ISDS Review Questions Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Of the four approaches to capacity​ expansion, the approach that​ “straddles” demand:

A.uses incremental expansion.
B.works best when demand is not growing but is stable.
C.some times leads​ demand, and at other times lags.
D.uses​ one-step expansion.
E. Choices A and C are both correct

A

E. Choices A and C are both correct

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2
Q

​Christopher’s Cranks uses a machine that can produce 100 cranks per hour. The firm operates 12 hours per​ day, five days per week. Due to regularly scheduled preventive​ maintenance, the firm expects the machine to be running during approximately​ 95% of the available time. Based on experience with other​ products, the firm expects to achieve an efficiency level for the cranks of​ 75%. What is the expected weekly output of cranks for this​ company?

A.5100
B.5700
C.8421
D.4275
E.4845

A

D.4275

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3
Q

A useful tactic for increasing capacity is to redesign a product in order to facilitate more throughput.

True
False

A

True

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4
Q

​Product-focused processes:

A. tend to have​ long, continuous production runs.

B.are processes that accommodate a variety of products or customer groups.

C.are profitable because customers demand​ flexibility, not specialization.

D.allow more​ customization, but are not very efficient.

E.apply only to service​ firms, not to manufacturers.

A

A. tend to have​ long, continuous production runs.

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5
Q

Which of the following industries is most likely to have low equipment​ utilization?

A. commercial baking
B. auto manufacturing
C. steel manufacturing
D. television manufacturing
E. restaurants

A

E. restaurants

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6
Q

A process focused facility is

A. based on the classical assembly line.
B. a production facility organized around specific activities.
C. a​ rapid, low-cost production facility that caters to constantly changing unique customer desires.
D. a production facility organized around products.

A

B. a production facility organized around specific activities.

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7
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT one of the differentiation strategy​ decisions?

A. Gather and communicate market research data.
B. Modular design to aid product differentiation.
C. Minimize inventory to avoid product obsolescence.
D. Use buffer stocks to ensure speedy supply.

A

D. Use buffer stocks to ensure speedy supply.

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8
Q

Which of the following mitigation tactics is NOT designed to reduce the risk of information loss or​ distortion?

A. secure IT systems
B. alternate sourcing
C. redundant databases
D. training of supply chain partners on the proper interpretations and use of information

A

B. alternate sourcing

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9
Q

What is transferring a​ firm’s activities that have traditionally been internal to external​ suppliers?

A. make-or-buy
B. outsourcing
C. vertical integration
D. keiretsu network

A

B. outsourcing

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10
Q

What is a​ long-term purchase commitment to a supplier for items that are to be delivered against​ short-term releases to​ ship?

A. drop shipping
B. postponement
C. blanket order
D. advanced shipping notice

A

C. blanket order

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11
Q

Excess bags of basic commodities such as flour and sugar that are stored in a​ restaurant’s kitchen represent which of the following​ wastes?

A. defective product
B. transportation
C. queues
D. inventory
E. overproduction

A

D. inventory

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12
Q

Which one of the following is a characteristic of a JIT​ partnership?

A. maximal product specifications imposed on supplier
B. active pursuit of vertical integration
C. third-party logistics never used
D. frequent deliveries in large lot quantities
E. removal of incoming inspection

A

E. removal of incoming inspection

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13
Q

Concerning relationships with​ suppliers, which of the following combinations is critical to the success of​ JIT?

A. distant relationships with trust
B. close relationships with trust
C. close relationships with skepticism
D. distant relationships with skepticism
E. none of the above

A

B. close relationships with trust

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14
Q

Which of the following is specifically characterized by a focus on continuous​ improvement, respect for​ people, and standard work​ practices?

A. Just-in-time (JIT)
B. Toyota Production System​ (TPS)
C. kanban
D. Lean operations
E. Material requirements planning​ (MRP)

A

B. Toyota Production System​ (TPS)

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15
Q

Low-level coding means​ that:

A. a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM structure.
B. a final item has only a few levels in the BOM structure.
C. the code being used is the code for the lowest level in the BOM structure.
D. the​ lowest-paid staff member in the production department performs the coding.
E. the top level of the BOM is below level zero and that BOMs are not organized around the finished product.

