Jane's Abstract review Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Question 2

Q

Regenerative Approach to Bilateral Rostral mandibular Reconstruction in a Case Series of Dogs Fron Vet Sci Arzi, Cissell, Verstrate What were the components of the reconstruction?

Answer

A

Combination of intraoral and extraoral approaches Locking titanium plate Compression Resistant Matric infused with BMP

Question 3

Q

Regenerative Approach to Bilateral Rostral mandibular Reconstruction in a Case Series of Dogs Fron Vet Sci Arzi, Cissell, Verstrate What were the results of the case series?

Answer

A

Rostral mandibular defects in 5 dogs 3 dogs healed with intact gingival covering 2 dogs had complication of focal plate exposure and dehiscence

Question 4

Q

Regenerative Approach to Bilateral Rostral mandibular Reconstruction in a Case Series of Dogs Fron Vet Sci Arzi, Cissell, Verstrate How were the complications managed?

Answer

A

Covered exposed plates with mucosal flaps and re-sutured

Question 5

Q

Regenerative Approach to Bilateral Rostral mandibular Reconstruction in a Case Series of Dogs Fron Vet Sci Arzi, Cissell, Verstrate What were the follow up findings?

Answer

A

Mineralized tissue palpated at 2 weeks Solid bone formation within 3 months CT findings at 6 months showed newly regenerated mandibular bone with increased mineral volume

Question 6

Q

Diagnostic value of cytological analysis of tumours and tumour-like lesions of the oral cavity in dogs and cats: a prospective study on 114 cases Vet Journal Bonfanti, Bertazzolo, Gracis What was the aim of the study?

Answer

A

To compare the results of cytological examinations of lesions following FNA, FN insertion and impression smears with histopath results

Question 7

Q

Diagnostic value of cytological analysis of tumours and tumour-like lesions of the oral cavity in dogs and cats: a prospective study on 114 cases Vet Journal Bonfanti, Bertazzolo, Gracis What was diagnostic accuracies of dogs with neoplasia?

Answer

A

86 total samples with FNA, FNI and impression smears compared to histopath results FNA= 98% FNI=98% Impression smears=92%

Question 8

Q

Diagnostic value of cytological analysis of tumours and tumour-like lesions of the oral cavity in dogs and cats: a prospective study on 114 cases Vet Journal Bonfanti, Bertazzolo, Gracis What was the diagnostic accuracies of cats with neoplasia?

Answer

A

FNA=96% FNI= 96% Impression smear= 96%

Question 9

Q

Diagnostic value of cytological analysis of tumours and tumour-like lesions of the oral cavity in dogs and cats: a prospective study on 114 cases Vet Journal What was the conclusion of the study?

Answer

A

The high agreement with histopath suggests that cytological examinations by FNI, FNA and IS are all appropriate methods to correctly diagnose lesions of the oral cavity in dogs and cats

Question 10

Q

Vertical Mandibular Range of Motion in Anesthetized Dogs and Cats Front Sci Gracis, Zini How was the study designed?

Answer

A

260 dogs–divided into 4 subgroups based on BW 127 cats

Question 11

Q

Vertical Mandibular Range of Motion in Anesthetized Dogs and Cats Front Sci Gracis, Zini What were the results?

Answer

A

Dogs <5 kg = 67 mm Dogs 5-10 kg= 93 mm Dogs 10-25 kg= 115 mm Dogs >25 kg = 134 mm Cats= 62 mm

Question 12

Q

Vertical Mandibular Range of Motion in Anesthetized Dogs and Cats Front Sci Gracis, Zini What were the conclusions?

Answer

A

The vmROM and body weight were positively correlated in all populations except dog group 5-10 kg

Question 13

Q

Crown preservation of the mandiubalr first molar tooth impatct the strength and stiffness of 3 non-invasive fracture repair constructs in dogs Front Vet Sci Lothamer, Snyder What were the objectives of the study?

Answer

A

To test the strength and stiffness of 3 noninvasive mandibular fracture repair constructs and to characterize the impact that tooth crown preservation has on fixation strength for fractures occurring at the M1 LOCATION

Question 14

Q

Crown preservation of the mandiubalr first molar tooth impatct the strength and stiffness of 3 non-invasive fracture repair constructs in dogs Front Vet Sci Lothamer, Snyder How was it designed?

Answer

A

3 Treatment Groups 1.) composite only 2.) interdental wiring and composite 3.) transmucosal fixation screw and composite Crowns of teeth were amputated at the alveolar margin to simulate corwn loss on fixation strength and stiffness

Question 15

Q

Crown preservation of the mandiubalr first molar tooth impatct the strength and stiffness of 3 non-invasive fracture repair constructs in dogs Front Vet Sci Lothamer, Snyder What were the results?

Answer

A

Interdental wiring and composite demonstrated the greatest bending stiffness and load to failure IWC was best for mandibles with crown was removed compared to the other 2 groups All 3 were better with crowns than without

Question 16

Q

Bacterial profile of necrotic pulps in Cheetah J Zoo Wild Med Almasa, Bosman

Answer

A

36 microbial samples from 19 cheetahs Cultured for aerobic and anaerobic bacterial as well as PCR for the last 6 collected samples 54% of cultures were gram positive 45% of cultures were gram negative 63% were facultative anaerobes 28% were aerobic 8.4% were strict anaerobes Similar % for PCR results Best antimicrobials were amikacin and gentamicin

Question 17

Q

Dental and TMJ joint pathology of the eastern pacific harbor seal J Comp Path Aalderink, Nguyen, Kass

Answer

A

214 skulls examined Maxillary molar teeth had high variability of tooth roots Tooth fracture was rare as were periapical lesions Most common site for supernummerary were manidublar first premolars Over half of all speciments had alveolar bony changes consistent with periodontitis 34% had signs of TMJ osteoarthritis The left mandibular fossa was the most common location for TMJ-OA Bottom line: TMJ and perio problems in seals

Question 18

Q

Internal Fixation of Severe Maxillofacial Fractures in Dogs Vet Surg Arzi and Verstrate What was the objective?

Answer

A

To describe internal fixation for maxillofacial fractures using titanium miniplates and outcomes in 7 dogs

Question 19

Q

Internal Fixation of Severe Maxillofacial Fractures in Dogs Vet Surg Arzi and Verstrate What surgical approaches were used in the 7 dogs?

Answer

A

A combination of extra- and intra-oral surgical approaches

Question 20

Q

Internal Fixation of Severe Maxillofacial Fractures in Dogs Vet Surg Arzi and Verstrate What type of mini-plates were used?

Answer

A

Titanium non-locking miniplate

Question 21

Q

Internal Fixation of Severe Maxillofacial Fractures in Dogs Vet Surg Arzi and Verstrate How long was the return to function?

Answer

A

Immediate return to normal function and occlusion

Question 22

Q

Internal Fixation of Severe Maxillofacial Fractures in Dogs Vet Surg Arzi and Verstrate Why did one patient have the miniplates removed 1.5 years later?

Answer

A

Patient developed nasal aspergillosis

Question 23

Q

Internal Fixation of Severe Maxillofacial Fractures in Dogs Vet Surg Arzi and Verstrate What was the outcome for the 7 dogs?

Answer

A

Excellent long-term function and general lack of complications

Question 24

Q

Internal Fixation of Severe Maxillofacial Fractures in Dogs Vet Surg Arzi and Verstrate What was the outcome for the 7 dogs?

Answer

A

Excellent long-term function and general lack of complications

Question 25

Q

Internal Fixation of Severe Maxillofacial Fractures in Dogs Vet Surg Arzi and Verstrate Why did one patient have the miniplates removed 1.5 years later?

Answer

A

Patient developed nasal aspergillosis

Question 26

Q

Internal Fixation of Severe Maxillofacial Fractures in Dogs Vet Surg Arzi and Verstrate How long was the return to function?

Answer

A

Immediate return to normal function and occlusion

Question 27

Q

Internal Fixation of Severe Maxillofacial Fractures in Dogs Vet Surg Arzi and Verstrate What type of mini-plates were used?

Answer

A

Titanium non-locking miniplate

Question 28

Q

Internal Fixation of Severe Maxillofacial Fractures in Dogs Vet Surg Arzi and Verstrate What surgical approaches were used in the 7 dogs?

Answer

A

A combination of extra- and intra-oral surgical approaches

Question 29

Q

Internal Fixation of Severe Maxillofacial Fractures in Dogs Vet Surg Arzi and Verstrate What was the objective?

Answer

A

To describe internal fixation for maxillofacial fractures using titanium miniplates and outcomes in 7 dogs

Question 30

Q

Dental and TMJ joint pathology of the eastern pacific harbor seal J Comp Path Aalderink, Nguyen, Kass

Answer

A

214 skulls examined Maxillary molar teeth had high variability of tooth roots Tooth fracture was rare as were periapical lesions Most common site for supernummerary were manidublar first premolars Over half of all speciments had alveolar bony changes consistent with periodontitis 34% had signs of TMJ osteoarthritis The left mandibular fossa was the most common location for TMJ-OA Bottom line: TMJ and perio problems in seals

Question 31

Q

In Arzi, Clark, Sundaram et. al., “Therapeutic Efficacy of Fresh, Allogeneic Mesenchymal Stem Cells for Severe Refractory Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis”,

What was the inclusion criteria for cats in the study?

Answer

A

Full mouth extractions performed and non-responsive
No major co-morbidities
no steroids or immunosuppressives (D/C’d 2 weeks before trial)
negative for FIV, FeLV

Question 32

Q

In Peralta S, Fiani N, Kan-Rohrer KH, Verstraete FJM, “Morphological evaluation of clefts of the lip, palate, or both in dogs”,

What does LAHSHAL stand for in the classification system, what do upper and lower case letters mean?

Answer

A

Each letter represents an anatomic location

(L = lip, A = alveolus, H = hard palate, and S = soft palate).

In this diagrammatic classification system, letters to the left of the S represent defects on the right side of the soft palate at midline and vice versa.

Uppercase and lowercase letters represent complete or incomplete defects, respectively.

Question 33

Q

In Winer JN, Verstraete FJM, Cissell DD, Lucero S, Athanasiou KA, Arzi B, “The application of 3-dimensional printing for
preoperative planning in oral and maxillofacial surgery in dogs and cats.”,

What were the most comon reasons for utilizing 3-D printing?

Answer

A

Mandibular reconstruction (20/32) due to mandibulectomy (12) or fracture non union (6 dogs 2 cats)
mapping osteotomy for TMJ ankylosis/pseudoankylosis (4)
assessment of palatal defects (2)
understanding complex anatomy for neoplasia (2 dogs 1 cat)
understanding altered anatomy due to trauma (2 dogs)

Question 34

Q

In Doering S, Arzi B, Barich CR, Hatcher DC, Kass PH, Verstraete FJM, “Evaluation of the diagnostic yield of dental radiography and cone-beam computed tomography for the identification of anatomic landmarks in small to medium-sized
brachycephalic dogs”,

What was the design of the study?

Answer

A

retrospective
19 brachycephalic dogs with CBCT and dental rads
evaluated visibility of 26 pre-defined landmarks in each of the CBCT modes and on dental rads
- Panoramic, 3-D mode and in MPR (slice by slice)

Question 35

Q

In Doering S, Arzi B, Hatcher DC, Kass PH, Verstraete FJM
“Evaluation of the diagnostic yield of dental radiography and cone-beam computed tomography for the identification of dental disorders in small to medium-sized brachycephalic dogs”,

What was performed in this study?

Answer

A

Retrospective

Cohort of 19 brachycephalic dogs with dental disease

comparison of diagnostic ability 31 disorders in 10 categories:

dental radiographs Vs. 3 modes of CBCT (3D, Pano and Slices methodologies)

Question 36

Q

In Marshall-Jones ZV, Wallis CV, Allsopp JM, Colyer A, Davis IJ, Holcombe LJ “ Assessment of dental plaque coverage by Quantitative Light-induced Fluorescence (QLF) in domestic shorthaired cats”,

What was the design of this study?

Answer

A

24 cats,

28d study period with crossover, with cleaning between

dental diet versus no dental diet

compared QLF images with modified logan and boyce index

Evaluated intra-, inter- observer variability as well as effect of the diet.

Question 37

Q

In Fiani N, Verstraete FJM, Arzi B “Reconstruction of Congenital Nose, Cleft Primary Palate, and Lip Disorders”,

What is the most important factor in formation of primary clefts?

Answer

A

Genetics

(others are environmental teratogens, mystic emanations etc.)

Question 38

Q

In Peralta S, Fiani N, Kan-Rohrer KH, Verstraete FJM, “Morphological evaluation of clefts of the lip, palate, or both in dogs”,

What was most common: Cleft lip (CL), cleft palate (CP) or both lip and palate (CLP)?

Answer

A

Cleft palate 23/32
Cleft lip (5/32)
Cleft lip and palate (4/32)

Question 39

Q

In Peralta S, Fiani N, Kan-Rohrer KH, Verstraete FJM, “Morphological evaluation of clefts of the lip, palate, or both in dogs”,

What was the goal of the study?

