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ACTS (Reinforcement) > Hematology Part 2 > Flashcards

Hematology Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

If a blood specimen is spilled on a lab bench or floor area, the first step in cleanup should be

a. wear Gloves and a lab coat
b. Absorb blood with disposable towels
c. Clean with freshly prepared 1% chlorine solution
d. wash with water

A

b

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2
Q

A trend change in QC data is:

a. A progressive change all in one direction away from the mean for at least 3 days

b. An abrupt shift in the control values

c. Scattered variations from the mean

d. A progressive change in various directions away from the mean for at least 1 week

A

a

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3
Q

A blood sample is needed from a patient with IV fluids running in both arms. Which of the following is an acceptaple procedure

a. Any obtainable vein is satisfactory
b. Obtained sample from above IV site
c. Obtain sample from below the IV site with special Restriction
d. Disconnect the IV line

A

c

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4
Q

Which of the following skin puncture areas is/are acceptable for the collection of capillary blood from an infant

a. Previous puncture site
b. Posterior curve of the heel
c. The arch
d. Medial or lateral plantar surface

A

d

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5
Q

If a blood smear is too long, the problem can be resolved by:

a. Decreasing the angle of the pusher slide
b. Increasing the angle of the pusher slide
c. Using a larger drop of blood
d. Pushing the slide slower in smearing out the blood

A

b

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6
Q

If a blood smear stains too red on microscopic examination of a wright-stained preparation, possible causes included that

a. The staining time was too long
b. The stain was too basic
c. The buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was too short
d. The buffer was too basic and the exposure time was too long

A

c

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7
Q

The maturational sequence of the thrombocyte is:

a. Megakaryoblast, promegakaryoblast, megakaryocyte, metamegakaryocyte, megakaryocyte
b. Promegakaryocyte, megakaryocyte, metamegakaryocyte, thrombocyte
c. megakaryoblast, promegakaryocyte, megakaryocyte, thrombocyte
d

A

c

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8
Q

What is the immature erythrocyte found in the bone marrow with the following characteristics: 12-17 M in Diameter, N:C 4:1, Nucleoli not usually apparent and basophili cytoplasm

a. Rubriblast
b. reticulocyte
c. Metarubricyte
d. Prorubricyte

A

d

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9
Q

The normal range for retic in adults is:

a. 0. - 0.5%
b. 0.5 - 1.0%
c. 0.5 - 1.5%
d. 1.5 - 2.5%

A

c

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10
Q

If a male patient has a retic count of 5.0% and a packed cell vol of 0.45 L/L, what is his corrected retic count?

a. 2.5%
b. 4.5%
c. 5.0%
d. 10.0%

A

c

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11
Q

Normal adult hemoglobin has:

a. 2 alpha, 2 Delta
b. 3 Alpha, 1 beta
c. 2 Alpha, 2 Beta
d. 2 Beta, 2 Epsilon

A

c

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12
Q

Increased amounts of 2-3 DPG ______ the oxygen affinity of the hemoglobin molecule

a. Increased
b. decreases
c. Does not change
d. Increases then decreases

A

b

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13
Q

Which of the following is the term for erythrocytes resembling a stack of coins on thin sections of a PBS

a. Anisocytosis
b. Precipitation
c. Agglutination
d. Rouleaux formation

A

d

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14
Q

If an alkaline (pH 8.6) electrophoresis is performed hemoglobin E has the same mobility as hemoglobin

a. S
b. F
c. A
d. C

A

D

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15
Q

In IDA, the

a. Serum iron is severely decreased and the TIBC is increased
b. Serum iron is decreased in the TIBC is normal
c. Serum iron is normal and the TIBC is normal
d. Serum iron is increased and the TIBC is normal

A

a

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16
Q

Heinz bodies are associated with congenital hemolytic anemia

a. G6PD deficiency
b. Abetalipoproteinemia
c. Hereditary Spherocytosis
d. Hemolytic anemias

A

a

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17
Q

The earliest granulocytic maturational stage in which secondary or specific appear is:

a. Myelooblast
b. mesoblast
c. Promyelocyte
d. Myelocyte

A

d

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18
Q

An increase in metamyelocyte, myelocytes, and promyelocytes can be referred to as:

a. Leukocytopenia
b. A shift to the right
c. A shift to the left
d. Pelger-Huet Anomaly

A

c

19
Q

faggot cells are predominantly seen in which type of Leukemia?

