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ACTS (Reinforcement) > ISBB part 2 > Flashcards

ISBB part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Natural barriers of the immune system include all except?

a. pH of secretions
b. Coughing
c. Hair follicles
d. Intestinal bacteria

A

C

Innate immunity
- Anatomical barrier
= Skin
- Chemical
= Secretion (pH), Tears, Saliva
- Physiological
= Action: Coughing, sneezing
- Microbial Barrier
= Intestinal bacteria

No hair follicles, it creates a hair

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2
Q

The fundamental difference vbetweem primar and secondary organs of the lymphatic system is:

a. Antibody production occurs only in primary lymph organs
b. Complement production occurs
c.
d. Maturation of lymphocytes occurs in primary organs. and activation occurs in secondary organs

A

d

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3
Q

Toll-like receptors act in which way?

a. Enhance recognition of bacteria by phagocytic cells
b. Activate B cells to produce antibody
c. Activate helper T cells
d. Aid in processing antigen in the form of an MHC molecule

A

a

PAMP

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4
Q

Neutrophil and monocytes have receptors for which part of the immunoglobulin molecule?

a. FC
b. FAB
c. Hinge region
d. Variable region

A

a

it is where the neutrophil connects

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5
Q

which cell is considered to be a bridge between the innate and adaptive immune systems

a. NK cell
b. Mast Cell
c. Monocyte-Macrophage
d. T-Cell

A

a

CD 16. 56, 94

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6
Q

The key structural difference that distinguishes immunoglobulin subclasses:

a. Stereometry of the hypervariable region
b. Number of domains
c. Sequence of the constant regions
d. Number of disulfide bridges

A

C

The number if Dsuldie bridges is for differentiating IgG

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7
Q

Molecules that bind to an Ag to increase phagocytosis are:

a. opsonins
b. Cytokines
c. Haptens
d. Isoty[pes

A

a

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8
Q

Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a patient with AIDS

a. 2:1
b. 3:1
c. 2:3
d. 1:2

A

d

it can also be 0.5:1

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9
Q

Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV

.a ELISA, 4th generation and RAPID antibody tests
.b Immunofluorescense Western Blot
.c. Culture, Antigen Capture assay
d reverse transcriptase and messenger RNA assay

A

a

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10
Q

A patient with Viral infection to the ABC virus is found to have a high AB titer to the ABC virus RNA or ANto-ABCR. Whihc of the following is true?

a. MHC Class I molecules presented Antigen to CD4+ T cells
b. MHC Class II molecules presented Antigen to CD8+ T cells
c. MHC Class I molecules presented Antigen to CD8+ T cells
d. MHC Class II molecules presented Antigen to CD4+ T cells

A

c

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11
Q

Post zone causes false neg reactions in Ab titers as a result of which of the followin?

a. Too much diluent added to test
b. Excess Antibody
c. Excess Antigen
d. Incorrect Diluent added to test

A

c

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12
Q

In redial immunodiffusion test, the gel contains which of the followin?

a. the antigen to be tested
b. Antibody
c. Patient sample
d. Non of the above, the gels is the medium to which the Ab and antigen are applied in equal proportion

A

b

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13
Q

In an Oucheterlony immunodiffusion, the line of precipitation between the Ab and the Ag wells form an X

a. Nonidentity
b. Partial identity
c. Identity
d. Nocorrelation

A

a

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14
Q

Which of the following cytokines is also known as the T cell growth factor?

a. IFN-Y
b. IL-12
c. IL2
d. IL-10

A

C

HOT - IL 1
T- Bone: IL 3 - Stimulates progenitor cells (Multi stimulating factor CSF
stEAK: IL 4

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15
Q

A deficiency of T cells Can result in which of the following?

a. Low levels of complement
b. Dysfunctional macrophage
c. Fewer B cells maturing to plasma cells
d. Contact dematitis

A

c

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16
Q

Rheumatoid factor is typically an IgM autoantibody with specificity for which of the following?

a. SS-B
b. DS-DNA
c. RNP
d. FC portion of IgG

A

d

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17
Q

In graves disease, one of the main Autoantibodies is:

a. Anti-CCP
b. Ab to islet of pancreas
c. Antibody to thyroid stimulating hormone receptor
d. Anti-dsDNA

A

c

Anti CCP = RA

18
Q

A 1 year old boy is seen for having many recurrent infections with Strep. pneumonia. Labn tests revealed a normal quantity T cells but no B cells

a. CLL
b. Brutons Agammaglobulinemia
c. ALL
d. AML

A

b

19
Q

A radiograph of 1 yr old boy indicates the lack of a thymys. CBC count and Flow cytometry congirm a below normal lymphocyte count and a lack of T cells

a. Digeorge’s syndrome
b. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
c. Bare lymphocyte syndrome
b. Brutoan Agammaglunulineia

A

a

Condition with no thymus but below normal lymphocyte

Wiskott aldrich: TIE

Bare lymphocyte: No Receptor

20
Q

A DPT vaccination is an example of :

a. Active humoral mediated immunity
b. Passive humoral mediated immunity
c. Cell mediated immunity
d. Immediate hypersensitivity

