weather, Terrain, Traffic & Airspace

45
Q

What if the departure aerodrome as no SID and is in IMC or at night?

A

Follow SDP procedure;

  • Do not turn off extended centreline until circling minim -200ft (If still within circling minima)
  • Do not cross the circling area boundary below the 10nm MSA -500ft
  • Do not cross 10nm below the 25nm MSA - 500ft
  • Do not maintain level below LSALT/MSA
46
Q

For Day VMC departures what requirements are there to establish aircraft on track?

A
  • Ensure aircraft performance is suitable to clear obstacles
  • Do not turn off extended centreline until above 500ft AGL
  • Intercept outbound track within 5nm from Airfield
47
Q

When can the fasten seat-belt sign be switched off?

A
  • When the aircraft is clean above 3000ft, less than 10 degrees nose up and no other safety implications.
48
Q

When levelling off in RVSM airspace, how much tolerance between altimeters is required?

A

Both primary altimeters need to read within 200’ of each other.

49
Q

If ATC advise holding is required, which direction is standard and what are the maximum speeds?

A
  • Standard direction is right turns, unless charts or ATC advise otherwise.
  • Up to FL 140 = 230kts/ 1min
  • FL140-FL200 = 240kts/1.5mins
  • Above FL200 = 265kts/1.5mins
50
Q

If departing from a Class D aerodrome, above 5,000ft can 250kts be exceeded?

A

No, 250kts til 10,000ft in all airspace. Unless in Class C ATC may advise cancelation of speed restrictions.

51
Q

What speed and V/S limitations are there for arrival?

A

Below 5,000ft AAL Max of 250kts
Below 3,000ft AAL Max of 210kts

Below 3,000ft max of 2,000fpm
Below 1,000ft max of 1,000fpm

52
Q

When should monitored approaches be considered?

A

Weather conditions reported to be BKN/OVC below MDA+500ft or Min Vis+2km

53
Q

A night visual approaches authorised via a STAR arrival?

A

Yes, but only if it is a published arrival.

54
Q

If intending to do a drift down circuits what are the requirements?

A
  • Only conducted at controlled or CTAF (R) aerodromes
  • Both VHF radios are operative
  • TCAS is operative
55
Q

What are the stabilised approach requirements relating to approach speed and slope guidance?

A

-Approach speed is within +10/-5kts of Vapp
(ILS) - No greater than half scale
(PAPI) - No greater than 3 reds or 3 whites until established on 3degree aiming point

56
Q

There are additional requirements below 1,000ft for stabilised approaches, what are these?

A
  • Aircraft is in landing configuration
  • Appropriate thrust setting for approach
  • Before landing checklist is complete
  • Sink rate not greater than 1,000fpm
  • Only small attitude & heading changes to maintain flight path
57
Q

If a non-precision approach is offset, at what height does the aircraft need to be established on centreline?

A

300ft AGL & with stable approach criteria

58
Q

At ILS minima, what is the tracking tolerance?

A

Both glideslope & LOC need to be within Half Scale

59
Q

When can slope indications be ignored when transitioning to a Visual aim point?

A

Below 200ft, slope indications can be ignored.

60
Q

Full reverse must be used on most landing, when can Idle reverse thrust be considered?

A
  • Landing distance greater than 2,500m
  • No immediate exit planned
  • Runway width is 45m or greater
  • Emergency services are available
  • Braking Action is Good
  • Runway rating not greater than DAMP
  • Rain is not falling or reported within last 30mins
  • Runway not subject to Runway Occupancy Time (ROT)
61
Q

If auto-brakes are fitted to the aircraft, when can they be disengaged?

A

-After touchdown, may be disengaged when required.

62
Q

What is the ALERT PA given by the Capt?

A

Attention Cabin Crew at Positions

63
Q

What is the ALERT CANCEL PA given by the Capt?

A

Cabin Crew Normal Operations

64
Q

What does NITS stand for?

A

N - Nature of Situation
I - Intended Actions
T - Time
S - Special Considerations

65
Q

In an evacuation what are the duties of the First Officer?

A

Take a torch & Fire Extinguisher (In event of exterior fire), leave aircraft and assist with evacuation from outside.

66
Q

When can the Cabin Crew initiate an evacuation?

A
  • When the Cabin Floor is at an unusual angle
  • Aircraft has been seriously damaged
  • CC1 is unable to get in Flight Deck & failure to respond, incapacitation is assumed.
67
Q

If a RTO is performed, and can be rectified without shutting down an engine or disembarking passengers, what is required?