A

A. a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM structure.

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16
Q

Which of the following​ lot-sizing techniques results in the lowest holding​ costs?

A. the quantity discount model
B. Wagner-Whitin algorithm
C. EOQ
D. POQ
E. lot-for-lot

A

E. lot-for-lot

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17
Q

What is a dependent demand technique that uses a​ bill-of-material, inventory, expected​ receipts, and a master production schedule to determine material​ requirements?

A. Material requirements method​ (MRM)
B. Material requirements planning​ (MRP)
C. Economic order method​ (EOM)
D. Periodic order planning​ (POP)

A

B. Material requirements planning​ (MRP)

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18
Q

Which of the following statements about quantity discounts is​ FALSE?

A. In inventory​ management, item cost becomes relevant to order quantity decisions when a quantity discount is available.
B. If carrying costs are expressed as a percentage of​ value, EOQ is larger at each lower price in the discount schedule.
C. The larger the annual​ demand, the less attractive a discount schedule will be.
D. The smaller the ordering​ cost, the less attractive a discount schedule will be.
E. The​ cost-minimizing solution may or may not be where annual holding costs equal annual ordering costs.

A

C. The larger the annual​ demand, the less attractive a discount schedule will be.

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19
Q

Which of the following is an element of inventory holding​ costs?

A. investment costs
B. pilferage, scrap, and obsolescence
C. housing costs
D. material handling costs
E. All of the above are elements of inventory holding costs.

A

E. All of the above are elements of inventory holding costs.

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20
Q

A​ firm’s probability of a stockout for a popular item is​ 2%. Given this​ information, what is its service level for this popular​ item?

A. 4%
B. 96%
C. 2%
D. 98%

A

D. 98%

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21
Q

Utilization will typically be lower than efficiency​ because:

A. expected output is less than rated capacity.
B. expected output is less than actual output.
C. effective capacity is greater than design capacity.
D. effective capacity equals design capacity.
E.effective capacity is less than design capacity.

A

E.effective capacity is less than design capacity.

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22
Q

The proper quantity of safety stock is typically determined​ by:

A. carrying sufficient safety stock so as to eliminate all stockouts.
B. minimizing total costs.
C. multiplying the EOQ by the desired service level.
D. using a​ single-period model.
E. setting the level of safety stock so that a given stockout risk is not exceeded.

A

E. setting the level of safety stock so that a given stockout risk is not exceeded.

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23
Q

Which of the following would NOT generally be a motive for a firm to hold​ inventories?

A. to take advantage of quantity discounts
B. to provide a selection of goods for anticipated customer demand and to separate the firm from fluctuations in that demand
C. to minimize holding costs
D. to decouple various parts of the production process
E. to hedge against inflation

A

C. to minimize holding costs

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24
Q

In the basic EOQ​ model, if the cost of placing an order​ doubles, and all other values remain​ constant, the EOQ​ will:

A. either increase or decrease.
B. increase by about​ 41%.
C. increase by​ 100%.
D. increase by​ 200%.
E. increase, but more data is needed to say by how much.

A

B. increase by about​ 41%.

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25
Q

the units in inventory that have been assigned to specific future production but have not yet been used or issued from the stockroom are known as

A. planned order receipts.
B. safety stock.
C. planned order releases.
D. allocated items.

A

D. allocated items.

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26
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the MRP plan when using​ lot-for-lot ordering?

A. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is equal to the quantity of planned order​ release(s) multiplied by the number of child items used in the parent assembly.
B. The quantity and gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of net requirements for its parent.
C. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of planned order releases for its parent.
D. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of gross requirements for its parent.
E. All of the above are true.

A

A. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is equal to the quantity of planned order​ release(s) multiplied by the number of child items used in the parent assembly.

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27
Q

By​ convention, what is the top level in a product​ structure?
Part 2
A.level 1
B. level 0
C. level T
D. level 100
E. level 10

A

B. level 0

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28
Q

Which of the following is specifically characterized by a focus on continuous​ improvement, respect for​ people, and standard work​ practices?

A. Toyota Production System​ (TPS)
B. Material requirements planning​ (MRP)
C. kanban
D. Lean operations
E. Just-in-time (JIT)

A

A. Toyota Production System​ (TPS)

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29
Q

Kanban is associated with all EXCEPT which of the​ following?