Answer

A

To apply a more accurate and detailed characterization system for palatal defects in dogs.

Question 40

Q

In Peralta S, Fiani N, Kan-Rohrer KH, Verstraete FJM, “Morphological evaluation of clefts of the lip, palate, or both in dogs”,

What was the most common LAHSHAL type identified in cleft palate dogs?

Answer

A

HSH (21/23)

hSh (2/23)

Question 41

Q

In Peralta S, Fiani N, Kan-Rohrer KH, Verstraete FJM, “Morphological evaluation of clefts of the lip, palate, or both in dogs”,

Rank the following shapes of cleft palate defects from most to least common:

parallel, oval, pyriform, divergent

Answer

A

Pyriform (43%)

Parallel (22%)

Oval (17%)

Divergent (13%)

Question 42

Q

In Peralta S, Fiani N, Kan-Rohrer KH, Verstraete FJM, “Morphological evaluation of clefts of the lip, palate, or both in dogs”,

What additional bone was deformed in most dogs in the study overall?

Answer

A

Vomer

CLP (100%)

CP (74%)

CL (20%)

Question 43

Q

In Peralta S, Fiani N, Kan-Rohrer KH, Verstraete FJM, “Morphological evaluation of clefts of the lip, palate, or both in dogs”,

What skull type appears to be predisposed to CL and CLP, but not to CP?

Answer

A

Brachycephalic -

80% of CL;

100 % of CLP

only 44% of CP - 56% mesaticephalic

Question 44

Q

In Peralta S, Fiani N, Kan-Rohrer KH, Verstraete FJM, “Morphological evaluation of clefts of the lip, palate, or both in dogs”,

Among CL and CLP defects, between which teeth did the alveolar defect usually reside?

what other 3 dental/maxillofacial defects were common?

Answer

A

Second and third incisors (100%)

Deviated permanent incisor teeth,

(persistent) deciduous incisor teeth,

Nonfused incisivomaxillary and vomeroincisive sutures

Question 45

Q

In Peralta S, Fiani N, Kan-Rohrer KH, Verstraete FJM, “Morphological evaluation of clefts of the lip, palate, or both in dogs”,

Which side was more commonly associated with cleft lip, and what is the proposed embryological reason?

Answer

A

Left sided lip clefts more common, and this is also reported in humans
Discrepancy in the laterality of lip and alveolus clefts is explained by differences in embryological events during palatogenesis - the left palatal shelf goes into a horizontal position later than the right, allowing a wider timeframe for abnormalities to occur

Question 46

Q

In Peralta S, Fiani N, Kan-Rohrer KH, Verstraete FJM, “Morphological evaluation of clefts of the lip, palate, or both in dogs”,

How many indvividual LAHSHAL classifications were found in this study?

What were the limitations of the LASHSAL system as applied to dogs?

Answer

A

9 LAHSHAL subtypes detected. 2 in CP, rest in CL and CLP cases

No accounting for severity

No accounting for shape of lesion

Question 47

Q

In Fiani N, Verstraete FJM, Arzi B “Reconstruction of Congenital Nose, Cleft Primary Palate, and Lip Disorders”,

What are 3 reasons to delay surgery until 4-6 months of age?

Answer

A

1 - more growth = more tissue to harvest for closure

2 - surgery will interfere with maxillorfacial growth more if performed when younger

permanent teeth if unerupted my erupt and be malpositioned or interfere with repair when they do erupt

Question 48

Q

In Fiani N, Verstraete FJM, Arzi B “Reconstruction of Congenital Nose, Cleft Primary Palate, and Lip Disorders”,

What is the first phase of a staged approach and what are 2 reasons to opt to perform a staged procedure?

Answer

A

Phase 1 is selective dental extractions

Phase 2 is definitive repair

Reasons

Minimal soft tissue available and extraction will allow harvest of more tissue
Teeth are erupting into the cleft and will interfere with repair

Question 49

Q

In Fiani N, Verstraete FJM, Arzi B “Reconstruction of Congenital Nose, Cleft Primary Palate, and Lip Disorders”,

What is the most common complication and what are the purported reasons?

Answer

A

Dehiscence

tension at the surgical site
poor surgical technique
occlusal interference (lower canine)

Question 50

Q

In Fiani N, Verstraete FJM, Arzi B “Reconstruction of Congenital Nose, Cleft Primary Palate, and Lip Disorders”,

In which order should the repair proceed?

Repair of lip, nasal planum, rostral portion of floor of nose
Repair of palatal defect
Repair of floor of nose, gingival margin, alveolar and labial mucosa

Answer

A

Repair of palatal defect
Repair of floor of nose, gingival margin, alveolar and labial mucosa
Repair of lip, nasal planum, rostral portion of floor of nose

Note - work central to peripheral - separating nose from mouth is the goal, and a cosmetic notch in the lip is acceptable.

Question 51

Q

In Arzi, Clark, Sundaram et. al., “Therapeutic Efficacy of Fresh, Allogeneic Mesenchymal Stem Cells for Severe Refractory Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis”,

How many stem cells were delivered, what was their source, and how many times were they given?

Answer

A

20 million

allogenic adipose derived stem cells from 3 SPF donor cats

given on day 0 and 1 month later (20 million per dose)

Question 52

Q

In Arzi, Clark, Sundaram et. al., “Therapeutic Efficacy of Fresh, Allogeneic Mesenchymal Stem Cells for Severe Refractory Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis”,

How were the stem cells tracked to ensure their target delivery to the oral cavity? What other tissues had high levels of detection, why?

Answer

A

ASCs were radiolabeled with Technetium and administered to three additional FCGS affected cats and one healthy SPF cat.

Whole body images taken with a gamma camera 1h, 6h, 24h after injection

Cat with FCGS had more uptake in oral cavity than controls

lungs - trapping of cells in capillary beds

kidney/bladder - filtration of dissociated radioisotope

Question 53

Q

In Arzi, Clark, Sundaram et. al., “Therapeutic Efficacy of Fresh, Allogeneic Mesenchymal Stem Cells for Severe Refractory Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis”,

What are 4 mechanisms by which stem cells cause immunomodulation?

Answer

A

MSCs inhibit T-cell proliferation,
alter B-cell function,
downregulate MHC II on antigen-presenting cells
inhibit dendritic cell maturation and differentiation

Question 54

Q

In Arzi, Clark, Sundaram et. al., “Therapeutic Efficacy of Fresh, Allogeneic Mesenchymal Stem Cells for Severe Refractory Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis”

What histopathologic changes were seen in cats that responded versus cats that did not respond?

Answer

A

Upon completion of the study, a complete return to normal tissue architecture was observed in the biopsies of cats with complete clinical remission or substantial clinical improvement.

The biopsies from the cat with no clinical improvement were consistent with severe lymphoplasmacytic and neutrophilic ulcerative stomatitis prior to and after treatment

Question 55

Q

In Arzi, Clark, Sundaram et. al., “Therapeutic Efficacy of Fresh, Allogeneic Mesenchymal Stem Cells for Severe Refractory Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis”

What differences were seen in results compared to the similar study using autologous stem cell therapy with respect to number improved, and time to cure?

Answer

A

4/7 responded in this study, 5/7 in the autologous study
time to cure was ~12-20 months for this study versus 3-9 months for autologous study
*

Question 56

Q

In Arzi, Clark, Sundaram et. al., “Therapeutic Efficacy of Fresh, Allogeneic Mesenchymal Stem Cells for Severe Refractory Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis”

Which cats were less likely to respond to ASC treatment?

Answer

A

cats with more severe systemic inflammation as measured by

neutrophil count,
interferon gamma
globulin count

Question 57

Q

In Arzi, Clark, Sundaram et. al., “Therapeutic Efficacy of Fresh, Allogeneic Mesenchymal Stem Cells for Severe Refractory Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis”

Which T-cell subset change was predictive of response to therapy in the autologous stem cell trial, but was not predictive of response in this allogenic trial?

Answer

A

CD8^loT-cells increasing to normal was predictive of response to therapy in autologous trial but not in the allogenic trial (this one)

Question 58

Q

In Arzi, Clark, Sundaram et. al., “Therapeutic Efficacy of Fresh, Allogeneic Mesenchymal Stem Cells for Severe Refractory Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis”

What changes to T-Cell subsets are observed in cats affected by FCGS?

Answer

A

Increased CD8+ cells

Decreased CD8:CD4 ratio

Low CD8^lonumbers

Question 59

Q

In Arzi, Clark, Sundaram et. al., “Therapeutic Efficacy of Fresh, Allogeneic Mesenchymal Stem Cells for Severe Refractory Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis”

What cytokine biomarker was identified in the autologous trial and what was found in this trial?

Were there other important cytokine differences?

Answer

A

IL-6 increased post treatment in the autologous trial but did not show the same alteration in this trial.

No consistent changes in TNFa, IL-6 or IFNy

Question 60

Q

In Winer JN, Verstraete FJM, Cissell DD, Lucero S, Athanasiou KA, Arzi B, “The application of 3-dimensional printing for
preoperative planning in oral and maxillofacial surgery in dogs and cats.”

When printing 3-d models what are the 2 broad types of material and their purpose?

Answer

A

Build Material
create the desired geometry - this is the final product
Support material
sacrificial, helps to hold up overhangs and fill voids until manufacture complete.
high pressure water used to separate the support material afterwards.

Question 61

Q

In Winer JN, Verstraete FJM, Cissell DD, Lucero S, Athanasiou KA, Arzi B, “The application of 3-dimensional printing for
preoperative planning in oral and maxillofacial surgery in dogs and cats.”

What are 3 benefits of using custom printed 3-d models?

Answer

A

improve preoperative planning and intraoperative guidance
enrich veterinary student and resident training,
facilitate client education and communication.

Question 62

Q

In Winer JN, Verstraete FJM, Cissell DD, Lucero S, Athanasiou KA, Arzi B, “The application of 3-dimensional printing for
preoperative planning in oral and maxillofacial surgery in dogs and cats.”

What is a major limitation of creating a 3-D printed skull?

Answer

A

Takes 18-24 hours to produce, therefore need 2 anesthetic events

Question 63

Q

In Marshall-Jones ZV, Wallis CV, Allsopp JM, Colyer A, Davis IJ, Holcombe LJ “ Assessment of dental plaque coverage by Quantitative Light-induced Fluorescence (QLF) in domestic shorthaired cats”,

What are 3 big advantages of using QLF over Logan and Boyce indices?

Answer

A

Increased sensitivity - using continuous data not ordinal
Ability to archive raw data in the form of images
Predicted to detect an effect with one third of the number of cats

Question 64

Q

In Marshall-Jones ZV, Wallis CV, Allsopp JM, Colyer A, Davis IJ, Holcombe LJ “ Assessment of dental plaque coverage by Quantitative Light-induced Fluorescence (QLF) in domestic shorthaired cats”,

What key modification allowed detection of significantly more plaque with the QLF method?

Answer

A

application of a disclosing solution.

Answer 64

A

Differing bacterial communities may fluoresce more or less depending on their species composition.

unstudied in cats but mature communities fluoresce more red in humans.

Answer 65

A

QLF weighted mouth 14.24%

QLF average tooth 14.26%

Modified logan and boyce 14.64%

Answer 66

A

Inter-observer variability was low and intra-observer variability was low

All variability was very low and correlated well with the logan and boyce method.

Answer 67

A

mandibular symphysis,

right and left mandibular canine teeth,

right and left mandibular first molar teeth,

right and left mandibular canals.

Answer 68

A

Slices (Overall mean score 2.77)
3D (Overall mean score 2.59)
Radiograph (Overall mean score 1.68)
Pano (overall mean score 1.65)

Answer 69

A

Dental radiographs

Answer 70

A

Unobstructed view was key to identifying landmarks in brachycephalic skull, more important than spatial resolution

Answer 71

A

Loss of tooth integrity

Answer 72

A

abnormal eruption

abnormally shaped roots

tooth resorption

and periodontitis

Answer 73

A

Rad method - 44%

Pano method - 41%

3D method - 20.5%

Answer 74

A

Missing teeth

abnormal eruption

abnormal number of roots

periodontitis

tooth resorption

Answer 75

A

abnormal eruption,

abnormally shaped roots,

periodontitis,

tooth resorption

Answer 76

A

The slices method

Answer 77

A

Prospective study with 445 client owned dogs of various breeds randomly assigned a single dose of transdermal fentanyl applied 2-4 hours prior to surgery or buprenorphine IM 2-4 hours prir to surgery and every 6 hrs up to 90 hours post op

Answer 78

A

Glasgow Composite Pain Scale

Answer 79

A

Minimal adverse events and equal between groups

Answer 80

A

Sustained plasma fentanyl concentrations provided by a single pre-emptive dose of TFS are safe and effective and are noninferior to repeated injections of buprenorphine in controlling postoperative pain over 4 days.