A

Only ALERT Cancel PA, ‘Cabin Crew Normal Operations’, CC1 shall then be informed, PA to pax, then cabin needs to be secured again.

68
Q

If 4 chimes from the cabin is heard, what is assumed?

A

An emergency condition exists in the cabin

69
Q

When can flight deck speakers be used to monitor radio coms?

A

Before taxi, and above transition level.

70
Q

If a diversion from the destination airport is a possibility, what must the PIC do prior to departure?

A

Seek advice from the ROC for preferred alternate destination.
-If diversion does occur;
Advise via - Radio Contact with Port, SATCOM ATC Message and then Phone call at diversion aerodrome (In that order)

71
Q

If the aircraft requires a tow forward as part of the push back procedure, what can/cant be done?

A

Only the left engine is to be started. Once parked clearance for the right engine will be given.

72
Q

For Low Visibility operations, what RVR zones need to be considered for both TO & Landing

A

TO - Touchdown & Mid-point RVR should be considered (if no Mid-Point, then stop end RVR considered)
LD - Only touchdown RVR needs to be considered

73
Q

What is the difference between RV and RVR?

A

RV is Runway Visibility - by PIC or observer (Only use Vis minima’s)
RVR is Runway Visual Range - derived electronically (can use RVR minima’s)

74
Q

What are the standard take off minima?

A
  • 0ft & 800m Vis
  • 0ft & 550m Vis (if edge lights not more than 60m spacing, also with centreline marks or lights)
  • Oft & 350m Vis (Subject to NJS exemption)
75
Q

What are the crew requirements for Low Vis Takoffs?

A
  • Approved training program for low vis takeoffs (Ground Course)
  • A competency check in low vis ops in accordance with current CASA exception (In each Cyclic)
  • FO must be PM for Takeoffs below 550m Vis
76
Q

What aircraft systems must be serviceable for Low Visibility Takeoffs?

A 
Must be fully serviceable;
- Anti-Skid
- Thrust Reversers
- Braking Systems
No requirement for ILS frequency to be hardtuned.
77
Q

What are the aerodrome requirements for Low Visibility Takeoffs?

A
  • CASA approves such operations on that runway
  • ATC have low vis procedures in force by 550m Vis
  • Runways that require a turn of 15degrees or greater at runway head or below 200ft not approved for vis less than 500m
  • Aircraft operating under exemption may takeoff with vis less than 550m, but not below 350m.
  • Runway edge lighting is operating
  • Centreline lighting is operating, or markings visible
  • Crosswind 15kts or less
78
Q

If a thunderstorm (CB) is approaching the airfield before departure, at what distance must the cell be from the aerodrome at Takeoff?

A

Do not start a takeoff if an active thunderstorm is within 5nm of the aircraft directly after TO.

79
Q

If on arrival at an aerodrome ATC close operations due to a passing storm, can passengers still disembark?

A

If at a stand off bay using stairs - No

If at an aerobridge - Yes, however ultimately it rests wit the PIC.

80
Q

What are the minimum clearance distances for CBs in flight?

A

Below 10,000ft - 5nm (OAT less than 0 = 10nm)
10,000-20,000ft - 10nm
Above 20,000ft - 20nm

81
Q

What do you do if a lightning strike is suspected?

A
  • Carry out a serviceability check of all radio coms, nav equipment & compass
  • After landing the aircraft is grounded and safety report is required, so consider a diversion.
82
Q

If encountering turbulence in flight, what are some considerations?

A
  • Advising cabin crew & using seatbelt sign.
  • Adopt turbulence penetration speed (275kts/0.75M)
  • Avoid large power changes, and avoid turns
  • Consider descent to increase buffer boundaries
83
Q

If faced with a potential overspeed situation during cruise what are the initial actions?

A
  • Select slower speed or Turb penetration speed

- Utilise speed brake, and pull back on power levers

84
Q

If trend indicates possible overspeed on descent what are the initial actions?

A
  • Pull altitude knob to Pitch/Idle

- Select slower speed & Utilise Speed Brake

85
Q

If possible before Turbulence is encountered, what should cabin crew be advised?

A
  • Estimated time until approaching turbulence area
  • Expected intensity and duration of turbulence
  • Necessary actions before and after turbulence
86
Q

In the event of suddenly encountering turbulence what PA should be made to passengers, after seat belt sign is switch on?

A

“All passengers and crew be seated with seat belts fastened”

87
Q

What defines a runway as contaminated?

A

Standing water deeper than 3mm, slush, snow or ice

88
Q

What is the definition of Freezing Fog (FZFG)?

