Integrative Cases II Flashcards

1
Q

High BUN out of proportion to creatinine usually indicates. . .

A

. . . volume contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Clean base vs visible blood vessel gastric ulcers

A

If you are scoping a patient and see a gastric ulcer without a visible blood vessel, there is no need to do any immediate endoscopic treatment, you can just start the patient on a PPI or H2 blocker. But, if the gastric ulcer has a visible blood vessel, there is a very high risk of recurrent bleeding episodes, and so these are often cauterized or constricted with epinephrine injection intraoperatively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why might NSAIDs be contraindicated in a patient that is volume contracted?

A

The kidney’s response to volume contraction is to 1) activate RAAS to constrict the efferent arteriole, and 2) produce prostaglandins to dilate the afferent arteriole.

If the patient is taking NSAIDs, the second of these compensatory mechanisms is lost, and the kidneys may not be capable of optimally adjusting to the hypovolemic state. This may exacerbate renal failure in the case of hypovolemia, leading to increased BUN and creatinine on labs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tubulointerstitial nephritis

A

Type II inflammation of the interstitium surrounding the renal tubules. Often presents with eosinophilia of the tissue. May lead to renal failure.

This is often drug-induced, and omeperazole is one of the not so uncommon culprits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treating a GH-secreting tumor that does not secrete prolactin

A

Somatostatin analogues are preferred over dopamine agonists for treatment of these tumors, as they are less genetically similar to lacotropes and so often do not respond to dopamine as well.

If they do secrete prolactin as well as GH, then dopamine agonists are indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If there is no immediate mass-effect symptoms of a prolactin-secreting tumor, ___ is the preferred treatment.

A

If there is no immediate mass-effect symptoms of a prolactin-secreting tumor, dopamine agonist therapy is the preferred treatment.

Prolactin-secreting tumors respond very rapidly and effectively to dopamine agonists, and so they are preferred over surgery whenever there is no immediate emergency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Types of Shock

A
  • Cardiogenic: Euvolemic, but heart not pumping effectively. Extremities will be cool
  • Distributive: Encompasses septic shock, severe pancreatitis. Greatly decreased PVR, but euvolemic. Extremities will be warm.
  • Hypovolemic: Extremities will be cool.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Milrinone

A

A PDE3 antagonist that acts as a vasopressor. Acts by preventing cAMP breakdown by PDE3.

Note that this is the opposite effect of a PDE5 antagonist, like viagra, which prevents cGMP breakdown and thus sustains vasodilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Complete nutrition formula

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lactulose

A

A dissaccharide composed of glucose and fructose. Humans do not possess an enzyme capable of digesting this sugar, and so it instead acts as a fiber until it is taken up and fermented by colonic bacteria. This will produce carbon dioxide hydrogen gas, and acetic acid. The acetic acid may cause mild acid burn within the distal colon, rectum, and perianal area.

Nowadays we use miralax instead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The hypokalemia seen in bulimia comes from. . .

A

. . . the initial alkalotic state, when it is released in order to secrete the bicarbonate.

In the later stages when hypovolemia is induced, aldosterone is active, but so is angiotensin, so further potassium loss is defended against. However, in the absence of fluid restoration, there will still be persistent hypokalemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Differentiating proximal and distal tubules on H and E

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In the development of diabetes, ___ tends to increase above reference range before ___, and so screening often picks up pre-diabetic patients with elevated ___ and normal ___.

A

In the development of diabetes, postprandial glucose tends to increase above reference range before fasting glucose, and so screening often picks up pre-diabetic patients with elevated glucose tolerance results and normal fasting glucose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Gout vs pseudogout on polarized light microscopy

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Remembering birefringency direction

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CoDE Classification

A
17
Q

Causes of minimal change nephropathy

A
18
Q

Special properties of IgG4

A
  • Selectively high affinity for inhibitory Fc gamma receptors
  • Fab-arm exchange producing homobivalent antibodies incapable of cross-linking, C1q activation, or classical immune complex formation
  • Fc-Fc interaction with other IgG subtypes, which may then progress to Fab-arm exchange, effectively neutralizing the target IgG1-3
  • Th2-dependency (IL-4, IL-13, IL-10)
19
Q

Glycosylation of IgGs

A
  • Changes the affinity of IgG Fc regions for various Fc receptors and C1q
  • High galactosylation is required for IgG1-FcγRIIIa and b binding
  • Agalactosylated IgGs are pro-inflammatory, while highly galactosylated and sialylated IgGs are anti-inflammatory
20
Q

Normal bowel movement frequency

A

Ranges from 3x/week to 3x/day

Weight ~200g/day

21
Q

Proctitis

A

Condition in which the lining tissue of the inner rectum becomes inflamed.

Can cause a “pseudodiarrhea” syndrome, where patients need to defecate more frequently, but are not actually malabsorbing, oversecreting, or producing more stool than usual.

22
Q

Causes of “Pseudodiarrhea” or “hyperdefecation”

A
  • IBS-C
  • Procitis
  • Hyperthyroidism
23
Q

What is D-xylose test?

A

100 grams of D-xylose is administered orally and then urine is collected over the next 5 hours and measured for D-xylose content.

Helps distinguish pancreatic etiology from small intestinal etiology in cases of steatorrhea. Normal D-xylose indicates normal small bowel absorption, suggesting a pancreatic etiology, while an abnormally low result indicates a small intestinal etiology and is an indication for intestinal biopsy.