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Microbio > intro to microbio > Flashcards

intro to microbio Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most common helminth infection in the USA and what is unique about it

A

nematodes (roundworms) [pinworm]
have a complete digestive system unlike the others

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2
Q

worm is an example of what

A

helminths

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3
Q

3 types of helminths

A

nematodes (roundworms)
cestodes (tapeworms)
trematodes (flukes)

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4
Q

virus particle is called what

A

viron

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5
Q

all prokaryotic organisms are classified as what

A

bacteria

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6
Q

what is the human microbiome

A

the total # and diversity of microbes in and on the human body

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7
Q

what are the most common sites of the body inhabited by normal microbiota

A

those in contact or in communication w the outside world

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8
Q

important place w microbiota in body

A

INTESTINAL TRACT
skin
eye
mouth and nose
urogenital tract

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9
Q

what can colonize plastic catheters

A

staphylococcus epidermidis (90% of skin aeroboes)

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10
Q

what causes skin infections

A

staphlococcus aureus

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11
Q

what is associated w acne

A

propionibacterium acnes (anaerobic)
resides in deeper layers of skin, hair follicles, sweat glands and sebaceous glands

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12
Q

what microbe is associated w mouth and nose

A

streptococcus mutans

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13
Q

where does streptococcus mutans colonize

A

teeth and gingival tissue

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14
Q

what does streptococcus mutan damage

A

colonize damaged or prosethetic heart valves

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15
Q

streptococcus mutans leads to what fatal infective thing

A

leads to fatal infective endocarditis

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16
Q

does density of microbes increase or decrease along the alimentary canal

A

density increases

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17
Q

what species constitutes a significant % in the large in

A

Bacteroides species

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18
Q

where is the greatest number of bacteria and greatest number of species

A

gut microbiota

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19
Q

most of fecal bacteria is anaerobes or aerobes

A

anaerobes

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20
Q

what bacteria species maintains the low pH of vagina

A

lactobacillus species

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21
Q

some bacteria of the bowel produce what substances

A

antimicrobial substances

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22
Q

opportunistic microbes

A

some microbes that cause disease only under certain conditions

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23
Q

subclinical infection

A

infection w no detectable symptoms

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24
Q

latent infection

A

infection w the potential to become active at some time

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25
Q

primary infection

A

infection by an organism that may become latent and later cause other disease manifestations

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26
Q

secondary infection

A

reactivation of latent infection or second stage of an infection

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27
Q

mixed infection

A

2 or more bacteria infecting the same tissue

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28
Q

pyrogenic infection

A

pus forming

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29
Q

fulminant infection

A

infections that occur suddenly and intensely

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30
Q

stages of pathogenesis

A

-entry
-adhesion
-invasion
-propagation
-damage
-progression/resolution

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31
Q

what are virulence factors

A

those characteristics of a bacterium that enhance its pathogenicity

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32
Q

what is infections dose ID 50

A

how any organisms are required to cause disease in 50% of those exposed

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33
Q

lethal dose LD 50

A

how many organisms kill 50% of test animals

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34
Q

virulence factors (5 of them)

A

-capsule
-surface adhesion molecule
-bacterial enzymes such as collagenase and hyaluronidase
-iron-binding proteins to obtain iron for growth
-bacterial toxins

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35
Q

exotoxins are proteins secreted by gram positive or gram negative

A

both

36
Q

is exotoxins more toxic or endotoxins

A

exotoxic

37
Q

how are endotoxins released

A

by bacterial lysis and are not secreted

38
Q

endotoxins are components of outer membrane in what gram bacteria

A

gram negative

39
Q

lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is endotoxin or exotoxins

A

endotoxin

40
Q

tissue damage in bacterial infections is caused by what and released from what

A

various cytokines released from the lymphocytes, macrophages, and polymorphonuclear leukocytes at the site of infection or in the bloodstream

41
Q

tissue damage in bacterial infections is caused by what and released from what

A

various cytokines released from the lymphocytes, macrophages, and polymorphonuclear leukocytes at the site of infection or in the bloodstream
(inflammatory cytokines)

42
Q

viral infections can lead to (4 things)

A

-cell death
-transformation (normal cels into malignant cells)
-cell fusion
-cytopathic effect (any visible change in appearance)

43
Q

indication of this symptom - erythema migrans (large skin lesion with bright red outer border and partially clear central area)

A

early localized lyme disease

44
Q

indication of these symptoms - chills, fever, cardiovascular instability

A

bacteremia

45
Q

indication of these symptoms - pulmonary consolidation (fluid in lung)