A

Temperature of 0degrees or below, and visibility less than 1000m. Aircraft are NOT to depart (Reference to freezing fog on the ATIS doesn’t necessarily mean its FZFG and may still depart if clear of the above requirements)

89
Q

What conditions on the ground are ‘Icing’ conditions?

A

OAT less than 6 and either;
-Visible moisture is present
-OAT & Dew Point are within 3C of each other
or Ramps, taxiways, runways where slush/water my freeze on exterior surfaces

90
Q

What conditions in flight are ‘Icing’ conditions?

A

TAT less than 6degrees and

  • Visible moisture is present or
  • Ice is evident on edges of windshield
91
Q

In relation to decision to De-Ice, if the temperature is 0 or below and no falling precipitation, however the aircraft is free of frost/ice, is de-icing require?

A

No (If required), but if the Return to Tank fuel system is inop, ice can form on the upper wing root up to the temperature of 10degrees.

92
Q

If the temperature is 0 or below, and precipitation is falling, but aircraft is free of ice/snow/frost is de-icing required, and when does a Hold-Over time start?

A

No, The aircraft cannot depart with temperature 0 or below, and precipitation falling

93
Q

Is an inspection of the aircraft required after de-icing?

A

Yes, but qualified engineers or de-icing supplier (where an engineer is not available) must perform an inspection of the aircraft.

94
Q

Is take-off permitted with ice on the wings?

A

On the underside of the fuel tank ice is permitted to a maximum of 3mm, but ice outside the fuel tank region or on the upper surface is not permitted. If de-icing occurs, any underwing ice should also be removed.

95
Q

When the de-icing/anti-icing form is supplied to the crew, what inspection is assumed to be completed?

A

The post application inspection has been completed, and the aircraft is free of contamination.

96
Q

Following the post application inspection is completed, flight crew have 1 further check, what is this?

A

A flight crew must conduct a Pre-Take off check, to ensure wing and leading edges are free from contamination and time is within holdover time.

97
Q

If the Pre-Take Off Icing check is inconclusive, what must be done?

A

Check can be conducted from inside the cabin, observing both wing surfaces. Strongly suggested that qualified ground crew conduct this check.

98
Q

When should the wing anti-icing system be utilised?

A
  • Entering an area of known or forecast airframe icing
  • Visual indications of ice on windshield frames, wiper posts or probes.
  • At any other time the flight crew suspects there is a risk of airframe icing present or expected.
99
Q

Can de-icing times be transferred through the intercom system to the flight crew and where is this recorded?

A

Yes, the details need to be written on the flight plan

100
Q

What ports offer de-icing facilities and what type?

A

CBR, MEL, HBA & LST - Type 1 fluid

101
Q

What maintenance documents are required to be checked during the pre-flight by the PIC?

A
  • Properly completed CRS has be issued for any maintenance carried out since last flight.
  • All Discrepancy Log Defects either cleared or deferred.
  • Any deferred items are within their expiry period
  • All MEL/CDL/PU requirements are determined before flight.
102
Q

If a DL has been raised in response to a Notice to Crew (i.e Monitoring performance of a system) does the DL need to be signed off prior to flight?

A

No the DL can remain open if no engineering is available. But if the DL entry is a new defect in relation to the NTC, then the aircraft is grounded.

103
Q

If a defect requires a CDL to be issued prior to departure, who must the PIC advise?

A

Maintenance Watch & OCC are to be advised before departing under any CDL provision.

104
Q

There a 3 scenarios when deferring an MEL if not at a Maintenance base?

A
  • MEL has no Maintenance Procedure - PIC can defer
  • MEL has F.C.M (Flight Crew Maintenance) procedure to be carried out prior to operation - Part 42 Authorised PIC can defer
  • MEL has Maintenance action required - Only LAME can defer the defect and carry out this maintenance.
105
Q

If any maintenance including Flight Crew Maintenance is carried out, what needs to be re-issued?

A

A CRS needs to be issued after the conduct of any maintenance.

106
Q

How long is a Daily Inspection valid for?

A

48hrs, as long as push back has commenced prior to the 48hr period expiry this is still valid.

107
Q

How long is a pilot conduct daily inspection valid for?

A

Aircraft may make 2 landings, then a normal daily inspection is required.

108
Q

What events require special maintenance prior to next flight?

A

-Engine Failure or Shutdown
-Overweight Landing
-Hard Landing
-Lightning Strike
-Severe Turbulence Encounter
These also require Intelex report & ATSB report

B717 Refresher (11 decks)

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