A. increased material handling
B. moving inventory only as needed
C. reductions in inventory
D. signals, such as​ cards, lights, or flags
E. small lot sizes

A

A. increased material handling

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30
Q

Which one of the following is a characteristic of a JIT​ partnership?

A. maximal product specifications imposed on supplier
B. ​third-party logistics never used
C. frequent deliveries in large lot quantities
D. removal of incoming inspection
E. active pursuit of vertical integration

A

D. removal of incoming inspection

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31
Q

Which one is NOT an application of lean principle in​ services?

A. JIT in food supply management
B. scheduling personnel availability at 15 minute increments to meet demand fluctuations
C. securing more inventory to prepare for disruption in production
D. inventory sharing among members of the pharmaceutical network
E. improving kitchen layout at​ McDonald’s to drive seconds out of the production process

A

C. securing more inventory to prepare for disruption in production

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32
Q

Which of the following would NOT reduce the bullwhip​ effect?

A. Increase​ end-of-quarter sales bonuses
B. Reduce lot sizes
C. Share​ point-of-sales data with all members of the supply chain
D. Implement​ single-stage control of replenishment

A

A. Increase​ end-of-quarter sales bonuses

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33
Q

What is developing the ability to produce goods or services previously purchased or actually buying a supplier or a​ distributor?

A. horizontal integration
B. vertical integration
C. outsourcing
D. virtual companies

A

B. vertical integration

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34
Q

Which of the following could reduce distribution​ risk?

A. cross-country diversification
B. use multiple suppliers
C. secure IT systems
D. careful​ selection, monitoring and effective contracts with penalties

A

D. careful​ selection, monitoring and effective contracts with penalties

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35
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT​ true?

A. A supply chain includes​ suppliers; manufacturers​ and/or service​ providers; and​ distributors, wholesalers,​ and/or retailers who deliver the product​ and/or service to the final customer.
B. An increased sales effort may help a firm reach its profit goals more easily than would effective cost cutting.
C. Supply chain management describes the coordination of all supply chain​ activities, starting with raw​ materials, and ending with a satisfied customer.
D. The objective of supply chain management is to coordinate activities within the supply chain to maximize the supply​ chain’s competitive advantage and benefits to the ultimate consumer.

A

B. An increased sales effort may help a firm reach its profit goals more easily than would effective cost cutting.

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36
Q

Low-volume, high-variety production is best suited for which of the following process​ strategies?

A. repetitive focus
B. product focus
C. mass customization
D. process focus

A

D. process focus

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37
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding repetitive​ processes?

A. They have more structure and less flexibility than a job shop layout.
B. They are the classic assembly lines.
C. They include the assembly of basically all automobiles.
D. They use modules.
E. They allow easy switching from one product to the other.

A

E. They allow easy switching from one product to the other.

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38
Q

Which of the following phrases best describes process​ focus?

A. low inventory
B. high fixed​ costs, low variable costs
C. Operators are less broadly skilled.
D. Finished goods are usually made to a forecast and stored.
E. low​ volume, high variety

A

E. low​ volume, high variety

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39
Q

Capacity decisions are based on technological​ concerns, not demand forecasts.

True or False

A

False

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40
Q

Utilization will typically be lower than efficiency​ because:

A. expected output is less than rated capacity.
B. expected output is less than actual output.
C. effective capacity is greater than design capacity.
D. effective capacity equals design capacity.
E. effective capacity is less than design capacity.

A

E. effective capacity is less than design capacity.

41
Q

Adding a complementary product to what is currently being produced is a demand management strategy used​ when:

A. capacity exceeds demand for a product that has stable demand.
B. demand exceeds capacity.
C. the existing product has seasonal or cyclical demand.
D. efficiency exceeds 100 percent.
E. price increases have failed to bring about demand management.

A

C. the existing product has seasonal or cyclical demand.

42
Q

The purpose of safety stock is​ to:

A. eliminate the possibility of a stockout.
B. control the likelihood of a stockout due to variable demand​ and/or lead time.
C. eliminate the likelihood of a stockout due to erroneous inventory tally.
D. protect the firm from a sudden decrease in demand.
E. replace failed units with good ones.