A

pneumonia

46
Q

indication of these symptoms - stupor (near unconsciousness) and stiff neck

A

infection may have spread to the meninges therefore cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) needs to be evaluated

47
Q

Gram Stain what color is gram positive and what color is gram negative

A

gram positive - purple
gram negative - pink /red

48
Q

when can microorganisms not be identified in gram staining

A

if they lack cell walls

49
Q

what are the colors for the acid fast bacteria and non acid fast bacteria in acid fast stating

A

acid fast organisms will be pink/red after staining
non acid fast staining will be blue

50
Q

acid fast organisms contain large amounts of what

A

acid fast organisms contain large amounts of mycolic acids (fatty acids)

51
Q

when is india ink useful

A

useful in detecting crytococcus neoformans in CSF

52
Q

how are crytococcus identified in india ink

A

by their large, transparent capsules that displace India ink particles

53
Q

how does potassium hydroxide preparation work

A

treatment w KOH dissolves host cells and bacteria, sparing fungi

54
Q

how are fungi recognized in potassium hydroxide prep

A

recognized by their filamentous (hyphae) or round (oval) structures

55
Q

all clinically important bacteria require what element and what does that make them

A

heterotrophs (requires organic carbon for growth)

56
Q

what does a fastidious organism mean

A

requires either a large number of growth factors or very specific ones

57
Q

facultative anaerobes

A

have the ability to grow anaerobically, but grows better w O2

58
Q

aerotolerant anaerobes

A

does not use oxygen for growth but can tolerate it

59
Q

microaerophilies

A

requires oxygen [ ] lower than O2 found in the air

60
Q

when is solid medium (nutrient agar used)

A

isolation of bacterium

61
Q

when is liquid medium (nutrient broth used)

A

to grow larger quantities of a culture of bacteria that have already been isolated as a pure culture

62
Q

defined media

A

contains known quantities of all ingredients

63
Q

undefined (complex)

A

contains some complex ingredients such as yeast extract w has unknown proportions

64
Q

enriched

A

contains the nutrients required to support the growth of a wide variety of organisms, including some of the more fastidious ones

65
Q

ex of enriched media

A

blood agar (sheep/horse)
chocolate agar

66
Q

differential media

A

used to differentiate one microorganism from another

67
Q

reducing media

A

used for growth of obligate anaerobes

68
Q

selecive media

A

used for growth of only selected microorganisms

69
Q

catalase test how does it work

A

catalyzes the degradation of h2o2 to water and oxygen

70
Q

catalse test results

A

catalse + will produce bubbles when exposed to a solution of h2o2

71
Q

staphylococci catalase + or -

A

catalase +

72
Q

streptococci and enterococci catalase + or -

A

catalase -

73
Q

oxidase test results

A

cytochrome c can accept e- from artificial substances, producing a dark, oxidized product

74
Q

how does coagulase test work

A

coagulase causes a clot to form when bacteria are incubated w plasma

75
Q

staphyloccocus aureus coagulase + or -

A

coagulase +

76
Q

staphylococci coagulase + or -

A

coagulase -

77
Q

how does urease test work

A

urease hydrolzyses urea to NH3 and CO2
ammonia produced and detected w pH indicates (phenol red) that change color in response to increased alkalinity

78
Q

metabolic pathway test what does color change indicate

A

color change indicates the presence or absence of the bacteria’s ability to metabolize a particular substrate

79
Q

quelling reaction result

A

makes bacteria w CAPSULE more visible (appears SWOLLEN [+]) when organisms are treated w serum w specific antibodies

80
Q

latex agglutination test result

A

latex and other particles can be readily coated w either antibody (for antigen detection) or antigen (for antibody detection)

addition of antigen to antibody-coated latex beads causes AGGLUTINATION +

81
Q

complement fixation test result

A

solution turns PINK
detects ability of the antibody to bind complement

82
Q

ELISA result

A

enzyme converts substrate into a colored product (antigen/antibody mechanism)

83
Q

Western blotting results

A

protein detection SDS PAGE w weight

84
Q

disk diffusion method (kirby-bauer disk-diffusion method) result

A

disks w exact amounts of different antimicrobial agents are placed on culture dishes inoculated w the microbe to be tested

SIZE OF ZONE GROWTH inhibition is influenced

85
Q

minimal inhibitory [ ] results

A

dilution technique to see sensitivity to antibiotic

86
Q

bactericidal vs bacteriostatic

A

bacteriostatic - drug arrest the growth and replication and limits spread while body’s immune system handles the pathogen

bactericidal - kills bacteria

Microbio (12 decks)

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