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for midterm Flashcards

1
Q

what colonizes plastic catheters

A

staphylococcus epidermis

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2
Q

what causes skin infections

A

staphylcoccus aureus

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3
Q

what bacteria species for large intestine

A

Bacteroides

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4
Q

what maintain low pH of vagina

A

lactobacillus

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5
Q

large skin lesions w bright red outer border and partially clear central area

A

early localized lyme disease

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6
Q

chills, fever, cardiovascular instability

A

bacteremia

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7
Q

stupor (near unconscious and stiff neck)

A

meninges/cerebrospinal fluid needs to be evaluated

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8
Q

gram stain what colors

A

+ –> purple
- –> pink/red

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9
Q

acid fast stain: acid fast bacilli what color

A

pink/red

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10
Q

india ink useful for what and how identified

A

crytococcus neofarmus in CSF
identified by large, transparent capsules that displace the ink

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11
Q

potassium hydroxide prep spares what

A

spares fungi

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12
Q

blood agar , sheep/horse what kind of media

A

enriched

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13
Q

for catalse test + or -

stephylococci
streptococci and enterococci

A

stephylococci –> +
steptococci and enterococci –> -

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14
Q

complement fixation solution will turn what color if negative

A

pink

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15
Q

range for pyschrophil, mesophil, thermophil, and which one for human pathogens

A

psychohrils (0-20 C)
mesophils (20-45 C)
Thermoohils (45-90 C)

most human pathogens aremesophils

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16
Q

human pathogen pH

A

7-7.4

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17
Q

ETC how much ATP/Mol glucose vs substrate level phosphorylation

A

38 vs 2

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18
Q

beta-lactams (penicillin and cephalosporins)

A

inhibition of cell wall synthesis

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19
Q

polymixins (neomycin and bacitarcin)

A

alteration of cytosolic membrane integrity
(displace mg and ca)

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20
Q

erythromycin

A

binds to 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits peptidyl transferases
(inhibition of ribosomal protein synthesis)

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21
Q

clindamycin

A

binds to 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits RNA-dependent protein synthesis
(inhibition of ribosomal protein synthesis)

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22
Q

tetracyclines

A

binds to 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibits binding of tRNA to mRNA
(inhibition of ribosomal protein synthesis)

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23
Q

metronidazole

A

reduction of 5 nitro group
suppression of nucleic acid syntehsis

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24
Q

quinolones

A

inhibit DNA supercoiling by DNA gyrase
suppression of nucleic acid synthesis

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25
sulfonamides
blocks conversion of PABA to dihydrofolic acid inhibition of folic acid synthesis
26
conjugation
cell to cell contact
27
transduction
phage vector
28
trasformation
naked DNA
29
Griffith mice experimentation was R virulent or S
R
30
crusted skin lesion
impetigo
31
infection of skin tissue that involves subcutaneous tissue, appears red, shiny, hot, swollen
cellulitis
32
collection of pus
abscess
33
small superficial abscess involving hair follicles
folliculitis
34
subcutaneous abscess that involves an hair follicle and surround tissue
furnuncle (boil)
35
clusters of furnucle connected subcutaneously, causing deeper suppuration and scarring
carbuncle
36
caused by exotoxin TSST-1 fever, nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea, erythematous rash, hypotension, and desquamation of palms and soles
toxic shock syndrome
37
caused by exfoliative toxin A and B fine sheets of skin peeling to reveal moist red skin beneath rapid healing low mortality mainly affects neonates
scalded skin syndrome
38
what sticks to catheters, has slime
staph epidermis
39
what is main player for UTI
staph saprophyticus
40
streptococcus gram what, catalase what, virulent strain encapsulated or not
gram + catalse - viruelent strain encapsulated fastidious
41
beta-hemolytic alpha-hemolytic gamma-hemolytic
beta - RBC completely lysed alpha - RBC partially lysed gamma - RBC not lysed
42
strep pyogenes (group A) where
skin infections, nasopharynx
43
step. agalctiae (group B) where
vagina
44
entercoccus fecalise (group D) where
intestine
45
strawberry tongue, red rash on body
scarlet fever
46
fiery red, advacing erythema on face or lower limbs
erysipelas
47
puffy face, darker urine, hypertension
actue glomerulonphritis
48
arthritis, carditis, fever, rash
rheumatic fever
49
acetylcholine, serotonin, GABA are what kind of channel receptors
ligand gated ion channel receptors
50
phospholipase C breaks down what into what
PIP2 --> DAG + IP3
51
what does Dag do
stimulate protein kinase C
52
what does IP3 do
binds to recptor of ER, releases Ca2+
53
rapid increase of cytosolic IP3 and Dag means stimulation of what
stimulation of PLCB
54
arachidonic acid converts metabolites to what
eicosanoids
55
NSAIDS targets what
cyclooxygenase
56
cyclooxygenase produces what
thromboxanes, prostaglandins, prostclyclins
57
5-lipoxygenase produces what
leukotrienes, HETE
58
epoxygenase produces what
HETE, EET
59
HETE and EET help w what
Ca2+ release and cell proliferation
60
phospholipase A2 releases what
arachidonic acid
61
atrial natruiretic peptide (ANP) does what
acts of vascular smooth muscle to dilate blood vessels, enhances Na+ excretion in urine
62
increased cGMP does what
relaxes vascular smooth muscle and dilates blood vessels
63
soluable guanylyl cyclase receptor which does what
NO, helps w blood flow and pressure
64
viagra inhibits what
PDE5 (which stops cGAMP which stops increased blood flow)
65
inside the cell high or low K, Na, Cl
Na and Cl low inside K high inside
66
B-CDK1 involved w what cell phase
M phase
67
D-CDK4/6 involved w what cell phase
G1 phase
68
A-CDK2 involved in what cell phase
S phase
69
INK4 inhibits what
CDK4/6
70
cip/kip affects what
CDK1/2
71
mitogens do what
inhibit inhibitors
72
presence of mitogens, cyclin D-CDK4/6 phosphorylates what which does what
phosphorylates Rb protein (allows E2F)
73
endocrine vs paracrine signaling
endocrine - distant signaling paracrine - neighbor signaling
74
SLCs, GLUT1 example of what
carriers

Microbio (12 decks)

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