Colorectal Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

Sporadic CRC

A

There is no family history of CRC or other predisposing condition. Sporadic CRC accounts for about 70% of all CRCs. It is most common over the age of 50 and the risk of developing sporadic CRC increases with age.

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2
Q

Familial CRC

A

About 25% of new CRC cases are familial in nature. Affected patients have a family history of CRC, but the pattern is not consistent with one of the inherited syndromes described (eg. Father diagnosed with CRC at 75 years; maternal aunt diagnosed with CRC at 68 years).

Individuals from these families are at increased risk of developing CRC, although the risk is not as high as with the inherited syndromes.

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3
Q

Inherited CRC syndrome

A

Less than 10% of new CRC cases are due to inherited or germline cause. Inherited CRCs are broken down according to whether or not multiple colonic polyps preceed a cancer diagnosis.

Polyposis syndromes, include but are not limited to familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) and MUTYH-associated polyposis (MAP). Inherited syndromes without an obvious polyposis phenotype are referred to as nonpolyposis CRC, the most common of which is Lynch syndrome.

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4
Q

Synchronous cancers

A

Two or more primary carcinomas can coexist at the time of diagnosis

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5
Q

Metachronous cancers

A

Cancers that develop in succession over time

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6
Q

Polyposis

A

Phenotype having hundreds or even thousands of polyps, most often seen in hereditary conditions such as familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP); individuals with dozens of polyps are often referred to as having attenuated polyposis

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7
Q

Non-polyposis

A

A phenotype having few to no polyps preceeding a colon cancer diagnosis, often seen in hereditary conditions such as Lynch syndrome

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8
Q

Adenoma-to-carcinoma sequence

A

The sequence of events by which an adenomatous polyp becomes increasingly dysplastic and gain invasive potential.

Typically takes about 10 years in sporadic CRCs, but is accelerated in inherited CRC syndromes.

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9
Q

Major mechanisms that drive CRC

A
  1. Chromosomal instability pathway (CIN)
  2. Defective DNA mismatch repair (MMR)
  3. CpG island methylation pathway (CIMP)
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10
Q

ATC progression

A
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11
Q

Microsatellites

A

Regions of repetitive nucleotide sequences, where DNA mismatch is likely to occur.

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12
Q

CpG Island Methylation Pathway of CRC development

A

This pathway to CRC formation initially relies on mutations in the BRAF oncogene followed by CpG island methylation of an MMR gene or TSG.

If MSH/MLH genes are silenced by aberrant methylation, this may lead to microsatellite instability.

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13
Q

Shapes of polyp

A
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14
Q

Lynch Syndrome

A
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Mutation in mismatch repair pathway gene
    • MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, and PMS2
  • Nonpolyposis CRC syndrome, also w/ endometrial and ovarian cancer
  • 20-80% risk of developing during lifetime, average onset ~45 y.o.
  • LoH of the affected gene leads to aberrant DNA damage and cancer development
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15
Q

Lynch syndrome risk factors that indicate performing a diagnostic test

A
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16
Q

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

A
  • Autosomal dominant, however, 1/3 cases are de novo
  • Caused by LoF in the APC TSG
  • LoH leads to cancer development
  • Present w/ polyposis phenotype
  • Lifetime risk of CRC is 100% in absence of colectomy
  • Other cancers in syndrome are duodenal, thyroid, and CNS
  • Extra teeth or osteomas are also common in these individuals
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17
Q

Risk stratification in CRC

A
18
Q

The American Cancer Society recommends beginning colonoscopys creening for all average-risk patients at age __.

A

The American Cancer Society recommends beginning colonoscopys creening for all average-risk patients at age 45.