A

B. control the likelihood of a stockout due to variable demand​ and/or lead time.

43
Q

The fixed period inventory system requires more safety stock than a​ fixed-quantity system​ because:

A. this model is used for products that require very high service levels.
B. setup costs and holding costs are large.
C. a stockout can occur during the review period as well as during the lead time.
D. this model is used for products that have large standard deviations of demand.
E. replenishment is not instantaneous.

A

C. a stockout can occur during the review period as well as during the lead time.

44
Q

What is required for an MRP system to​ work?

A. A small bill of material
Your answer is not correct.
B. A high number of purchase orders outstanding
C. Long lead times
D. Accurate inventory records

A

D. Accurate inventory records

45
Q

Enterprise resource planning​ (ERP):
Part 2
A. is inexpensive to implement.
B. automates and integrates the majority of business processes.
C. does not integrate well with functional areas other than operations.
D. nseldom requires software upgrade or enhancement.
E. all of the above

A

B. automates and integrates the majority of business processes.

46
Q

By​ convention, what is the top level in a product​ structure?
A. level 100
B. level T
C. level 10
D. level 0
E. level 1

A

D. level 0

47
Q

Which of the following is specifically characterized by continuous and forced problem solving via a focus on throughput and reduced​ inventory?

A. Toyota Production System​ (TPS)
B. kanban
C. Lean operations
D. ​Just-in-time (JIT)
E. Material requirements planning​ (MRP)

A

D. ​Just-in-time (JIT)

48
Q

Kanban is associated with all EXCEPT which of the​ following?

A. small lot sizes
B.
signals, such as​ cards, lights, or flags
C. increased material handling
D. moving inventory only as needed
E. reductions in inventory

A

C. increased material handling

49
Q

Which of the following is not a goal of JIT​ partnerships?
Part 2
A. removal of​ in-plant inventory
B. inspect all incoming shipments to ensure zero defects
C. removal of unnecessary activities
D. removal of​ in-transit inventory
E. All of the above are goals of JIT partnerships.

A

B. inspect all incoming shipments to ensure zero defects

50
Q

Which one of the following statements is TRUE about the kanban​ system?
Part 2
A. The supplier workstation signals the customer workstation as soon as a batch is completed.
B. It is associated with a push system.
C. The quantities in the containers are usually large to reduce setup costs.
D. The customer workstation signals to the supplier workstation when production is needed.
E. It is useful to smooth operations when numerous quality problems occur.

A

D. The customer workstation signals to the supplier workstation when production is needed.

51
Q

Which of the following would NOT reduce the bullwhip​ effect?

A. Implement​ single-stage control of replenishment
B. Reduce lot sizes
C. Share​ point-of-sales data with all members of the supply chain
D. Increase​ end-of-quarter sales bonuses

A

D. Increase​ end-of-quarter sales bonuses

52
Q

Which of the following strategies is part​ collaboration, part purchasing from few​ suppliers, and part vertical​ integration?

A. joint ventures
B. keiretsu networks
C. virtual companies
D. horizontal integration

A

B. keiretsu networks

53
Q

Toyota attempts to have at least two​ suppliers, each in a different geographical​ region, for each component to mitigate which type of supply chain​ risk?

A. Political
B. Economic
C. Natural catastrophes
D. Distribution

A

C. Natural catastrophes

54
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT​ true?

A. A supply chain includes​ suppliers; manufacturers​ and/or service​ providers; and​ distributors, wholesalers,​ and/or retailers who deliver the product​ and/or service to the final customer.
B. An increased sales effort may help a firm reach its profit goals more easily than would effective cost cutting.
C. The objective of supply chain management is to coordinate activities within the supply chain to maximize the supply​ chain’s competitive advantage and benefits to the ultimate consumer.
D. Supply chain management describes the coordination of all supply chain​ activities, starting with raw​ materials, and ending with a satisfied customer.

A

B. An increased sales effort may help a firm reach its profit goals more easily than would effective cost cutting.

55
Q

A​ product-focused process is commonly used to​ produce:

A. high-volume, low-variety products.
B.high-volume, high-variety products.
C. high-volume products of either​ high- or​ low-variety.
D. low-variety products at either​ high- or​ low-volume.
E. low-volume, high-variety products.