a. M1
b. M2
c. M3
d. M4

A

c

20
Q

The ALP cytochemical staining used to differentiate between

a. CML and AML
b. ALL and AML
c. CML and Severe Bacterial infections
d. Leukomoid Reactions and Severe Bacterial infections

A

c

21
Q

The Philadelphia chromosome is typically associated with

a. AML
b. Leukomoid reactions
c. ALL
d. CML

A

d

22
Q

The initiating stimulus to blood coagulation following injury to a blood vessel is

a. Contact activation with collagen
b. Vasoconstriction
c. Stenosis
d. Release of Serotonin

A

a

23
Q

The cellular ultrastructural component unique to the platelet is/are:

a. Cytoplasmic membrane
b. Glycocalyx
c. mitochondria
d. Microtubules

A

b

24
Q

At all times, approx. _____ of the total number of platelets are in the systemic circulation

a. 1/4
b. 1/3
c. 1/2
d. 2/3

A

d

25
Q

The reference range of plateles in the systemic circulation?

a. 50-150
b. 100-200
c. 150-350
d. 150-450

A

d

26
Q

If 10 platelets are seen per OIO, what is the approximate platelet count

a. 50 x 10^9/L
b. 100 x 10^9/L
c. 150 x 10^9/L
d. 200 x 10^9/L

A

d

27
Q

Aspirin ingestion has the following hemostatic effect in a normal person

a. Prolongs the bleeding time
b. Prolongs the clottingtime
c. Inhibits faster VIII
d. Has no Effect

A

a

28
Q

The bleeding time test measures

a. The ability of platelets to stick together
b. Platelet adhesion and aggregation on locally injured vascular subendothelium
c. The quantity and Quality of platelets
d. Antibodies against platelets

A

b

29
Q

The component is essential for normal platelet aggregation

a. Calcium
b. Glycoprotein IB
c. vWF
d. Glycoprotein IIB/IIIA complex

A

d

30
Q

The clot retraction test is:

a. A visible reaction to the activation of platelet actomyosin (Thromboshtenin
b. A reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors
c. A measurement of the ability of platelets to stick to glass
d. A measurement of the cloudiness of blood

A

b

31
Q

The extrinsic pathway of coagulatioj is triggered by the entry of ______ into the circulation

a. Membrane lipoproteis
b. tissue thromboplastin
c. Calcium
d. Factor VII

A

b

32
Q

If a pediatric preoperative patient has a family history of bleeding but has never had a bleeding episode herself, what test should be included in a coagulation profile in addition to the PT, APTT, and plt count?

a. lee-white clotting time
b. Clot retraction time
c. Bleeding time
d. FSP

A

c

33
Q

A patient with a severe decrease in factor Activity would demonstrate normal

a. APTT
b. PT
c. Thrombin Time
d. Bleeding time

A

d

34
Q

Neither TheAPTT Nor the PT detects a Deficiency of

a. PF3
b. F VII
c. F VIII
d. F IX

A

a

35
Q

If a child rat poison which of the followin should be performed to test the effect of the poison on the child’s coagulation mechanism?

a. APTT
b. PT
c. Fibrinogen assay
d. Thrombin Time

A

B

rat Poison = warfarin (Earliest marker to be decrease is Factor VII) targets prothrombin group

36
Q

A patient has a prolonged APTT and a normal PT. The APTT is not corrected by Factor VIII deficient plasma but is corrected by factor IX-deficient plasma. In which factor Does the patient appear to be deficient?

a. factor II
b. Factor V
c. Factor VIII
d. Factor IX

A

c

37
Q

Hemorrhagic disease of Newborns is often due to hyprothrmbenimia. This conditions may be prevented by giving expectant mothers adequate doses of :

a. Vit A
b. Vit C
c. Vit D
d. Vit K

A

d

38
Q

A condition characterized by the presence of large platelets with dohle like bodies in leukocytes:

a. Wiskott - aldrich
b. May hegglin
c. Bernard-soulier
d. Alport syndrome

A

b

39
Q

The abbriviation LASER stands for

a.
b.
c. Light Amplified by Stimulated
d.

A
40
Q

The term parameter means

a. A subset of a population
b. The mean Value of a sample
c. Two SDS either side of the mean value
d. ANy numerical value that describes an entire population

A

d

41
Q

which of the following activates fibrinolysis?

a. Plasmin
b. PAI-1
c. TAFI
d. Tissue plasminogen activator

A

d

42
Q

M4

a. Acute Promyelocytic leukemia
b. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
c.
d.

A

b

43
Q

The rest similar to the previous one

A

ACTS (Reinforcement) (13 decks)

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