ISDS Review Questions Test 2 Flashcards
Of the four approaches to capacity expansion, the approach that “straddles” demand:
A.uses incremental expansion.
B.works best when demand is not growing but is stable.
C.some times leads demand, and at other times lags.
D.uses one-step expansion.
E. Choices A and C are both correct
E. Choices A and C are both correct
Christopher’s Cranks uses a machine that can produce 100 cranks per hour. The firm operates 12 hours per day, five days per week. Due to regularly scheduled preventive maintenance, the firm expects the machine to be running during approximately 95% of the available time. Based on experience with other products, the firm expects to achieve an efficiency level for the cranks of 75%. What is the expected weekly output of cranks for this company?
A.5100
B.5700
C.8421
D.4275
E.4845
D.4275
A useful tactic for increasing capacity is to redesign a product in order to facilitate more throughput.
True
False
True
Product-focused processes:
A. tend to have long, continuous production runs.
B.are processes that accommodate a variety of products or customer groups.
C.are profitable because customers demand flexibility, not specialization.
D.allow more customization, but are not very efficient.
E.apply only to service firms, not to manufacturers.
A. tend to have long, continuous production runs.
Which of the following industries is most likely to have low equipment utilization?
A. commercial baking
B. auto manufacturing
C. steel manufacturing
D. television manufacturing
E. restaurants
E. restaurants
A process focused facility is
A. based on the classical assembly line.
B. a production facility organized around specific activities.
C. a rapid, low-cost production facility that caters to constantly changing unique customer desires.
D. a production facility organized around products.
B. a production facility organized around specific activities.
Which of the following statements is NOT one of the differentiation strategy decisions?
A. Gather and communicate market research data.
B. Modular design to aid product differentiation.
C. Minimize inventory to avoid product obsolescence.
D. Use buffer stocks to ensure speedy supply.
D. Use buffer stocks to ensure speedy supply.
Which of the following mitigation tactics is NOT designed to reduce the risk of information loss or distortion?
A. secure IT systems
B. alternate sourcing
C. redundant databases
D. training of supply chain partners on the proper interpretations and use of information
B. alternate sourcing
What is transferring a firm’s activities that have traditionally been internal to external suppliers?
A. make-or-buy
B. outsourcing
C. vertical integration
D. keiretsu network
B. outsourcing
What is a long-term purchase commitment to a supplier for items that are to be delivered against short-term releases to ship?
A. drop shipping
B. postponement
C. blanket order
D. advanced shipping notice
C. blanket order
Excess bags of basic commodities such as flour and sugar that are stored in a restaurant’s kitchen represent which of the following wastes?
A. defective product
B. transportation
C. queues
D. inventory
E. overproduction
D. inventory
Which one of the following is a characteristic of a JIT partnership?
A. maximal product specifications imposed on supplier
B. active pursuit of vertical integration
C. third-party logistics never used
D. frequent deliveries in large lot quantities
E. removal of incoming inspection
E. removal of incoming inspection
Concerning relationships with suppliers, which of the following combinations is critical to the success of JIT?
A. distant relationships with trust
B. close relationships with trust
C. close relationships with skepticism
D. distant relationships with skepticism
E. none of the above
B. close relationships with trust
Which of the following is specifically characterized by a focus on continuous improvement, respect for people, and standard work practices?
A. Just-in-time (JIT)
B. Toyota Production System (TPS)
C. kanban
D. Lean operations
E. Material requirements planning (MRP)
B. Toyota Production System (TPS)
Low-level coding means that:
A. a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM structure.
B. a final item has only a few levels in the BOM structure.
C. the code being used is the code for the lowest level in the BOM structure.
D. the lowest-paid staff member in the production department performs the coding.
E. the top level of the BOM is below level zero and that BOMs are not organized around the finished product.
A. a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM structure.
Which of the following lot-sizing techniques results in the lowest holding costs?
A. the quantity discount model
B. Wagner-Whitin algorithm
C. EOQ
D. POQ
E. lot-for-lot
E. lot-for-lot
What is a dependent demand technique that uses a bill-of-material, inventory, expected receipts, and a master production schedule to determine material requirements?
A. Material requirements method (MRM)
B. Material requirements planning (MRP)
C. Economic order method (EOM)
D. Periodic order planning (POP)
B. Material requirements planning (MRP)
Which of the following statements about quantity discounts is FALSE?
A. In inventory management, item cost becomes relevant to order quantity decisions when a quantity discount is available.
B. If carrying costs are expressed as a percentage of value, EOQ is larger at each lower price in the discount schedule.
C. The larger the annual demand, the less attractive a discount schedule will be.
D. The smaller the ordering cost, the less attractive a discount schedule will be.
E. The cost-minimizing solution may or may not be where annual holding costs equal annual ordering costs.
C. The larger the annual demand, the less attractive a discount schedule will be.
Which of the following is an element of inventory holding costs?
A. investment costs
B. pilferage, scrap, and obsolescence
C. housing costs
D. material handling costs
E. All of the above are elements of inventory holding costs.
E. All of the above are elements of inventory holding costs.
A firm’s probability of a stockout for a popular item is 2%. Given this information, what is its service level for this popular item?