Answer 81

A

The determine the influence of periapical radiographs, CBCT section and CB volumetric data on the determination of periapical bone destruction in endodontically treated distal root canals of premolar canine teeth

Answer 82

A

Nontreated mesial roots

Answer 83

A

Eneerococcus faecalis was inoculated into 30 root canals of 2 mixed breed dogs to induce periodontitis After 60 days the root canals of the distal roots of the 11 mandibular and 4 maxillary premolars were endodontically treated (15 canals)

Answer 84

A

5 evaluators used periapical radiographs and CBCT

Answer 85

A

After 6 months periapical radiographs, coronal CBCT sections and volumetric data showed lower bone destruction in endodontically treated teeth in comparison with the control group The 5 evaluators found no differences between the apical periodontitis area of treated teeth and controls when CBCT section were used. No correlation was found between x-ray and CBCT volumetic values in treated root canals No relationship could be found between the periapical values of bone destruction and volumetic data found in CBCT of treated root canals

Answer 86

A

Porphyromonasgulae Pormonasmacacae Fusobacteriumnucleatum Fusobacteriumcanifelinum

Answer 87

A

50 dogs with periodontitis and 50 dogs without periodontitis were tested

Answer 88

A

With Periodontitis: 38 P. gulae 8 P. macacae 26 F. nucleatum 15 F. canifelinum

Answer 89

A

Without Peridontitis: 15 P.gulae 12 F. nucleatum 11 F. canifelinum

Answer 90

A

All strains were susceptible to most of the antibiotics tested however different resistance rates to clarithromycin, erythromycin and metronidazole among strains were observed

Answer 91

A

The goal was to evaluate the in vivo response of apical and periapical tissues of dogs’ teeth with apical periodontitis after one-seesion endodontic treatment with and without antimicrobial photodynamic therapy

Answer 92

A

60 root canals with experiementally induced apical periodontitits were instrumented and assigned into 4 groups receiving aPDT and root canal filling group 1 aPDT + RCF group 2 aPDT - RCF group 3 RCF - aPDT group 4 neither treatment Patients were killed and sections of maxilla and mandible taken and stained with H and E

Answer 93

A

In the aPDT treated groups the periapical region was moderately/severely enlarged with no inflammatory cells Moderate neoangiogenesis and fibrogenesis and the smallest periapical lesions Apical closure by mineralized tissue deposition was not achieved

Answer 94

A

aPDT can be a promising adjunct therapy to cleaning and shaping procedrues in teeth with apical periodontitis undergoing one-session endodontic treatment

Answer 95

A

To evaluate the effect of adjunctive application of Radachlorin-mediated antibicrobial photodynamic therapy compared to scaling and root planning alone ofn clinical parameters and cytokine levels in gingival crevicular fluid of dogs with experimental periodontitis.

Answer 96

A

Silk ligatures were placed around teeth to induce periodontal disease Four treatment groups 1 Radachlorin + diode laser 2 Radachlorin 3 Laser 4 No treatment

Answer 97

A

All treatment groups showed significant improvement in clinical and immunologic parameters No significant difference were found between the four groups

Answer 98

A

Adjunctive use of Radachlorin-medicated aPDT has no additional effect on the clinical parameters or pro-inflammatory cytokine levels in ligature induced periodontitis

Answer 99

A

To evaluate histomorphometrically the use of periodontal ligament cells in the treatment of class 3 furcation defects

Answer 100

A

4 treatment groups: 1 coronally positioned flap (control) 2 GTR group 3 Sponge group 4 Cell Group

Answer 101

A

The cell group presented a superior length of new cementum, a greater extension of periodontal regeneration, and a larger area of new bone when compared to all other groups

Answer 102

A

PDL cells in association with GTR may significantly promote periodontal regeneration in class 3 furcation defects surgically created in dogs

Answer 103

A

To characterize clinical signs and histologic finding in dogs with odontogenic cysts and to determine wheter histologic findings were associated with clinical features

Answer 104

A

29 dentigerous cyst 1 radicular cyst 1 lateral periodontal cyst 1 gingival inclusion cyst 9 had possible odontogenic keratocysts

Answer 105

A

9 dogs had clinical and histological features of keratocysts All of these cysts were located in the maxilla All of these cysts surrounded the roots of normally erupted teeth

Answer 106

A

Of the 29 dogs with dentigerous cysts: 23 had single cysts 5 had 2 cysts 1 had 3 cysts 30 were associated with an unerupted first premolar 6 were associated with an unerupted canine tooth 1 cysts was associated with both

Answer 107

A

Brachycephalic breeds

Answer 108

A

Odontogenic parakertinized cysts Similar to cysts reported in humans

Answer 109

A

To assess expression pattern and subcellular compartmentalization of 5-lipoxygenase in cutaneous, UV radiation induced and oral squamous cell carcinomas in cats To determine the effects of cyclooxygenarse or 5-lipoxygenase on proliferation or apoptosis in a feline oral squamous cell carcinoma cell line

Answer 110

A

60 archieved samples for 60 cats Retrospective immunohistochemical analysis 20 cutaneous, 20 UV radiation-induced, and 20 oral tumors

Answer 111

A

To find out if revasculatization and ingrowth of new pulp tissue is influenced by removal of the original pulp tissue before autotransplantation

Answer 112

A

29 single rooted teeth from 2 adult beagle dogs were transplanted after resection of the root tip 15 teeth= had the pulp tissue removed before transplantation 14= had original pulp left in situ Histological exam of teeth 90 days post-transplantation

Answer 113

A

12/14 (80%) of teeth with tissue left in situ showed a pulp chamber with at least 1/3-2/3 filled with viable tissue 11/15 teeth (79%) with pulp tissue removed had no or little vital tissue in the pulp chamber

Answer 114

A

Necrotic masses that develop in the original pulp tissue after transplation are a possible stimulating factor in the repair process of the pulp It is advisable to leave the pulp tissue in situ in autotransplanted teeth

Answer 115

A

To histologically evaluate the repair of rat tissue after pulpotomy and covering the pulp tissue with Copaifera oil resin, green propolis extract, fibrin sponge and iodoform-based paste

Answer 116

A

84 teeth in 21 rats received pulpotomies maxillary and mandibular first molars

Answer 117

A

Copaifera oil-resin group had the least inflammatory response Fibrin sponge group had the most inflammatory response and had microabscesses Copaifera oil-resin group had formation of mineralized tissue barrier in the pulp exposure area while all other groups did not

Answer 118

A

The inflammatory response was less severe, the area of pulp necrosis was smaller and more frequent formation of a mineralized tissue barrier was noted after pulpotomy was performed with Copaifera oil-resin compared with other materials tested.

Answer 119

A

To describe a lingual arch bar technique for fixation of rostral mandibular body fractures and report outcome in 16 cats

Answer 120

A

Cats with rostral mandibular body fractures just caudal to the canine teeth 10 bilateral, 6 unilateral

Answer 121

A

Orthodontic wire was used as a lingual arch bar by contouring it to the shape of the lingual side of the alveolar margin and secured by circum-mandibular wires passed interproximal to the teeth

Answer 122

A

11/16 cats could eat without a feeding tube within 24 hours Average time to fracture union was 42 days 5/16 cats had malocclusion however only 1 required correction…..(keep in mind this was a vet surgeon paper…….not a vet dentist paper!)

Answer 123

A

Samples of tooth plaque from 131 canines were collected, cultured and tested to help discern the presence of C. canimorsus

Answer 124

A

49.2% of canines sampled carried a species of Capnocytophaga 21.7% of canines sampled carried C. canimorsus A ndew species of Caphocytophaga may have been discovered in 16/131 dogs

Answer 125

A

male dogs and altered females and males (soooo like every dog except spayed females…) Small breed dogs most likely

Answer 126

A

C. ochracea C. haemolytica C. gingivalis C. granulosa

Answer 127

A

164000 dogs with periodontal disease compared to cohor of age-matched dogs with no periodontal disease from a national primary care practice (I suspect…Banfield…)

Answer 128

A

The hazard ration for azotemic CKD increased with increasing severity of periodontal disease Increasing severity of periodontal disease was also associated with serum creatinine >1.4 mg/dL and BUN >36 mg/dL independent of a veterinarian’s clinical diagnosis of CKD

Answer 129

A

Stage 1 = 1.8 Stage 2= 2.0 Stage 3/4= 2.7

Answer 130

A

To identify a method of composite application for MMF in cats that ensures the material will remain bonded during convalescence but be easy to remove with a low complication rate

Answer 131

A

88 Feline cadavers 22 cadavers in 4 groups CR= acid etch and composite resin CR+= acid etch, bonding agent, composite resin FR50= partial surface acid etch and flowable composite resin FR100= complete surface acid etch and flowable composite resin

Answer 132

A

Load to failure results: FR50 and FR100 had higher load to failure results compared to CR and CR+ results FR100 had a higher removal time and was associated with more complication compared to the other 3 groups Most frequent complication during material removal in group FR 100 was crown fracture

Answer 133

A

Partial coronal surface acid etch before use of flowable composte maintained a strong bond yet resulted in easy material removal with low complication rate

Answer 134

A

3/5 cats were able to eat while 2/5 could not Fixation maintained for 21-42 days 5/5 cats were eating normally and had good jaw function at follow up

Answer 135

A

To investigate if a construct of porous B-tricalcium phosphate combined with osteogenically induced bone marrow stromal cells could repair alveolar cleft and allow for subsequent orthodontic tooth movement in a canine model

Answer 136

A

12 alveolar osteotomy surgiers in 6 dogs were made bilaterally and randomly implanted with 1.) tissue engineered bone complex, 2.) B-TCP alone 3,) autologous bone obtained from iliac bone Countralateral alveolar defects were created in one animal and left untreated to serve as blank control to observe spontaneous healing of the defects Orthodontic tooth movement was initiated 8 weeks after surgical operation for 12 weeks

Answer 137

A

Group A with tissue engineered bone complex dramatically promoted new bone formation and mineralization and achieved a favorable height of the repaired alveolar when compared to group B B-TCP alone The overall effect of the tissue engineered bone was equivalent to autologous bone ; the physiological function of the alveolar bone was restored by allowing the adjacent teeth to move into the newly formed bone in the grafted region

Answer 138

A

The tissue engineering bone bone from the comfination of B-TCP and bMSC is a feasible clinical approach for patients with alveolar cleft and the subsequent orthodontic tooth movement

Answer 139

A

To identify the bacteria associated with canine gingivitis and periodontitis and to compare this with the normal oral flora

Answer 140

A

Swabs were obtained from the gingival margin of 3 dogs with gingivitis and 3 oral healthy control and subgingival plaque was collected from 3 dogs with periodontitis Bacterial culture Culture-independent methods

Answer 141

A

Top isolates normal group= uncultured bacterium 12.5% gingivitis group= Bacteroides heparinolyticus 10% periodontitis group= Actinomyces canis 20%

Answer 142

A

Top isolate normal group= Pseudomonas 30% gingivitis group= Porphyromonoas cangingivalis 16% periodontitis group= Desulfomicrobium orale 12%

Answer 143

A

Uncultured species: normal group=13% gingivitis group=2% periodontitis group=10.5% Novel species: normal group=38% gingivitis group= 38% periodontitis group=35%

Answer 144

A

To determine whether severity of periodontal disease was associated with systemic health indices in dogs and whether treatment of PD altered systemic health indices

Answer 145

A

38 dogs received baseline testing of PE, serum biochem, CBC, UA, serum C-reactive protein and microalbuminuria tests prior to PD treatment and then again 4 weeks after treatment

Answer 146

A

Significant rank correlations were found between attachment loss and platelet number, creatinine concentration and before and after treatment results of CRP. BUN concentration were significantly higher after treatment than before treatment

Answer 147

A

Increasing severity of attachment loss was associated with changes in systemic inflammatory variable and renal indices A decrease in CRP concentration after treatment was correlated with the severity of periodonitits The BUN concentration increased significantly after treatment.

Answer 148

A

initially debridement, followed several months later by a pre-maxillectomy

Answer 149

A

Trimethoprim Sulfa

Answer 150

A

Yup, thats a snake CT post-premaxillectomy. Look at their funky backfacing teeth and naturally disarticulated mandibles!!!

Answer 151

A

Yup, thats a snake CT post-premaxillectomy. Look at their funky backfacing teeth and naturally disarticulated mandibles!!!

Answer 152

A

Trimethoprim Sulfa

Answer 153

A

caudal,
rostral
medial

caudal is the largest

Answer 154

A

The dorsal, ventral, and ethmoidal conchae fill most of the nasal cavity.
The dorsal and ventral conchae attach on the ethmoid, nasal, and maxillary bones
Ethmoidal conchae attach only to the ethmoid bones, which form the rostral aspect of the cranial vault

Answer 155

A

Maxillary artery

Answer 156

A

Sphenopalatine

Answer 157

A

most of the palate, and more rostrally the major palatine artery

caudally minor palatine artery

Answer 158

A

internal ethmoidal arteries, coming through the cribriform plate

Answer 159

A

Infraorbital

Answer 160

A

facial vein

Answer 161

A

Facial nerve

Answer 162

A

Dorsal

Used to access access the nasal cavity and frontal sinuses.