19
Q

Stool-based CRC screening

A
  • Based on the detection of exfoliated colonocytes and blood from colorectal adenomas and cancers.
  • Patients with positive tests require additional evaluation with colonoscopy and in patients with negative results screening must continue to be performed frequently in order to be effective
  • Up to 40% of patients do not adhere to the schedule of annual testing over a period of several years, and nearly one third of those with stool tests that are positive for occult blood do not undergo follow-up evaluation.
20
Q

Fecal IHC test

A
  • Detects human globin in stool
  • FIT is more specific for lower gastrointestinal bleeding as globin from an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source is digested in transit.
  • FIT screening is more expensive as compared with gFOBT but unlike gFOBT, FIT screening is performed on a single stool sample, and is overall a more effetive screening test for CRC than gFOBT.
21
Q

Fecal DNA test

A
  • Testing for mutations/oncogenes from cells shed off in the stool
  • Cologuard is a multi-target stool DNA test (MT-sDNA)
  • Process of MT-sDNA testing requires the contents of an entire bowel movement
  • May also detect malignancy in upper GI tract
22
Q

Extent of sigmoidoscopy vs colonoscopy

A
23
Q

Colonoscopy has the benefit of being both a ___ and ___ test.

A

Colonoscopy has the benefit of being both a diagnostic and therapeutic test.

24
Q

Complications during colonoscopy

A
  • Those due to sedation (hypoxia, aspiration, cardiac arrhythmia)
  • Those due to bowel preparations (electrolytes and fluid shifts, abdominal discomfort, nausea, vomiting)
  • Risk of bleeding (especially on polyp removal)
  • Risk of perforation
  • Exogenous infection due to contaminated colonoscopy equipment
25
Q

CT colonography

A
  • Less invasive than colonoscopy
  • Does not require sedation
  • Still requires air or carbon dioxide insufflation through a rectal tube to distend the colon
  • Typically requires a preparation similar to colonoscopy
  • Any abnormal results ultimately require endoscopic evaluation
  • May identify incidental findings
26
Q

Diet and colorectal cancer relative risk

A
27
Q

MUTYH-associated polyposis

A
  • Autosomal recessive
  • Mutations in MUTYH, a gene associated with base excision repair
  • Attenuated heritable polyposis phenotype relative to FAP
  • Average onset ~45 years of age
  • Can be well managed with annual colonoscopies
  • Subtotal colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis or IPAA recommended in setting of CRC or diffuse polyposis that is not amenable to endoscopic management
28
Q

Excision vs biopsy

A

Excision is a technique in which the entire colon wall is removed surgically, and may be stained and visualized under a microscope.

Biopsy differs in that it is taken during a colonoscopy and contains only superficial layers of the colon. It does not sample te entirety of the colon wall.

29
Q

Layers of the colon

A
30
Q

Colon layers of biopsy

A
31
Q

Taenia coli on H and E

A
32
Q

The submucosal plexus regulates ___.

A

The submucosal plexus regulates glandular secretion and local blood flow.

33
Q

The myenteric plexus regulates ___.

A

The myenteric plexus regulates smooth muscle contraction, peristalsis and gastrointestinal motility. The ganglia are in between layers of smooth muscle.

34
Q

Location of submucosal plexus

A
35
Q

Location of myenteric plexus

A
36
Q

Patient presents with iron deficiency anemia. Found to have extra teeth on physical exam. Guiac positive. Found to have colonic polyps on colonoscopy.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

FAP or MAP

37
Q

APC function

A
38
Q

Signs of hyperplastic vs dysplastic polyp

A

Hyperplastic: Undulating, wide crypts with relatively normal orientation (“test tubes in a rack”) and normally oriented blood vessels

Dysplastic: Highly basophilic staining due to chromosomal abnormalities, branching crypts, with abnormal orientation and angiogenesis

39
Q

Hyperplastic polyps are. . .

A

. . . benign

But, we don’t know whether or not they are hyperplastic until they remove them.

40
Q

Adenoma describes ___.

A

Adenoma describes dyplasia.

So, if something is just hyperplastic, it is, by definition. not an adenoma.