A

A. high-volume, low-variety products.

56
Q

The crossover point is that production quantity​ where:

A. total costs for one process equal total costs for another process.
B. variable costs of one process equal the variable costs of another process.
C. the process no longer loses money.
D. total costs equal total revenues for a process.
E.fixed costs of a process are equal to its variable costs.

A

A. total costs for one process equal total costs for another process.

57
Q

Capacity decisions are based on technological​ concerns, not demand forecasts.

True
False

A

False

58
Q

Christopher’s Cranks uses a machine that can produce 100 cranks per hour. The firm operates 12 hours per​ day, five days per week. Due to regularly scheduled preventive​ maintenance, the firm expects the machine to be running during approximately​ 95% of the available time. Based on experience with other​ products, the firm expects to achieve an efficiency level for the cranks of​ 75%. What is the expected weekly output of cranks for this​ company?

A. 8421
B. 5100
C. 4275
D. 4845
E. 5700

A

C. 4275

59
Q

An assembly line has 10 stations with times of​ 1, 2,​ 3, 4,​ …, 10, respectively. What is the bottleneck​ time?

A. 550% of the throughput time
B. 50% of the throughput time
C. ​100% of the throughput time
D. 18.18% of the throughput time
E. 1.82% of the throughput time

A

D. 18.18% of the throughput time

60
Q

Demand for dishwasher water pumps is 8 per day. The standard deviation of demand is 3 per​ day, and the order lead time is four days. The service level is​ 95%. What should the reorder point​ be?

A. about 18
B. about 32
C. about 24
D. about 38
E. more than 40

A
61
Q

All EXCEPT which of the following statements about ABC analysis are​ true?

A. ABC analysis suggests that all items require the same high degree of control.
B. ABC analysis is an application of the Pareto principle.
C. ABC analysis categorizes​ on-hand inventory into three groups based on annual dollar volume.
D. In ABC​ analysis, inventory may be categorized by measures other than dollar volume.
E. ABC analysis suggests that there are the critical few and the trivial many inventory items.

A

A. ABC analysis suggests that all items require the same high degree of control.

62
Q

The two most basic inventory questions answered by the typical inventory model​ are:

A. order quantity and service level.
B. timing of orders and cost of orders.
C. timing of orders and order quantity.
D. order quantity and cost of orders.
E. ordering cost and carrying cost.

A

B. timing of orders and cost of orders.

63
Q

Which of the following best represents the relationship between the master production schedule​ (MPS) and the aggregate​ plan?

A. The MPS disaggregates the aggregate plan.
B. The MPS precedes the aggregate plan in the planning process.
C. the MPS is the same as the aggregate plan.
D. There is no relationship between the MPS and the aggregate plan.

A

A. The MPS disaggregates the aggregate plan.

64
Q

Which of the following​ lot-sizing techniques results in the lowest holding​ costs?

A.lot-for-lot
B. POQ
C. EOQ
D. the quantity discount model
E. Wagner-Whitin algorithm

A

A.lot-for-lot

65
Q

By​ convention, what is the top level in a product​ structure?
A.level 0
B. level 1
C. level 10
D. level 100
E. level T

A

A.level 0

66
Q

Which of the following is specifically characterized by continuous and forced problem solving via a focus on throughput and reduced​ inventory?

A. kanban
B. Material requirements planning​ (MRP)
C. Lean operations
D. Just-in-time (JIT)
E. Toyota Production System​ (TPS)

A

D. Just-in-time (JIT)

67
Q

Great Lakes Barge and Baggage Company​ makes, among other​ things, battery-operated bilge pumps. Which of the following activities is NOT part of​ JIT? They:

A. produce in long production runs to reduce the impact of setup costs.
B. produce in small lots.
C. communicate their schedules to suppliers.
D. use a pull system to move inventory.
E. continuously work on reducing setup time.

A

A. produce in long production runs to reduce the impact of setup costs.

68
Q

Which of the following is not a goal of JIT​ partnerships?

A. removal of​ in-transit inventory
B. removal of​ in-plant inventory
C. inspect all incoming shipments to ensure zero defects
D. removal of unnecessary activities
E. All of the above are goals of JIT partnerships.