Answer 163

A

ventral approach

the preferred method to access the nasal cavity and nasopharyngeal region.

Answer 164

A

CN - V - trigeminal - maxillary branch

Answer 165

A

Dorsal

Used to access access the nasal cavity and frontal sinuses.

Answer 166

A

ventral approach

the preferred method to access the nasal cavity and nasopharyngeal region.

Answer 167

A

Nasal adenocarcinoma

Answer 168

A

Nasal adenocarcinoma

Answer 169

A

CN - V - trigeminal - maxillary branch

Answer 170

A

Approach through soft palate on midline. Leave caudal border intact to help facilitate closure with less risk of dehiscence.

Answer 171

A

The combined rostrolateral rhinotomy approach

Answer 172

A

There are bacteria in the equine mouth including spirochaetes and treponema. The end.

Answer 173

A

Found in PUBMED, CAB abstracts, Web of Science - search string [(cat OR cats OR feline OR felines) AND (stomatitis OR gingivostomatitis) AND (treatment)]
Published in English and
Peer reviewed journal
spontaneous FCGS and original data (not a recapitulation without new data)
clearly defined treatment protocol.
Not as a sequela to other disease for which treatment was aimed (FIV/FeLV)

Answer 174

A

A - Histo

B - semi-quantitative scoring system +/- subjective and owner info

C - subjective and owner info without a semi-quantitative system

A- 2 studies

B - 7 studies

C - 7 studies

Answer 175

A

1 - randomized double blinded prospective clinical trial - 4 studies

2 - prospective clinical trial +/- control group - 3 Studies

3 - retrospective case series N>10 - 3 studies

4 - retrospective case series N<10 - 1 study

5 - case reports, expert opinions - 5 studies

4

Answer 176

A

10 medical

6 surgical

Answer 177

A

elicit immunomodulatory effects

Answer 178

A

reduce inflammation

Answer 179

A

Impedes viral replication

Answer 180

A

inhibits bacterial growth

Answer 181

A

accelerates healing and reduces inflammation

Answer 182

A

reduce immune stimulation via eliminating plaque

Answer 183

A

not reported

Answer 184

A

Each study used a different control treatment, NSAID, Steroid, diet etc.

Answer 185

A

4 articles created a novel custom scoring system
3 modelled a new system off an existing one
2 used the same scoring system
Some used body weight or owners perceptions

Answer 186

A

38 horses, assigned a malocclusion score, half treated and half not treated.

all ridden twice before and 3 times after treatment or non-treatment by the same professional rider.

assigned a rideability score

Answer 187

A

pre treatment score and treatment versus non treatment had no impact on rideability score.

Answer 188

A

Ten New Zealand white rabbit cadaver heads were scanned using CBCT and conventional CT.

The visibility of relevant dental and anatomic features (pulp cavity, germinal center, tooth outline, periodontal ligament) were scored and compared between conventional CT and CBCT.

Answer 189

A

In general, it was found that CBCT was superior to conventional CT when imaging the dentition. Importantly, the periodontal ligament was significantly (P < 0.01) more visible on CBCT than on conventional CT.

Answer 190

A

Ability to see the periodontal ligament with such detail may allow earlier detection and treatment of periodontal disease in rabbits.

Answer 191

A

•A total of 15 client-owned rabbits had CBCT, oral examination, dental charting, and dental treatment performed under general anesthesia.

Images were evaluated using transverse and custom multiplanar (MPR), 3D, and panoramic reconstructed images.

The CBCT findings were grouped into abnormalities that could be detected on conscious oral examination vs. abnormalities that could not be detected by conscious oral examination.

Answer 192

A

periodontal ligament space widening (14/15),
premolar and molar malocclusion (13/15),
apical elongation (13/15),
coronal elongation (12/15),
inflammatory tooth resorption (12/15),
periapical lucency (11/15),

Answer 193

A

Coronal elongation on oral exam associated with apical elongation on CBCT

Answer 194

A

To determine if:

(1) if degree of dental malocclusion assigned prior to dental treatment was associated with equine rideability, assessed using a standardized score and
(2) if performance dentistry improved this score.

Answer 195

A

Histopathology
Use control groups and allow pain medication but no other treatment
Switch control groups to test groups after a period of time (if failed)
Test new treatments and stop repeating the same studies!

Answer 196

A

Most studies use different scoring systems
No standardized control therapy
May studies single case reports
Many studies didn’t meet inclusion criteria

Answer 197

A

The combined rostrolateral rhinotomy approach

Answer 198

A

There are bacteria in the equine mouth including spirochaetes and treponema. The end.

Answer 199

A

Found in PUBMED, CAB abstracts, Web of Science - search string [(cat OR cats OR feline OR felines) AND (stomatitis OR gingivostomatitis) AND (treatment)]
Published in English and
Peer reviewed journal
spontaneous FCGS and original data (not a recapitulation without new data)
clearly defined treatment protocol.
Not as a sequela to other disease for which treatment was aimed (FIV/FeLV)

Answer 200

A

A - Histo

B - semi-quantitative scoring system +/- subjective and owner info

C - subjective and owner info without a semi-quantitative system

A- 2 studies

B - 7 studies

C - 7 studies

Answer 201

A

1 - randomized double blinded prospective clinical trial - 4 studies

2 - prospective clinical trial +/- control group - 3 Studies

3 - retrospective case series N>10 - 3 studies

4 - retrospective case series N<10 - 1 study

5 - case reports, expert opinions - 5 studies

4

Answer 202

A

10 medical

6 surgical

Answer 203

A

elicit immunomodulatory effects

Answer 204

A

reduce inflammation

Answer 205

A

Impedes viral replication

Answer 206

A

Coronal elongation on oral exam associated with apical elongation on CBCT

Answer 207

A

periodontal ligament space widening (14/15),
premolar and molar malocclusion (13/15),
apical elongation (13/15),
coronal elongation (12/15),
inflammatory tooth resorption (12/15),
periapical lucency (11/15),

Answer 208

A

•A total of 15 client-owned rabbits had CBCT, oral examination, dental charting, and dental treatment performed under general anesthesia.

Images were evaluated using transverse and custom multiplanar (MPR), 3D, and panoramic reconstructed images.

The CBCT findings were grouped into abnormalities that could be detected on conscious oral examination vs. abnormalities that could not be detected by conscious oral examination.

Answer 209

A

Ability to see the periodontal ligament with such detail may allow earlier detection and treatment of periodontal disease in rabbits.

Answer 210

A

In general, it was found that CBCT was superior to conventional CT when imaging the dentition. Importantly, the periodontal ligament was significantly (P < 0.01) more visible on CBCT than on conventional CT.

Answer 211

A

Ten New Zealand white rabbit cadaver heads were scanned using CBCT and conventional CT.

The visibility of relevant dental and anatomic features (pulp cavity, germinal center, tooth outline, periodontal ligament) were scored and compared between conventional CT and CBCT.

Answer 212

A

pre treatment score and treatment versus non treatment had no impact on rideability score.

Answer 213

A

38 horses, assigned a malocclusion score, half treated and half not treated.

all ridden twice before and 3 times after treatment or non-treatment by the same professional rider.

assigned a rideability score

Answer 214

A

To determine if:

(1) if degree of dental malocclusion assigned prior to dental treatment was associated with equine rideability, assessed using a standardized score and
(2) if performance dentistry improved this score.

Answer 215

A

Histopathology
Use control groups and allow pain medication but no other treatment
Switch control groups to test groups after a period of time (if failed)
Test new treatments and stop repeating the same studies!

Answer 216

A

Most studies use different scoring systems
No standardized control therapy
May studies single case reports
Many studies didn’t meet inclusion criteria

Answer 217

A

4 articles created a novel custom scoring system
3 modelled a new system off an existing one
2 used the same scoring system
Some used body weight or owners perceptions

Answer 218

A

Each study used a different control treatment, NSAID, Steroid, diet etc.

Answer 219

A

not reported

Answer 220

A

reduce immune stimulation via eliminating plaque

Answer 221

A

accelerates healing and reduces inflammation

Answer 222

A

inhibits bacterial growth

Answer 223

A

Approach through soft palate on midline. Leave caudal border intact to help facilitate closure with less risk of dehiscence.

Answer 224

A

Facial nerve

Answer 225

A

facial vein

Answer 226

A

Infraorbital

Answer 227

A

internal ethmoidal arteries, coming through the cribriform plate

Answer 228

A

most of the palate, and more rostrally the major palatine artery

caudally minor palatine artery

Answer 229

A

Sphenopalatine

Answer 230

A

Maxillary artery

Answer 231

A

The dorsal, ventral, and ethmoidal conchae fill most of the nasal cavity.
The dorsal and ventral conchae attach on the ethmoid, nasal, and maxillary bones
Ethmoidal conchae attach only to the ethmoid bones, which form the rostral aspect of the cranial vault

Answer 232

A

caudal,
rostral
medial

caudal is the largest

Answer 233

A

initially debridement, followed several months later by a pre-maxillectomy

Answer 234

A

Cocker spaniels and scottish terriers (7/14 dogs)

Answer 235

A

Halitosis (14/14)

Mandibular lymphadenopathy (11/14)

oral pain (9/14)

imappetance/difficulty eating (6/14)

NO DOG HAD A FEVER

Answer 236

A

Recent dental extractions (63.3% of cases)

Answer 237

A

neoplasia, electric burns and radiation therapy

Answer 238

A

60% in the maxilla, 40% in the mandible

Answer 239

A

Mandibular rad.

maxillary rads don’t correlate well with CT or surgical explorational extent of disease.

Answer 240

A

13 patients, 15 sites

Answer 241

A

Osteonecrosis of the jaw was considered with tumor recurrence (5 cases)

osteoradionecrosis of the jaw was considered when there was no tumor recurrence

Answer 242

A

8 in the radiation region

4 in an adjacent area of tissue

1 in the contralateral mandible

Answer 243

A

Range 2-44 months

median 9.8 months

mean 12.4 months

Answer 244

A

Co-60 RT,
high total doses,
short regimens with higher dose/fraction,
large field size

Answer 245

A

Normal appearing bone that bleeds readily.

Answer 246

A

megavoltage RT (higher energy than orthovoltage)
continuous hyperfractionated (more smaller fractions with less down time between)
corticosteroid use during treatment

Answer 247

A

Enamel-dentin-pulp fracture

Answer 248

A

Right elliptical frustrum (cone with amputated tip)

Right elliptical cone

Answer 249

A

27% of healthy cats and dogs have a TDI

Answer 250

A

72% of cases have a TDI

Answer 251

A

Measured dies from crowns with a laser scanner to evaluate surface area, and then used physical measurements to create a mathematical model to predict a crown pre’s surface area.

Answer 252

A

AB Overjet

CD overbite

overjet is how far the labial surface is rostral to where it should be (i.e. in line with labial surface of the mandibular incisors.)

Overbite is how far the occlusal surface is from where it should be (i.e. occluding with the mandibular incisors)

Answer 253

A

restrospective looking at correction of MAL2 in foals using a device like this. orthodontic wires and an incline plane

Answer 254

A

require laser scanning (elliptical frustrum) and complicated computer software mathematics

Answer 255

A

Circular cone - only requires 2 measurements and simple equation

need major base diameter and height

Answer 256

A

Right pyramidal cone and circular frustrum

both need 3 measurements and equations are more difficult.

Answer 257

A

surgical - bleeding major palatine arteries

post-op - device hurt mare’s udder

permanent incisors abnormal eruption in 7

valve diastema between maxillary 07’s and 08’s in ALL foals

Answer 258

A

Overjet 95%

Overbite 90%

Answer 259

A

25% complete reduction

51% to <5mm (functionally corrected)

Answer 260

A

starting at an early age

increased severity at diagnosis had a positive association with rate of correction

Answer 261

A

Dorsal to the caudal end of the soft palate

Answer 262

A

french bulldog

Answer 263

A

central artery supplying bloodflow for genetation of cementum is destroyed at eruption. lateral arteries located more coronally, and destroyed soon after eruption for mesial infundibulum, wheras the distal infundibulum has a more apically located artery which persists for longer after eruption.

Answer 264

A

harvested fat from 9 cats with non responsive FCGS.
grew mesenchymal stem cells from them and injected them IV back into the cats.
repeated injection after 1 month
20 million stem cells per injection

measured response to treatment via blood markers, histopath and a clinical scorinng system

Answer 265

A

High CD8+ cells and a low CD4:CD8 ratio

Answer 266

A

a. normal
b. hook and sharp enamel points

c step

d. diastemata and periodontal pockets.