A. 4%
B. 96%
C. 2%
D. 98%
D. 98%
Utilization will typically be lower than efficiency because:
A. expected output is less than rated capacity.
B. expected output is less than actual output.
C. effective capacity is greater than design capacity.
D. effective capacity equals design capacity.
E.effective capacity is less than design capacity.
E.effective capacity is less than design capacity.
The proper quantity of safety stock is typically determined by:
A. carrying sufficient safety stock so as to eliminate all stockouts.
B. minimizing total costs.
C. multiplying the EOQ by the desired service level.
D. using a single-period model.
E. setting the level of safety stock so that a given stockout risk is not exceeded.
E. setting the level of safety stock so that a given stockout risk is not exceeded.
Which of the following would NOT generally be a motive for a firm to hold inventories?
A. to take advantage of quantity discounts
B. to provide a selection of goods for anticipated customer demand and to separate the firm from fluctuations in that demand
C. to minimize holding costs
D. to decouple various parts of the production process
E. to hedge against inflation
C. to minimize holding costs
In the basic EOQ model, if the cost of placing an order doubles, and all other values remain constant, the EOQ will:
A. either increase or decrease.
B. increase by about 41%.
C. increase by 100%.
D. increase by 200%.
E. increase, but more data is needed to say by how much.
B. increase by about 41%.
the units in inventory that have been assigned to specific future production but have not yet been used or issued from the stockroom are known as
A. planned order receipts.
B. safety stock.
C. planned order releases.
D. allocated items.
D. allocated items.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the MRP plan when using lot-for-lot ordering?
A. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is equal to the quantity of planned order release(s) multiplied by the number of child items used in the parent assembly.
B. The quantity and gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of net requirements for its parent.
C. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of planned order releases for its parent.
D. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of gross requirements for its parent.
E. All of the above are true.
A. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is equal to the quantity of planned order release(s) multiplied by the number of child items used in the parent assembly.
By convention, what is the top level in a product structure?
Part 2
A.level 1
B. level 0
C. level T
D. level 100
E. level 10
B. level 0
Which of the following is specifically characterized by a focus on continuous improvement, respect for people, and standard work practices?
A. Toyota Production System (TPS)
B. Material requirements planning (MRP)
C. kanban
D. Lean operations
E. Just-in-time (JIT)
A. Toyota Production System (TPS)
Kanban is associated with all EXCEPT which of the following?
A. increased material handling
B. moving inventory only as needed
C. reductions in inventory
D. signals, such as cards, lights, or flags
E. small lot sizes
A. increased material handling
Which one of the following is a characteristic of a JIT partnership?
A. maximal product specifications imposed on supplier
B. third-party logistics never used
C. frequent deliveries in large lot quantities
D. removal of incoming inspection
E. active pursuit of vertical integration
D. removal of incoming inspection
Which one is NOT an application of lean principle in services?
A. JIT in food supply management
B. scheduling personnel availability at 15 minute increments to meet demand fluctuations
C. securing more inventory to prepare for disruption in production
D. inventory sharing among members of the pharmaceutical network
E. improving kitchen layout at McDonald’s to drive seconds out of the production process
C. securing more inventory to prepare for disruption in production
Which of the following would NOT reduce the bullwhip effect?
A. Increase end-of-quarter sales bonuses
B. Reduce lot sizes
C. Share point-of-sales data with all members of the supply chain
D. Implement single-stage control of replenishment
A. Increase end-of-quarter sales bonuses
What is developing the ability to produce goods or services previously purchased or actually buying a supplier or a distributor?
A. horizontal integration
B. vertical integration
C. outsourcing
D. virtual companies
B. vertical integration
Which of the following could reduce distribution risk?
A. cross-country diversification
B. use multiple suppliers
C. secure IT systems
D. careful selection, monitoring and effective contracts with penalties
D. careful selection, monitoring and effective contracts with penalties
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. A supply chain includes suppliers; manufacturers and/or service providers; and distributors, wholesalers, and/or retailers who deliver the product and/or service to the final customer.
B. An increased sales effort may help a firm reach its profit goals more easily than would effective cost cutting.
C. Supply chain management describes the coordination of all supply chain activities, starting with raw materials, and ending with a satisfied customer.
D. The objective of supply chain management is to coordinate activities within the supply chain to maximize the supply chain’s competitive advantage and benefits to the ultimate consumer.
B. An increased sales effort may help a firm reach its profit goals more easily than would effective cost cutting.
Low-volume, high-variety production is best suited for which of the following process strategies?
A. repetitive focus
B. product focus
C. mass customization
D. process focus
D. process focus
Which of the following is FALSE regarding repetitive processes?
A. They have more structure and less flexibility than a job shop layout.
B. They are the classic assembly lines.
C. They include the assembly of basically all automobiles.
D. They use modules.
E. They allow easy switching from one product to the other.
E. They allow easy switching from one product to the other.
Which of the following phrases best describes process focus?
A. low inventory
B. high fixed costs, low variable costs
C. Operators are less broadly skilled.
D. Finished goods are usually made to a forecast and stored.
E. low volume, high variety
E. low volume, high variety
Capacity decisions are based on technological concerns, not demand forecasts.
True or False
False