A

a

21
Q

When should quality control be performed on routine blood typing reagents?

a. At the beginning of each shift
b. Once daily
c. Weekly
d., Only when opening new vial

A

b

22
Q

The temp of blood refrigerator without a continuous recording device should be recorded:

a. daily
b. Every 4 hours
c. Once every 24 hours
d. Every 30 mins

A

b

23
Q

The temp for incubation of indirect antiglobulin test should be ______

a. 24 C
b. 6 C
c. 37 C
d. 37 +_ 10 C

A

c

24
Q

The transport tem for PRBC is:

a. 1-10 C
b. 1-4 C
c. 1-6 C
d. 20-25 F

A

a

b = Ref

25
Q

You have added IgG sensitized Red cells to a negative indirect aHG test. You observe agglutination in the tube. What situation was not controlled for in testing by adding these control cells

a. The addition of patient serum
b. The addition of AHG reagent
c. Adequate washing of cell suspension
d. Adequate potency of AHG reagent

A

a

26
Q

Part of the daily QC in the Blood bank laboratory is the testing of reagent antisera with corresponding antigen-positive and antigen negative red cells. What does this procedure ensure?

a. Ab Class
b. Ab Titer
c. Ab specificity
d. Ab sensitivity

A

c

27
Q

What reagent would be selected to detect the presence of unexpected Red cell antibodies in a patient’s serum sample?

a. A1 and B cells
b. Panel Cells
c. IgG sensitized cells
d. Screening cells

A

d

DETECT not IDENTIFY

28
Q

To dtermine the specificity of Red cell antigen in a patient sample, what source of Ab is selected?

a. Commercial Reagent Red cells
b. Commercial antisera
c. Patient serum
d. Patient plasma

A

b

You known the reactions

29
Q

In PCR testing, the initital step involving ADding the DNA in Questions to a mixture of TAW polymerases, excess nucleotides, MGCL2 and Primers. this mixtures isplace in which of the followinginstrumnets to allow the amplification to take place?

a. Flow cytometry
b. Capillary array sequencer
c. Thermal cycler
d. Electrophoresis chamber

A

c

D = 92 C
A = 55 - 56 C
E =

29
Q

What are the gene prodcts of the A and B genes?

a. Glycolipids
b. Glycoproteins
c. Oligosaccharides
d. Transferase enzymes

A

d

30
Q

Which of the following phenotypes would react with Anti F?

a. rr
b. R1R1
c. R2R2
d. R1R2

A

A

f-antigen = part of Rh blood group , compound Antigen, “(ce)”

31
Q

Anti-D was detected in the serum of a D positive person what is a possible explanation?

a. The antibody is really anti-G
b. Compound antibody was formed
c. Regulator Gene failure
d. Missing antigen epitope

A

d

32
Q

Which of the followin Ab can be neutralized by pooled human urine?

a. Anti- CSa
b. Anti-Sda
c. Anti - CH
d. Anti Vel

A

b

33
Q

What procedure would help to distinguish between an Anti Fya and Anti Jka in an antibody mixture?

a. Lowering the pH of the patients serum
b. Using a Thiol reagent
c. Testing at colder temp
d. Testing Ficin-Teated panel Cells

A

d

34
Q

A DAT performed on a clotted sample stored at 4 C may demonstrate:

a. InVivo complement attachment
b. In Vivo igg attachment
c. In vitro complement attachment
d. In vitro IgM attachment

A

c

This is DAT which targets IgG and C3d

35
Q

The neutralization technique was performed on a sample containing an anti Leb. the control and the Lewis neutralized sera were both negative when rested with panel cells. How should this test be interpreted?

a. The Anti-Leb was successfully neutralized and no underlying antibodies were found
b. The panel cells were not washed sufficiently
c. The sample was probably diluted
d. The antibody originally identified was probably not Anti Le

A

c

36
Q

Platelets must be kept in constant motion for which of the following reasons?

a. Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion
b. Keep the platelets in suspension and prevents clumping of the platelets
c. Mimic what is going on in the blood vessels
d. Preserve the coagulation factors and platelet viability

A

a

37
Q

A 63 year old man with a hemoglobin value of 130 g/dL and pulse of 80 beats/min who received human pituitary growth hormone when he was 10 years old. Presents for whole blood donation.

a. Accept
b. TD, because of the human PGH
c. PD, because of the human PGH
d. PD because of hemoglobin vvalue

A

c

38
Q

An 18 year old female with a hematocrit of 38% temp of 37C and blood pressure of 175/90 mmHg presents for whole blood. based on this information, would ou accept?

a. Accept
b. TD, due to blood pressure is too high for a person of her age
c. TD, temp is too high
d. PD, for all values listed

A

a

Cut off value for Blood pressure: <180/100

39
Q

A recipients antibody screen is negative; however, the recipient is incompatible with the selected donor unit

a. recipient RBCs possess a high frequency antigen
b. Recipient has a warm autoantibody
c. Recipient possess an antibody to a low frequency antigen
d. Recipient RBCs posses a cold Autoantibody

A

c

Screen (-), Panel (+) = Low frequency

Screen (+), Panel (+) = High frequency

ACTS (Reinforcement) (13 decks)

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