N.B. Wave mouth not shown

Answer 267

A

MSCs inhibit T-cell proliferation,
alter B-cell function,
downregulate MHC II on antigen-presenting cells,
inhibit dendritic cell maturation and differentiation

Answer 268

A

increase in serum IL-6

Answer 269

A

5/7 or 71%

Answer 270

A

low percentage of CD8+ lo cells predicted response to therapy

Answer 271

A

(a) complete clinical remission or reduction in clinical disease severity,
(b) histologic resolution of the oral lesions,
(c) reduction of total circulating CD8+ T cells (and increased CD8lo cells),
(d) resolution of neutrophilia and reduction of serum proinflammatory cytokine concentrations (IL-1b and IFN-g), and
(e) increases in serum IL-6 levels.

Answer 272

A

Sharp enamel points

Hooks

Wave mouth

periodontal pockets

Answer 273

A

•A wolf implicated in a human attack had a messed up skull, dentition and brain.

Answer 274

A

As age increase,

PD Dz increases

ionized calcium decreases

Answer 275

A

ionized calcium goes up with worsening PdDz.

exactly opposite to other study by the same authors, which says it goes down as animals age and as PDDz gets worse.

Answer 276

A

TA is an analog of lysine. inhibits biofilm formation

also inhibits attachment of gingival epithelial cells

Answer 277

A

Height of the mandibular canal.

margin of error was 0.4 mm

Answer 278

A

ROSTRAL to M1

Answer 279

A

transillumination of the flap to ensure incorporation of AO artery.

Answer 280

A

4 bilateral, 2 unilateral

Answer 281

A

deep to the platysma and the sphincter colli profundus

dissect caudal to rostral

Answer 282

A

3/9 flaps dehisced at the distal edge.

thought they had extended flap beyond where the blood supply would reach

Answer 283

A

mild(3/9) or moderate (5/9) flap edema

Answer 284

A

dorsal border of the flap: incision along the ventral aspect of the zygomatic arch, extending caudally to either just beyond the vertical ear canal or to the wing of the atlas, depending on the desired length of the flap

The ventral border of the flap was created with a parallel incision at the level of the horizontal ramus of the mandible, and the caudal border of the flap was created by joining these ventral and dorsal incisions.

Answer 285

A

retrospective looking at CT’s of healthy mandibles and measuring cortical bone thickness at various locations

split into groups based on weight

Answer 286

A

need 2mm of thickness of cortical bone to generate compression with plate fixation and monocortical screws

Answer 287

A

bone thickness <2mm

in small dogs was >2mm at this location

Answer 288

A

fewer measurements,

since they start at the alveolar crest and measure thickness every 3 mm moving down the mandible,

indicates loss of mandibular height at this location

Answer 289

A

Bone is thinner in this location and so anchorage here should be avoided

Answer 290

A

6-9 mm below the alveolar margin

Answer 291

A

3 screws on either side

number of screws makes a bigger difference than having bicortical anchorage

Answer 292

A

replacement of bone with fibrous tissue with various degrees of ossification and mineralization;

bland spindle shaped cells surrounding woven bone trabeculae with no evidence of malignancy

Answer 293

A

OF – ossifying fibroma
- appears well-circumscribed with sharply defined borders
FD fibrous dysplasia
- characterized by poorly discernible borders that blend in with the surrounding bone (ill-defined margins)

Answer 294

A

low grade osteosarcoma

Bone invasion and subtle cytologic atypia on histo

imaging may be suggestive of a more aggressive lesion

Answer 295

A

arise on the surface of bones that ossify by intramembranous route

histologically distinct, and well circumscribed on rads

Answer 296

A

Osteoma (not a true POFL, but similar appearance)

ossifying fibroma

Answer 297

A

Fibrous dysplasia

low grade osteosarcoma

Answer 298

A

Ossifying fibroma

fibrous dysplasia

Answer 299

A

at tooth apices,

well circumscribed

smaller in size than other lesions, and self-limiting

Answer 300

A

•Application of an antibacterial and anti-oxidant gel reduced oral malodour

Answer 301

A

Rests of serres (remnants of dental lamina)

Answer 302

A

luminal parakeratotic or, less commonly, orthokeratotic keratin,
surrounded by a thin cystic lining of squamous epithelium 6-10 cell layers thick.
epithelial lining is characterized by a prominently palisading layer of columnar basal cells

Answer 303

A

Cyst lining - thin and friable and frequently folded or collapse

Cyst content - , viscous, opaque, pale yellow material

Answer 304

A

No further treatment, older cat, seemed comfortable, would have needed mandibulectomy.

Answer 305

A

activation of opioid receptors preferentially of the u-subtype
Enhancement of the extra-cellular concentrations serotonin and noradrenaline by blocking reuptake
additional release of serotonin

Answer 306

A

O-demethyl tramadol

Answer 307

A

tail flick test - used a hot heat lamp directed at the tail and measured delay in flick in response to heat condition

Answer 308

A

tramadol did nothing - no response measurable

both of the others caused anti-nociception

Answer 309

A

No analgesic effect of IV tramadol

low concentration of the active metabolite O-demethyl tramadol (M1)

Answer 310

A

near the mandibular first molar

Answer 311

A

buccal mucosa or gingiva of mandibular M1 (6/7)

(other was mandibular P4)

Answer 312

A

Mandbular M1 (7/11)

Mandibular fourth preolar (4/11)

Answer 313

A

(type 1; seven lesions [41%])
- predominantly inflammatory, classified as chronic focal lymphoplasmocytic mucositis
type 2; 10 lesions [59%]
- predominantly hyperplastic, classified as chronic focal fibrovascular hyperplastic mucositis

Answer 314

A

foveae and clefts - contact the gingiva with different degrees of contact

proliferations - contact aveolar or buccal mucosa

Answer 315

A

never occurred!

Answer 316

A

retrospective review of records from dogs with melanoma, treated with surgery +/- adjuvant treatment,

151 cases from a variety of clinics

Answer 317

A

98 dogs had surgery alone

12 had radiation

32 had chemo (26 had a platinum based)

14 dogs had a melanoma vaccine

Answer 318

A

no effect was detected

Answer 319

A

Age >12

maximum tumor dimension

intralesional excision (vs other types of excision) had a worse prognosis.

Answer 320

A

1.33 ng/mL

Answer 321

A

1 - hypersalivation

Answer 322

A

sedation (6/8)

euphoria (4/8)

Answer 323

A

Fentanyl did not accumulate over the time period,

Plasma concentration actually went down over the infusion period.

Answer 324

A

None in this case series

Answer 325

A

mild oozing from the surgery site at 2 weeks,

gingival cyst in 1 dog,

all resolved by 4 weeks

Answer 326

A

development of fatty marrow void

BMP’s can also induce adipogenesis in addition to or instead of osteocytes

Answer 327

A

used a single bigger plate (3mm locking with locking screws) in a more ventral location than other reports where 2 plates were used.

Answer 328

A

0.5mg/mL rhBMP-2 at a volume corresponding

50% of the volume of the prepared CRM.

Answer 329

A

roughly 50% of the density in the 2 dogs with follow up CT.

porosity higher in 1 dog, and lower in the other.

Answer 330

A

11.5h surgery, 12.5h anesthesia

Answer 331

A

Sloughing of some of the skin (healed by 2nd intention)

Answer 332

A

They were good,

no mandibular drift

Answer 333

A

extreme length of the successful anesthetic period
the ability of the horse to cope postoperatively with the large mandibular defect

Answer 334

A

abraded teeth - 52% of teeth

98% of individuals

Answer 335

A

Perio - 5.4% of teeth (74% of animals)

Tooth fracture - 4.5% of teeth

Answer 336

A

Score of 5/10

80% accutare in determining whether or not pockets >3mm exist

Answer 337

A

buccal maxillary gingival margin

Answer 338

A

•The enamel hypoplasia was associated with a 5-bp deletion in exon 10 of the enamelin (ENAM) gene.

Answer 339

A

enamel defects 14%

carriers 30%

Answer 340

A

•, 84.8% of the teeth showing radiographic evidence of dental disease provided additional and important findings

Answer 341

A

Alveolar bone loss

Answer 342

A

36 dogs, 4 groups: systemic azithromycin, placebo capsule, azithromycin toothpaste, placecbo toothpaste
Treated for 4 weeks, evaluated at 0, 2, 4, and 8 weeks

Answer 343

A

significant decrease in sulcus depth at the 8 week measurement

Answer 344

A

significant decrease in sulcus depth at 2 4 and 8 weeks

Answer 345

A

No significant difference in global scores or tooth length (measured free gingival margin to the tip of the crown)

Answer 346

A

claim that healing within the depth of the sulcus occurred, and decreased pocket depth by periodontium re-attaching to the tooth cementum

Answer 347

A

vomiting and diarrhea.

most common in the azithromycin capsule group

Answer 348

A

regeneration of pulp in at least apical third

Answer 349

A

0.32 - 0.65mm

Answer 350

A

•4% of sea otters have TMJ OA

Answer 351

A

•most prominent changes were the presence of osteophytes and subchondral bone defects and porosity

Answer 352

A

mandibular 09/10

Answer 353

A

90% mandible, 10% maxilla

Answer 354

A

•6 cases of inadvertently damaged teeth – 4 dentin exposed, 2 pulp exposed

Answer 355

A

•showed that 72.6% had complete remission of clinical signs

permanent (for the duration of this study) in 50.5% and temporary in 22%.

Answer 356

A

quidding of food (76%)

weight loss (33%)

Answer 357

A

Clinical improvement was sometimes delayed, with

19% taking >4 weeks following treatment for improvement

Answer 358

A

SCC - 32%

Malignant melanoma - 30%

Answer 359

A

216 days for dogs with squamous cell carcinoma

241 days for dogs with malignant melanoma

Answer 360

A

lingual tumors >2cm in diameter at diagnosis had a significantly shorter survival time than did dogs with tumors < 2 cm

Answer 361

A

grouped all tumor types together for some of the analyses
16 tumor types, 14 institutions, did not treat the same or follow up the same

Answer 362

A

median met free interval was 627 days

median survival time 525 days

Answer 363

A

90% of the dogs that died rel’d to tumor were dt metastatic disease

Answer 364

A

Histologic grade of I - better prognosis than 2 or 3

Mitotic index <40 better prognosis (p=0.0507)

Answer 365

A

survival times were longer (1023 days versus 525 days), but not significantly so due to small numbers

Answer 366

A

inflammatory cells adjacent to the root end filling

Answer 367

A

increased the probability of an oral health problem in both cats and dogs

Answer 368

A

significant beneficial effect of feeding only commercial pet food compared with the home prepared diet when at least part of the diet was composed of dry pet food

Answer 369

A

•Tooth brushing and the offering of dental treats

Answer 370

A

Greater vertical alveolar bone loss when remodelling complete

Answer 371

A

CK 14, CK 5/6

Answer 372

A

the main distinction between these tissues is that the disc is a fibrocartilage, whilst the attachments are generally fibrous tissues

Answer 373

A

segmental mandibular defect created behind M1 or at M1 (with extraction)

filled with autogenous iliac crest bone graft and 1.5 miniplate used for fixation

rads and histopath after 20 weeks

Answer 374

A

formation of woven bone in rostral and caudal mandible/graft interfaces

no cases of malunion or non-union

Answer 375

A

The use of miniplate 1.5 for the fixation of mandibular defects filled with autogenous bone in cats provided the main goals in the treatment of mandibular fractures: bone union, normal dental occlusion and immediate return to oral alimentation

Answer 376

A

paper point collection from sulcus of P4’s of labradors with no Pd Dz.

bacterial Culture, followed by identification of isolates

Answer 377

A

this was a comparison of bacterial isolates obtained when cotton swabs were rolled over the teeth/gums versus using paper points to get samples from the sulcus

Answer 378

A

more bacteria and more anaerobes isolated when using a paper point to sample the sulcus than rolling a cotton swab over the teeth and gingiva.

Answer 379

A

First study to use culture independent methodology in dogs

Answer 380

A

Culture - uncultured bacterium, PCR - pseudomonas spp.

Answer 381

A

Culture - Bacteroides, Pasteurella; PCR - Porphyromonas cangingivalis

Answer 382

A

Culture - Actinomyces canis PCR - Desulfomicrobium orale

Answer 383

A

novel species account for 38.2%, 38.3% and 35.3%, of clones in the normal, gingivitis and
periodontitis groups, respectively

Answer 384

A

Feline Calicivirus

Answer 385

A

FCV RNA in 53.8% of affected cats and 14% in controls

a significant difference was also found in the prevalence of antibodies to FCV between the cats with chronic gingivostomatitis 78.8%, vs controls (58.0%).

Answer 386

A

Nothing!!!!