A

C. inspect all incoming shipments to ensure zero defects

69
Q

Because most services cannot be​ inventoried, there is little place for JIT to help service organizations achieve competitive advantage.
True or False

A

False

70
Q

What is the term of shipping directly from the supplier to the end consumer rather than from the​ seller, saving both time and reshipping​ costs?

A. Drop shipping
B. Postponement
C. ​Vendor-managed inventory
D. Direct shipping

A

A. Drop shipping

71
Q

What is the term for a company that relies on a variety of supplier relationships to provide services on​ demand?

A. Integrated network
B. Virtual company
C. Keiretsu network
D. Kanban company

A

B. Virtual company

72
Q

Toyota attempts to have at least two​ suppliers, each in a different geographical​ region, for each component to mitigate which type of supply chain​ risk?
A. Political
B. Natural catastrophes.
C. Distribution
D.Economic

A

B. Natural catastrophes.

73
Q

Trucking

A. is the least used transportation mode for manufacturing goods.
B. is one of the least flexible transportation modes.
C. does not play a role in multimodal shipping.
D. is increasingly using computers to manage its operations.

A

D. is increasingly using computers to manage its operations.

74
Q

A process focused facility is

A. a production facility organized around products.
B. a​ rapid, low-cost production facility that caters to constantly changing unique customer desires.
C. a production facility organized around specific activities.
D. based on the classical assembly line.

A

C. a production facility organized around specific activities.

75
Q

One of the similarities between product focus and​ mass-customization is:

A. many departments and many routings.
B. the volume of outputs.
C. the variety of outputs.
D.the use of modules.
E. All of the above are similarities.

A

B. the volume of outputs.

76
Q

In mass service and professional​ service, the operations manager should focus extensively​ on:

A. cost-cutting initiatives.
B. automation.
C. human resources.
D. sophisticated scheduling.
E. equipment maintenance.

A
77
Q

A useful tactic for increasing capacity is to redesign a product in order to facilitate more throughput.

True
or
False

A

True

78
Q

Utilization will typically be lower than efficiency​ because:

A. effective capacity is greater than design capacity.
B. effective capacity is less than design capacity.
C. effective capacity equals design capacity.
D. expected output is less than rated capacity.
E. expected output is less than actual output.

A

B. effective capacity is less than design capacity.

79
Q

A work system has five stations that have process times of​ 5, 9,​ 14, 9, and 8. What is the bottleneck​ time?

A. 35
B. 45
C. 14
D. 18
E. 9

A

C. 14

80
Q

Demand for dishwasher water pumps is 8 per day. The standard deviation of demand is 3 per​ day, and the order lead time is four days. The service level is​ 95%. What should the reorder point​ be?

A.
about 32

B.
more than 40

C.
about 24

D.
about 18

E.
about 38

A

B.
more than 40

81
Q

The main trait of a​ single-period model is​ that:

A.
the cost of a shortage cannot be determined accurately.
B.
inventory has limited value after a certain period of time.
C.
the order quantity should usually equal the expected value of demand.
D.
supply is limited.
E.
it has the largest EOQ sizes.

A

B.
inventory has limited value after a certain period of time.

82
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the production order quantity model is​ TRUE?

A.
It relaxes the assumption that all the order quantity is received at one time.
B.
It relaxes the assumption that the demand rate is constant.
C.
It minimizes inventory.
D.
It applies only to items produced in the​ firm’s own production departments.
E.
It minimizes the total production costs.

A

A.
It relaxes the assumption that all the order quantity is received at one time.

83
Q

What is a list of quantities of​ components, ingredients, and materials required to make a​ product?

A.
master production schedule
B.
​bill-of-material
C.
purchase order
D.
engineering change notice

A

B.
​bill-of-material

84
Q

​Low-level coding means​ that:

A.
the top level of the BOM is below level zero and that BOMs are not organized around the finished product.
B.
a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM structure.
C.
the​ lowest-paid staff member in the production department performs the coding.
D.
a final item has only a few levels in the BOM structure.
E.
the code being used is the code for the lowest level in the BOM structure.