Answer 387

A

used a historical control group

Answer 388

A

58 dogs diagnosed with stage II or III oral malignant melanoma

4 injection series of human tyrosinase vaccine, then boostered q 6 months

monitored for adverse reactions and survival times

Answer 389

A

Tyrosinase is a melanoma differentiation antigen (essential to melanin synthesis)

Answer 390

A

Controls - 324 days

MST not reached for vaccinated animals

Answer 391

A

controls - 156 days

Vaccinated animals 464 days

Answer 392

A

The mandible

Answer 393

A

No difference

Answer 394

A

MTA, AH plus, Glass ionomer cement and gutta percha

Answer 395

A

measurement of thickness of subocclusal dentin in cheek teeth with overgrowth and in normal cheek teeth

Answer 396

A

No significant difference

average dentin thickness about 11 mm

Answer 397

A

dentin significantly thicker in overgrown maxillary teeth versus control (~12.5 mm versus 9.4 mm)

Answer 398

A

in 14/24 (58%) of teeth, the height of the overgrowth was higher than the subocclusal dentin

Answer 399

A

In 58% of these teeth, would expose pulp tissue.

Answer 400

A

equine CT overgrowths should be gradually reduced, by a few millimetres at a time, over a prolonged period.
clinical purpose of reducing overgrown CT should not be to make them level with adjacent normal-height teeth, but to prevent them from causing soft tissue trauma and/ or mechanical obstruction of normal mastication (rarely a need to fully reduce them)

Answer 401

A

Mandibular 06

Answer 402

A

mandibular. No infundibulae, no cingulae.

Answer 403

A

6 pulp horns (no horn 6, skip 5 to 7)

Answer 404

A

Maxillary - has infundibulae and has cingulae

Answer 405

A

black spots are centre of infundibulae, where arteries supply cementum with blood during development. Infundibular caries can occur here

Answer 406

A

maxillary 11. you can tell because there are 7 pulp horns, and no other tooth has that. number goes up to 8, but there is no 6 (only on 06’s is there a 6)

Answer 407

A

Here it is again!

Here are some tricks -

mandibular teeth have a single continuously running line of enamel with no infundibulae
Maxillary teeth have 2 infundibulae each, which are additional ‘irregular loops’ of enamel in the middle of the tooth, usually pictured with a little black spot in the middle (this is not a pulp horn.)
We usually number the buccal pulp horns first, from front to back (1 and 2) Then the palatal/labial horns, also front to back. on mandibular teeth, 3, 4, 5 are in a line, front to back. On maxillary teeth, horn 5 is the palatal-most (between 3 and 4)
only 06’s have a horn 6, it is at the ‘rostral most point of the tooth’
maxillary 11’s have 2 small pulp horns at the very back, 7 and 8 (they have no 6) for a total of 7 pulp horns

mandibular 11’s have a horn 7 at the very back, for a total of 6 pulp horns (again no 6)

My best bet: Memorize the basic pattern for a maxillary and mandibular 09. for all 06’s add a pulp horn 6 at the most mesial extent. For a maxillary 11, add a 7 bucally and an 8 palatally For mandibular 11’s add a 7 at the most distal extent.

Sigh.

Answer 408

A

used a historical control group

Answer 409

A

Here it is again!

Here are some tricks -

mandibular teeth have a single continuously running line of enamel with no infundibulae
Maxillary teeth have 2 infundibulae each, which are additional ‘irregular loops’ of enamel in the middle of the tooth, usually pictured with a little black spot in the middle (this is not a pulp horn.)
We usually number the buccal pulp horns first, from front to back (1 and 2) Then the palatal/labial horns, also front to back. on mandibular teeth, 3, 4, 5 are in a line, front to back. On maxillary teeth, horn 5 is the palatal-most (between 3 and 4)
only 06’s have a horn 6, it is at the ‘rostral most point of the tooth’
maxillary 11’s have 2 small pulp horns at the very back, 7 and 8 (they have no 6) for a total of 7 pulp horns

mandibular 11’s have a horn 7 at the very back, for a total of 6 pulp horns (again no 6)

My best bet: Memorize the basic pattern for a maxillary and mandibular 09. for all 06’s add a pulp horn 6 at the most mesial extent. For a maxillary 11, add a 7 bucally and an 8 palatally For mandibular 11’s add a 7 at the most distal extent.

Sigh.

Answer 410

A

maxillary 11. you can tell because there are 7 pulp horns, and no other tooth has that. number goes up to 8, but there is no 6 (only on 06’s is there a 6)

Answer 411

A

black spots are centre of infundibulae, where arteries supply cementum with blood during development. Infundibular caries can occur here

Answer 412

A

Maxillary - has infundibulae and has cingulae

Answer 413

A

6 pulp horns (no horn 6, skip 5 to 7)

Answer 414

A

mandibular. No infundibulae, no cingulae.

Answer 415

A

Mandibular 06

Answer 416

A

equine CT overgrowths should be gradually reduced, by a few millimetres at a time, over a prolonged period.
clinical purpose of reducing overgrown CT should not be to make them level with adjacent normal-height teeth, but to prevent them from causing soft tissue trauma and/ or mechanical obstruction of normal mastication (rarely a need to fully reduce them)

Answer 417

A

In 58% of these teeth, would expose pulp tissue.

Answer 418

A

in 14/24 (58%) of teeth, the height of the overgrowth was higher than the subocclusal dentin

Answer 419

A

dentin significantly thicker in overgrown maxillary teeth versus control (~12.5 mm versus 9.4 mm)

Answer 420

A

No significant difference

average dentin thickness about 11 mm

Answer 421

A

measurement of thickness of subocclusal dentin in cheek teeth with overgrowth and in normal cheek teeth

Answer 422

A

MTA, AH plus, Glass ionomer cement and gutta percha

Answer 423

A

No difference

Answer 424

A

The mandible

Answer 425

A

controls - 156 days

Vaccinated animals 464 days

Answer 426

A

Controls - 324 days

MST not reached for vaccinated animals

Answer 427

A

Tyrosinase is a melanoma differentiation antigen (essential to melanin synthesis)

Answer 428

A

58 dogs diagnosed with stage II or III oral malignant melanoma

4 injection series of human tyrosinase vaccine, then boostered q 6 months

monitored for adverse reactions and survival times

Answer 429

A

Nothing!!!!

Answer 430

A

FCV RNA in 53.8% of affected cats and 14% in controls

a significant difference was also found in the prevalence of antibodies to FCV between the cats with chronic gingivostomatitis 78.8%, vs controls (58.0%).

Answer 431

A

Feline Calicivirus

Answer 432

A

novel species account for 38.2%, 38.3% and 35.3%, of clones in the normal, gingivitis and
periodontitis groups, respectively

Answer 433

A

Culture - Actinomyces canis PCR - Desulfomicrobium orale

Answer 434

A

Culture - Bacteroides, Pasteurella; PCR - Porphyromonas cangingivalis

Answer 435

A

Culture - uncultured bacterium, PCR - pseudomonas spp.

Answer 436

A

Culture - uncultured bacterium, PCR - pseudomonas spp.

Answer 437

A

equine CT overgrowths should be gradually reduced, by a few millimetres at a time, over a prolonged period.
clinical purpose of reducing overgrown CT should not be to make them level with adjacent normal-height teeth, but to prevent them from causing soft tissue trauma and/ or mechanical obstruction of normal mastication (rarely a need to fully reduce them)

Answer 438

A

Here it is again!

Here are some tricks -

mandibular teeth have a single continuously running line of enamel with no infundibulae
Maxillary teeth have 2 infundibulae each, which are additional ‘irregular loops’ of enamel in the middle of the tooth, usually pictured with a little black spot in the middle (this is not a pulp horn.)
We usually number the buccal pulp horns first, from front to back (1 and 2) Then the palatal/labial horns, also front to back. on mandibular teeth, 3, 4, 5 are in a line, front to back. On maxillary teeth, horn 5 is the palatal-most (between 3 and 4)
only 06’s have a horn 6, it is at the ‘rostral most point of the tooth’
maxillary 11’s have 2 small pulp horns at the very back, 7 and 8 (they have no 6) for a total of 7 pulp horns

mandibular 11’s have a horn 7 at the very back, for a total of 6 pulp horns (again no 6)

My best bet: Memorize the basic pattern for a maxillary and mandibular 09. for all 06’s add a pulp horn 6 at the most mesial extent. For a maxillary 11, add a 7 bucally and an 8 palatally For mandibular 11’s add a 7 at the most distal extent.

Sigh.

Answer 439

A

maxillary 11. you can tell because there are 7 pulp horns, and no other tooth has that. number goes up to 8, but there is no 6 (only on 06’s is there a 6)

Answer 440

A

black spots are centre of infundibulae, where arteries supply cementum with blood during development. Infundibular caries can occur here

Answer 441

A

Maxillary - has infundibulae and has cingulae

Answer 442

A

6 pulp horns (no horn 6, skip 5 to 7)

Answer 443

A

mandibular. No infundibulae, no cingulae.

Answer 444

A

Mandibular 06

Answer 445

A

In 58% of these teeth, would expose pulp tissue.

Answer 446

A

in 14/24 (58%) of teeth, the height of the overgrowth was higher than the subocclusal dentin

Answer 447

A

dentin significantly thicker in overgrown maxillary teeth versus control (~12.5 mm versus 9.4 mm)

Answer 448

A

No significant difference

average dentin thickness about 11 mm

Answer 449

A

measurement of thickness of subocclusal dentin in cheek teeth with overgrowth and in normal cheek teeth

Answer 450

A

MTA, AH plus, Glass ionomer cement and gutta percha

Answer 451

A

No difference

Answer 452

A

The mandible

Answer 453

A

controls - 156 days

Vaccinated animals 464 days

Answer 454

A

Controls - 324 days

MST not reached for vaccinated animals

Answer 455

A

Tyrosinase is a melanoma differentiation antigen (essential to melanin synthesis)

Answer 456

A

58 dogs diagnosed with stage II or III oral malignant melanoma

4 injection series of human tyrosinase vaccine, then boostered q 6 months

monitored for adverse reactions and survival times

Answer 457

A

used a historical control group

Answer 458

A

Nothing!!!!

Answer 459

A

FCV RNA in 53.8% of affected cats and 14% in controls

a significant difference was also found in the prevalence of antibodies to FCV between the cats with chronic gingivostomatitis 78.8%, vs controls (58.0%).

Answer 460

A

Feline Calicivirus

Answer 461

A

novel species account for 38.2%, 38.3% and 35.3%, of clones in the normal, gingivitis and
periodontitis groups, respectively

Answer 462

A

Culture - Actinomyces canis PCR - Desulfomicrobium orale

Answer 463

A

Culture - Bacteroides, Pasteurella; PCR - Porphyromonas cangingivalis

Answer 464

A

Culture - uncultured bacterium, PCR - pseudomonas spp.

Answer 465

A

Here it is again!

Here are some tricks -

mandibular teeth have a single continuously running line of enamel with no infundibulae
Maxillary teeth have 2 infundibulae each, which are additional ‘irregular loops’ of enamel in the middle of the tooth, usually pictured with a little black spot in the middle (this is not a pulp horn.)
We usually number the buccal pulp horns first, from front to back (1 and 2) Then the palatal/labial horns, also front to back. on mandibular teeth, 3, 4, 5 are in a line, front to back. On maxillary teeth, horn 5 is the palatal-most (between 3 and 4)
only 06’s have a horn 6, it is at the ‘rostral most point of the tooth’
maxillary 11’s have 2 small pulp horns at the very back, 7 and 8 (they have no 6) for a total of 7 pulp horns

mandibular 11’s have a horn 7 at the very back, for a total of 6 pulp horns (again no 6)

My best bet: Memorize the basic pattern for a maxillary and mandibular 09. for all 06’s add a pulp horn 6 at the most mesial extent. For a maxillary 11, add a 7 bucally and an 8 palatally For mandibular 11’s add a 7 at the most distal extent.

Sigh.

Answer 466

A

maxillary 11. you can tell because there are 7 pulp horns, and no other tooth has that. number goes up to 8, but there is no 6 (only on 06’s is there a 6)

Answer 467

A

black spots are centre of infundibulae, where arteries supply cementum with blood during development. Infundibular caries can occur here

Answer 468

A

Maxillary - has infundibulae and has cingulae

Answer 469

A

6 pulp horns (no horn 6, skip 5 to 7)

Answer 470

A

mandibular. No infundibulae, no cingulae.

Answer 471

A

Mandibular 06

Answer 472

A

equine CT overgrowths should be gradually reduced, by a few millimetres at a time, over a prolonged period.
clinical purpose of reducing overgrown CT should not be to make them level with adjacent normal-height teeth, but to prevent them from causing soft tissue trauma and/ or mechanical obstruction of normal mastication (rarely a need to fully reduce them)

Answer 473

A

In 58% of these teeth, would expose pulp tissue.

Answer 474

A

in 14/24 (58%) of teeth, the height of the overgrowth was higher than the subocclusal dentin

Answer 475

A

dentin significantly thicker in overgrown maxillary teeth versus control (~12.5 mm versus 9.4 mm)

Answer 476

A

No significant difference

average dentin thickness about 11 mm

Answer 477

A

measurement of thickness of subocclusal dentin in cheek teeth with overgrowth and in normal cheek teeth

Answer 478

A

MTA, AH plus, Glass ionomer cement and gutta percha

Answer 479

A

No difference

Answer 480

A

The mandible

Answer 481

A

controls - 156 days

Vaccinated animals 464 days

Answer 482

A

Controls - 324 days

MST not reached for vaccinated animals

Answer 483

A

Tyrosinase is a melanoma differentiation antigen (essential to melanin synthesis)

Answer 484

A

58 dogs diagnosed with stage II or III oral malignant melanoma

4 injection series of human tyrosinase vaccine, then boostered q 6 months

monitored for adverse reactions and survival times

Answer 485

A

used a historical control group

Answer 486

A

Nothing!!!!

Answer 487

A

FCV RNA in 53.8% of affected cats and 14% in controls

a significant difference was also found in the prevalence of antibodies to FCV between the cats with chronic gingivostomatitis 78.8%, vs controls (58.0%).

Answer 488

A

Feline Calicivirus

Answer 489

A

novel species account for 38.2%, 38.3% and 35.3%, of clones in the normal, gingivitis and
periodontitis groups, respectively

Answer 490

A

Culture - Actinomyces canis PCR - Desulfomicrobium orale

Answer 491

A

Culture - Bacteroides, Pasteurella; PCR - Porphyromonas cangingivalis

Answer 492

A

First study to use culture independent methodology in dogs

Answer 493

A

First study to use culture independent methodology in dogs

Answer 494

A

First study to use culture independent methodology in dogs

Answer 495

A

more bacteria and more anaerobes isolated when using a paper point to sample the sulcus than rolling a cotton swab over the teeth and gingiva.

Answer 496

A

more bacteria and more anaerobes isolated when using a paper point to sample the sulcus than rolling a cotton swab over the teeth and gingiva.

Answer 497

A

more bacteria and more anaerobes isolated when using a paper point to sample the sulcus than rolling a cotton swab over the teeth and gingiva.

Answer 498

A

more bacteria and more anaerobes isolated when using a paper point to sample the sulcus than rolling a cotton swab over the teeth and gingiva.

Answer 499

A

First study to use culture independent methodology in dogs

Answer 500

A

Culture - uncultured bacterium, PCR - pseudomonas spp.

Answer 501

A

Culture - Bacteroides, Pasteurella; PCR - Porphyromonas cangingivalis

Answer 502

A

Culture - Actinomyces canis PCR - Desulfomicrobium orale

Answer 503

A

novel species account for 38.2%, 38.3% and 35.3%, of clones in the normal, gingivitis and
periodontitis groups, respectively

Answer 504

A

Feline Calicivirus

Answer 505

A

FCV RNA in 53.8% of affected cats and 14% in controls

a significant difference was also found in the prevalence of antibodies to FCV between the cats with chronic gingivostomatitis 78.8%, vs controls (58.0%).

Answer 506

A

Nothing!!!!

Answer 507

A

used a historical control group

Answer 508

A

Here it is again!

Here are some tricks -

mandibular teeth have a single continuously running line of enamel with no infundibulae
Maxillary teeth have 2 infundibulae each, which are additional ‘irregular loops’ of enamel in the middle of the tooth, usually pictured with a little black spot in the middle (this is not a pulp horn.)
We usually number the buccal pulp horns first, from front to back (1 and 2) Then the palatal/labial horns, also front to back. on mandibular teeth, 3, 4, 5 are in a line, front to back. On maxillary teeth, horn 5 is the palatal-most (between 3 and 4)
only 06’s have a horn 6, it is at the ‘rostral most point of the tooth’
maxillary 11’s have 2 small pulp horns at the very back, 7 and 8 (they have no 6) for a total of 7 pulp horns

mandibular 11’s have a horn 7 at the very back, for a total of 6 pulp horns (again no 6)

My best bet: Memorize the basic pattern for a maxillary and mandibular 09. for all 06’s add a pulp horn 6 at the most mesial extent. For a maxillary 11, add a 7 bucally and an 8 palatally For mandibular 11’s add a 7 at the most distal extent.

Sigh.

Answer 509

A

maxillary 11. you can tell because there are 7 pulp horns, and no other tooth has that. number goes up to 8, but there is no 6 (only on 06’s is there a 6)

Answer 510

A

black spots are centre of infundibulae, where arteries supply cementum with blood during development. Infundibular caries can occur here

Answer 511

A

Maxillary - has infundibulae and has cingulae

Answer 512

A

6 pulp horns (no horn 6, skip 5 to 7)

Answer 513

A

mandibular. No infundibulae, no cingulae.

Answer 514

A

Mandibular 06

Answer 515

A

equine CT overgrowths should be gradually reduced, by a few millimetres at a time, over a prolonged period.
clinical purpose of reducing overgrown CT should not be to make them level with adjacent normal-height teeth, but to prevent them from causing soft tissue trauma and/ or mechanical obstruction of normal mastication (rarely a need to fully reduce them)

Answer 516

A

In 58% of these teeth, would expose pulp tissue.

Answer 517

A

in 14/24 (58%) of teeth, the height of the overgrowth was higher than the subocclusal dentin

Answer 518

A

dentin significantly thicker in overgrown maxillary teeth versus control (~12.5 mm versus 9.4 mm)

Answer 519

A

No significant difference

average dentin thickness about 11 mm

Answer 520

A

measurement of thickness of subocclusal dentin in cheek teeth with overgrowth and in normal cheek teeth

Answer 521

A

MTA, AH plus, Glass ionomer cement and gutta percha

Answer 522

A

No difference

Answer 523

A

The mandible

Answer 524

A

controls - 156 days

Vaccinated animals 464 days

Answer 525

A

Controls - 324 days

MST not reached for vaccinated animals

Answer 526

A

Tyrosinase is a melanoma differentiation antigen (essential to melanin synthesis)

Answer 527

A

58 dogs diagnosed with stage II or III oral malignant melanoma

4 injection series of human tyrosinase vaccine, then boostered q 6 months

monitored for adverse reactions and survival times

Answer 528

A

this was a comparison of bacterial isolates obtained when cotton swabs were rolled over the teeth/gums versus using paper points to get samples from the sulcus

Answer 529

A

Here it is again!

Here are some tricks -

mandibular teeth have a single continuously running line of enamel with no infundibulae
Maxillary teeth have 2 infundibulae each, which are additional ‘irregular loops’ of enamel in the middle of the tooth, usually pictured with a little black spot in the middle (this is not a pulp horn.)
We usually number the buccal pulp horns first, from front to back (1 and 2) Then the palatal/labial horns, also front to back. on mandibular teeth, 3, 4, 5 are in a line, front to back. On maxillary teeth, horn 5 is the palatal-most (between 3 and 4)
only 06’s have a horn 6, it is at the ‘rostral most point of the tooth’
maxillary 11’s have 2 small pulp horns at the very back, 7 and 8 (they have no 6) for a total of 7 pulp horns

mandibular 11’s have a horn 7 at the very back, for a total of 6 pulp horns (again no 6)

My best bet: Memorize the basic pattern for a maxillary and mandibular 09. for all 06’s add a pulp horn 6 at the most mesial extent. For a maxillary 11, add a 7 bucally and an 8 palatally For mandibular 11’s add a 7 at the most distal extent.

Sigh.

Answer 530

A

maxillary 11. you can tell because there are 7 pulp horns, and no other tooth has that. number goes up to 8, but there is no 6 (only on 06’s is there a 6)

Answer 531

A

black spots are centre of infundibulae, where arteries supply cementum with blood during development. Infundibular caries can occur here

Answer 532

A

Maxillary - has infundibulae and has cingulae

Answer 533

A

6 pulp horns (no horn 6, skip 5 to 7)

Answer 534

A

mandibular. No infundibulae, no cingulae.

Answer 535

A

Mandibular 06

Answer 536

A

equine CT overgrowths should be gradually reduced, by a few millimetres at a time, over a prolonged period.
clinical purpose of reducing overgrown CT should not be to make them level with adjacent normal-height teeth, but to prevent them from causing soft tissue trauma and/ or mechanical obstruction of normal mastication (rarely a need to fully reduce them)

Answer 537

A

In 58% of these teeth, would expose pulp tissue.

Answer 538

A

in 14/24 (58%) of teeth, the height of the overgrowth was higher than the subocclusal dentin

Answer 539

A

dentin significantly thicker in overgrown maxillary teeth versus control (~12.5 mm versus 9.4 mm)

Answer 540

A

No significant difference

average dentin thickness about 11 mm

Answer 541

A

measurement of thickness of subocclusal dentin in cheek teeth with overgrowth and in normal cheek teeth

Answer 542

A

MTA, AH plus, Glass ionomer cement and gutta percha

Answer 543

A

No difference

Answer 544

A

The mandible

Answer 545

A

controls - 156 days

Vaccinated animals 464 days

Answer 546

A

Controls - 324 days

MST not reached for vaccinated animals

Answer 547

A

Tyrosinase is a melanoma differentiation antigen (essential to melanin synthesis)

Answer 548

A

58 dogs diagnosed with stage II or III oral malignant melanoma

4 injection series of human tyrosinase vaccine, then boostered q 6 months

monitored for adverse reactions and survival times

Answer 549

A

used a historical control group

Answer 550

A

Nothing!!!!

Answer 551

A

FCV RNA in 53.8% of affected cats and 14% in controls

a significant difference was also found in the prevalence of antibodies to FCV between the cats with chronic gingivostomatitis 78.8%, vs controls (58.0%).

Answer 552

A

Feline Calicivirus

Answer 553

A

novel species account for 38.2%, 38.3% and 35.3%, of clones in the normal, gingivitis and
periodontitis groups, respectively

Answer 554

A

Culture - Actinomyces canis PCR - Desulfomicrobium orale

Answer 555

A

Culture - Bacteroides, Pasteurella; PCR - Porphyromonas cangingivalis

Answer 556

A

Culture - uncultured bacterium, PCR - pseudomonas spp.

Answer 557

A

First study to use culture independent methodology in dogs

Answer 558

A

more bacteria and more anaerobes isolated when using a paper point to sample the sulcus than rolling a cotton swab over the teeth and gingiva.

Answer 559

A

this was a comparison of bacterial isolates obtained when cotton swabs were rolled over the teeth/gums versus using paper points to get samples from the sulcus

Answer 560

A

more bacteria and more anaerobes isolated when using a paper point to sample the sulcus than rolling a cotton swab over the teeth and gingiva.

Answer 561

A

First study to use culture independent methodology in dogs

Answer 562

A

Here it is again!

Here are some tricks -

mandibular teeth have a single continuously running line of enamel with no infundibulae
Maxillary teeth have 2 infundibulae each, which are additional ‘irregular loops’ of enamel in the middle of the tooth, usually pictured with a little black spot in the middle (this is not a pulp horn.)
We usually number the buccal pulp horns first, from front to back (1 and 2) Then the palatal/labial horns, also front to back. on mandibular teeth, 3, 4, 5 are in a line, front to back. On maxillary teeth, horn 5 is the palatal-most (between 3 and 4)
only 06’s have a horn 6, it is at the ‘rostral most point of the tooth’
maxillary 11’s have 2 small pulp horns at the very back, 7 and 8 (they have no 6) for a total of 7 pulp horns

mandibular 11’s have a horn 7 at the very back, for a total of 6 pulp horns (again no 6)

My best bet: Memorize the basic pattern for a maxillary and mandibular 09. for all 06’s add a pulp horn 6 at the most mesial extent. For a maxillary 11, add a 7 bucally and an 8 palatally For mandibular 11’s add a 7 at the most distal extent.

Sigh.

Answer 563

A

maxillary 11. you can tell because there are 7 pulp horns, and no other tooth has that. number goes up to 8, but there is no 6 (only on 06’s is there a 6)

Answer 564

A

black spots are centre of infundibulae, where arteries supply cementum with blood during development. Infundibular caries can occur here

Answer 565

A

Maxillary - has infundibulae and has cingulae

Answer 566

A

6 pulp horns (no horn 6, skip 5 to 7)

Answer 567

A

mandibular. No infundibulae, no cingulae.

Answer 568

A

Mandibular 06

Answer 569

A

equine CT overgrowths should be gradually reduced, by a few millimetres at a time, over a prolonged period.
clinical purpose of reducing overgrown CT should not be to make them level with adjacent normal-height teeth, but to prevent them from causing soft tissue trauma and/ or mechanical obstruction of normal mastication (rarely a need to fully reduce them)

Answer 570

A

In 58% of these teeth, would expose pulp tissue.