A

B.
a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM structure.

85
Q

Which of the following is specifically characterized by the elimination of waste through a focus on exactly what the customer​ wants?

A.
Lean operations
B.
Toyota Production System​ (TPS)
C.
Material requirements planning​ (MRP)
D.
kanban
E.
​Just-in-time (JIT)

A

A.
Lean operations

86
Q

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding JIT​ inventory?

A.
It is minimized with large lot production.
B.
It increases if setup costs decrease.
C.
It exists just in case something goes wrong.
D.
It hides variability.
E.
It is the minimum inventory necessary to keep a perfect system running.

A

E.
It is the minimum inventory necessary to keep a perfect system running.

87
Q

Which of the following is NOT a goal of JIT​ partnerships?

A.
removal of​ in-transit inventory
B.
removal of unnecessary activities
C.
removal of​ in-plant inventory
D.
obtain improved quality and reliability
E.
All of the above are goals of JIT partnerships.

A

E.
All of the above are goals of JIT partnerships.

88
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of lean​ operations?

A.
no supplier partnerships
B.
inventory buffers between each workstation to minimize system downtime
C.
specialty workers with no​ cross-training
D.
low space requirements
E.
​easy, mindless jobs

A

D.
low space requirements

89
Q

What is the term of shipping directly from the supplier to the end consumer rather than from the​ seller, saving both time and reshipping​ costs?

A.
​Vendor-managed inventory
B.
Direct shipping
C.
Postponement
D.
Drop shipping

A

D.
Drop shipping

90
Q

Prior to embarking on supply chain​ design, operations managers must first consider

A.
how to manage supply chain inventory.
B.
how to select suppliers.
C.
what kind of distribution network to have.
D.
​”make-or-buy” and outsourcing decisions.

A

D.
​”make-or-buy” and outsourcing decisions.

91
Q

Question content area
Part 1
Which of the following could reduce distribution​ risk?

A.
​cross-country diversification
B.
secure IT systems
C.
careful​ selection, monitoring and effective contracts with penalties
D.
use multiple suppliers

A

C.
careful​ selection, monitoring and effective contracts with penalties

92
Q

Question content area
Part 1
Which of the following could reduce distribution​ risk?

A.
​cross-country diversification
B.
secure IT systems
C.
careful​ selection, monitoring and effective contracts with penalties
D.
use multiple suppliers

A

C.
careful​ selection, monitoring and effective contracts with penalties

93
Q

Trucking

A.
is the least used transportation mode for manufacturing goods.
B.
does not play a role in multimodal shipping.
C.
is one of the least flexible transportation modes.
D.
is increasingly using computers to manage its operations.

A

D.
is increasingly using computers to manage its operations.

94
Q

A large quantity and large variety of products are produced in

A.
product focus.
B.
process focus.
C.
mass customization.
D.
repetitive focus.

A

C.
mass customization.

95
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding repetitive​ processes?

A.
They use modules.
B.
They have more structure and less flexibility than a job shop layout.
C.
They are the classic assembly lines.
D.
They include the assembly of basically all automobiles.
E.
They allow easy switching from one product to the other.

A

E.
They allow easy switching from one product to the other.

96
Q

Which of the following phrases best describes process​ focus?

A.
Finished goods are usually made to a forecast and stored.
B.
low​ volume, high variety
C.
low inventory
D.
high fixed​ costs, low variable costs
E.
Operators are less broadly skilled.

A

B.
low​ volume, high variety

97
Q

Capacity decisions are based on technological​ concerns, not demand forecasts.

True
or
False

A

False

98
Q

Utilization will typically be lower than efficiency​ because:

A.
effective capacity is greater than design capacity.
B.
effective capacity equals design capacity.
C.
expected output is less than rated capacity.
D.
expected output is less than actual output.
E.
effective capacity is less than design capacity.

A

E.
effective capacity is less than design capacity.

99
Q

An assembly line has 10 stations with times of​ 1, 2,​ 3, 4,​ …, 10, respectively. What is the bottleneck​ time?

A.
​550% of the throughput time
B.
​100% of the throughput time
C.
​18.18% of the throughput time
D.
​1.82% of the throughput time
E.
​50% of the throughput time

A

C.
​18.18% of the throughput time