Answer 571

A

in 14/24 (58%) of teeth, the height of the overgrowth was higher than the subocclusal dentin

Answer 572

A

dentin significantly thicker in overgrown maxillary teeth versus control (~12.5 mm versus 9.4 mm)

Answer 573

A

No significant difference

average dentin thickness about 11 mm

Answer 574

A

measurement of thickness of subocclusal dentin in cheek teeth with overgrowth and in normal cheek teeth

Answer 575

A

MTA, AH plus, Glass ionomer cement and gutta percha

Answer 576

A

No difference

Answer 577

A

The mandible

Answer 578

A

controls - 156 days

Vaccinated animals 464 days

Answer 579

A

Controls - 324 days

MST not reached for vaccinated animals

Answer 580

A

Tyrosinase is a melanoma differentiation antigen (essential to melanin synthesis)

Answer 581

A

58 dogs diagnosed with stage II or III oral malignant melanoma

4 injection series of human tyrosinase vaccine, then boostered q 6 months

monitored for adverse reactions and survival times

Answer 582

A

used a historical control group

Answer 583

A

Nothing!!!!

Answer 584

A

FCV RNA in 53.8% of affected cats and 14% in controls

a significant difference was also found in the prevalence of antibodies to FCV between the cats with chronic gingivostomatitis 78.8%, vs controls (58.0%).

Answer 585

A

Feline Calicivirus

Answer 586

A

novel species account for 38.2%, 38.3% and 35.3%, of clones in the normal, gingivitis and
periodontitis groups, respectively

Answer 587

A

Culture - Actinomyces canis PCR - Desulfomicrobium orale

Answer 588

A

Culture - Bacteroides, Pasteurella; PCR - Porphyromonas cangingivalis

Answer 589

A

Culture - uncultured bacterium, PCR - pseudomonas spp.

Answer 590

A

this was a comparison of bacterial isolates obtained when cotton swabs were rolled over the teeth/gums versus using paper points to get samples from the sulcus

Answer 591

A

this was a comparison of bacterial isolates obtained when cotton swabs were rolled over the teeth/gums versus using paper points to get samples from the sulcus

Answer 592

A

this was a comparison of bacterial isolates obtained when cotton swabs were rolled over the teeth/gums versus using paper points to get samples from the sulcus

Answer 593

A

this was a comparison of bacterial isolates obtained when cotton swabs were rolled over the teeth/gums versus using paper points to get samples from the sulcus

Answer 594

A

this was a comparison of bacterial isolates obtained when cotton swabs were rolled over the teeth/gums versus using paper points to get samples from the sulcus

Answer 595

A

Here it is again!

Here are some tricks -

mandibular teeth have a single continuously running line of enamel with no infundibulae
Maxillary teeth have 2 infundibulae each, which are additional ‘irregular loops’ of enamel in the middle of the tooth, usually pictured with a little black spot in the middle (this is not a pulp horn.)
We usually number the buccal pulp horns first, from front to back (1 and 2) Then the palatal/labial horns, also front to back. on mandibular teeth, 3, 4, 5 are in a line, front to back. On maxillary teeth, horn 5 is the palatal-most (between 3 and 4)
only 06’s have a horn 6, it is at the ‘rostral most point of the tooth’
maxillary 11’s have 2 small pulp horns at the very back, 7 and 8 (they have no 6) for a total of 7 pulp horns

mandibular 11’s have a horn 7 at the very back, for a total of 6 pulp horns (again no 6)

My best bet: Memorize the basic pattern for a maxillary and mandibular 09. for all 06’s add a pulp horn 6 at the most mesial extent. For a maxillary 11, add a 7 bucally and an 8 palatally For mandibular 11’s add a 7 at the most distal extent.

Sigh.

Answer 596

A

maxillary 11. you can tell because there are 7 pulp horns, and no other tooth has that. number goes up to 8, but there is no 6 (only on 06’s is there a 6)

Answer 597

A

black spots are centre of infundibulae, where arteries supply cementum with blood during development. Infundibular caries can occur here

Answer 598

A

Maxillary - has infundibulae and has cingulae

Answer 599

A

6 pulp horns (no horn 6, skip 5 to 7)

Answer 600

A

mandibular. No infundibulae, no cingulae.

Answer 601

A

Mandibular 06

Answer 602

A

equine CT overgrowths should be gradually reduced, by a few millimetres at a time, over a prolonged period.
clinical purpose of reducing overgrown CT should not be to make them level with adjacent normal-height teeth, but to prevent them from causing soft tissue trauma and/ or mechanical obstruction of normal mastication (rarely a need to fully reduce them)

Answer 603

A

In 58% of these teeth, would expose pulp tissue.

Answer 604

A

in 14/24 (58%) of teeth, the height of the overgrowth was higher than the subocclusal dentin

Answer 605

A

dentin significantly thicker in overgrown maxillary teeth versus control (~12.5 mm versus 9.4 mm)

Answer 606

A

No significant difference

average dentin thickness about 11 mm

Answer 607

A

measurement of thickness of subocclusal dentin in cheek teeth with overgrowth and in normal cheek teeth

Answer 608

A

MTA, AH plus, Glass ionomer cement and gutta percha

Answer 609

A

No difference

Answer 610

A

The mandible

Answer 611

A

controls - 156 days

Vaccinated animals 464 days

Answer 612

A

Controls - 324 days

MST not reached for vaccinated animals

Answer 613

A

Tyrosinase is a melanoma differentiation antigen (essential to melanin synthesis)

Answer 614

A

58 dogs diagnosed with stage II or III oral malignant melanoma

4 injection series of human tyrosinase vaccine, then boostered q 6 months

monitored for adverse reactions and survival times

Answer 615

A

used a historical control group

Answer 616

A

Nothing!!!!

Answer 617

A

FCV RNA in 53.8% of affected cats and 14% in controls

a significant difference was also found in the prevalence of antibodies to FCV between the cats with chronic gingivostomatitis 78.8%, vs controls (58.0%).

Answer 618

A

Feline Calicivirus

Answer 619

A

novel species account for 38.2%, 38.3% and 35.3%, of clones in the normal, gingivitis and
periodontitis groups, respectively

Answer 620

A

Culture - Actinomyces canis PCR - Desulfomicrobium orale

Answer 621

A

Culture - Bacteroides, Pasteurella; PCR - Porphyromonas cangingivalis

Answer 622

A

Culture - uncultured bacterium, PCR - pseudomonas spp.

Answer 623

A

First study to use culture independent methodology in dogs

Answer 624

A

more bacteria and more anaerobes isolated when using a paper point to sample the sulcus than rolling a cotton swab over the teeth and gingiva.

Answer 625

A

pain/discomfort when erupting the permanent teeth

Answer 626

A

phenobarbital 2-3 mg/kg

NSAIDS and opiates are ineffective

Answer 627

A

Burmese cats are predisposed and an inherited disorder affecting trigeminal sensory processing is suspected

Answer 628

A

Teeth with internal resorption

Answer 629

A

External replacement, external surface and external cervical root resorption

All could be classified 100%

Answer 630

A

Extensive hard tissue loss

a) crown and root equally affected
b) primarily involves the crown
c) Primarily involves the root

Answer 631

A

a is substage a

b is substage b

c is substage c

Answer 632

A

46% of teeth could be classified

Answer 633

A

External cervical

Answer 634

A

External inflammatory

Answer 635

A

external replacement. 08 more advanced than 09

Answer 636

A

09 external surface

08 external replacement

Answer 637

A

Internal inflammatory.

Note the CCF

Answer 638

A

internal surface

smooth resorption, no fracture

Answer 639

A

unclassifiable. multiple processes at play

Answer 640

A

53% of dogs

11% of teeth

Answer 641

A

external replacement in 34% of dogs and 8% of teeth

External inflammatory in 25% of dogs and 1% of teeth

Answer 642

A

internal replacement

Answer 643

A

6/10

one cat didn’t tolerate, one BEARD failed, one cat had BAD malocclusion post-op and one lost to follow up

Answer 644

A

Complications included dorsal nasal skin swelling or discharge, oesophagostomy tube dislodgement or blockage, BEARD loosening, and regurgitation

Answer 645

A

No significant difference between FGS and control group

Answer 646

A

FCV RNA was present in significantly more cats with FGS (40.5%) than control cats (0%).

Answer 647

A

One orthodontic button was attached to the lingual aspect of the canine
tooth of the intact mandible and 1 to the buccal aspect of the ipsilateral maxillary 4th premolar tooth

Answer 648

A

Eight dogs achieved temporomandibular joint stability and normal occlusion after 4.5–6 month

Answer 649

A

Shortened to 75% of neutral

Answer 650

A

•lingual pull of the medial pterygoid muscle

Answer 651

A

mandibular canal and ventral cortex

Answer 652

A

All dogs had crown/root abanormalities

conical or peg-shaped crowns,

decreased number of roots,

diminutive roots compared to normal counterparts,

fused roots, and

dilaceration of the crowns or roots

Answer 653

A

Males - only 1 x chromasome, so if the have the gene they are affected

females must be homozygous ot be affected

Answer 654

A

marked hypodontia or oligodontia with 16/17 dogs missing at least 1 tooth

Most common dental manifestation

Answer 655

A

No dogs in the present study exhibited fusion, gemination, concresence or schizodontia.

Answer 656

A

16/17 had a malocclusion

15/17 had mesioverterd canine teeth

2/17 had labioverted mandibular canines

2/17 had a caudal crossbite

Answer 657

A

PFI 508 days

MST 723 days

longer than previous reports

Answer 658

A

significant increased hazard of disease progression

authors suggest selection bias - worse cases were recommended to receive adjuvant treatment

Answer 659

A

Longer than expected survival times

medidan progression free interval of >567 days

Median survival time 874 days

Answer 660

A

immediately lingual to the mandibular cortex, at the level of M1, with tongue tractioned the opposite way to avoid salivary ducts

Answer 661

A

Skin, SQ, mylohyoideus muscle, oral mucosa

Answer 662

A

10 minutes

Answer 663

A

either closed in 2-3 layers, or left to heal by second intention (did 2 of each)

Answer 664

A

sublingual artery

Answer 665

A

•Prospective study using magnetic resonance angiography and ERG measurements in cats to look at maxillary artery bloodflow during mouth opening at different measurements

Answer 666

A

Opening of the mouth can cause cerebral and retinal ischemia through compression of the maxillary arteries, which are the principal source of blood flow to the eyes and brain in cats

Answer 667

A

compression of the maxillary arteries

opening the mouth narrows the distance between the medial aspect of the angular process of the mandible and the rostrolateral border of the tympanic bulla;

the maxillary artery courses between these two osseous structures

Answer 668

A

A progressive reduction in both a and b waves of the ERG was observed in 1/6 cats, but only when the spring-loaded gag was placed on the right side

rest of cats had normal ERG

Answer 669

A

•When the mouth was fully opened,

normal signal intensity 2/6 cats,
focally reduced signal intensity was detected bilaterally in 2/6 cats,
diffusely reduce signal intensity was detected bilaterally in the remaining 2/6 cats

At 42mm

1/6 cats focally reduced intensity was detected ipsilateral to gag

Answer 670

A

Periodontal exam and probing, no rads
periodontitis was any attachment loss
once a tooth had periodontitis, it was scaled and polished, and removed from the study
once a dog had >12 teeth with periodontitis, the dog had a fulol scale and polish and was removed from the study

Answer 671

A

Incisors, lingual aspect

Answer 672

A

Significant linear effect, in that for each year older time to progress to periodontitis was 5.5 weeks less

Answer 673

A

•to cut the canines of sled dogs to decrease bites to humans

Answer 674

A

Dog level 4.3 x more likely to have exposed pulp,

tooth level 12.2 x more likely to have exposed pulp

Answer 675

A

live on rocky ground and eat semi-frozen food - fracture!

Answer 676

A

Stomatitis

Answer 677

A

Presence of any oral inflammatory disease associated with risk of positive FeLV test

Answer 678

A

these diseases were diagnosed by GP’s at a number of clinics on the basis of awake oral exam.

Answer 679

A

none - no significant association whether it was full mouth or partial mouth

Answer 680

A

None - no effect of ab’s, anti-inflammatory or analgesic medications

Answer 681

A

Resolution of abnormal behaviour

substantial resolution of stomatitic lesion at the first recheck

no need for antimicrobials beyond 14 days

Answer 682

A

67% had a substantial improvement

of those, 68% needed extended medical mangement

2/3 got better and 2/3 of those needed EMM

Answer 683

A

•25-35kHz range,

similar to a dental scaler, but the power is 3-6x greater

Answer 684

A

mineralized tissue

Answer 685

A

linear reciprocal excursions,

300 um

Answer 686

A

Selective cut of mineralized tissue
reduce soft tissue trauma
reduced hemmorhage (cavitation)
excellent visibility
precise cutting
curvilinear cutting
no thermal damage
sterile irrigation

Answer 687

A

1.5 - 3 N (handwriting is about 1 N)

Answer 688

A

Golden retriever

Maxilla

Answer 689

A

Combo of surgery and curative intent radiation

Answer 690

A

Not associated with progression free survival

Answer 691

A

significant association, but not predictable.

Grade I fare the best - MST 575 days - 18 months

Grade II fared worst - MST 194 days - 6 months

Grade III in the middle - MST 367 days - 12 months

Answer 692

A

statistically significant with regards to median survival,

Not related to progression free interval.

Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Jane's Abstract review Flashcards

Brainscape's Knowledge Genome^TM