Basic Renal Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Early development of the kidney

A

First, the pronephros forms. This is a simple array of large tubes.

Then, this develops into the mesonephros, containing both tubes and filtering apparatuses.

Part of the mesonephros will degenerate and form the metanephros, the segment of the tubules which gives rise to the ureteric bud. This bud invades the surrounding mesenchymal tissue to form the body of the kidney. Signaling from these buds leads to the formation of nephrons and then the metanephric mesenchyme converts to the renal epithelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ureteric bud development

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Rough structure of a nephron

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Developmental ascent of the kidneys

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CAKUT

A

Cognenital abnormalities of the kidney and urinary tract

These range from a double ureter to an obstruction at the junction of the renal pelvis to the origin of the ureter. There can also be abnormalities of the urethra and bladder. One common abnormality is “posterior urethral valves” which leads to obstruction of the bladder, oligohydramnios and the consequences of this is reduced amniotic fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Wilm’s Tumor

A

The most common renal malignancy of childhood. It develops because of a deletion in the tumor suppression gene WT1 (Wilm’s tumor 1). They are usually large but encapsulated and the pathology is reminiscent of early renal development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Unilateral renal agenesis

A

Will be asymptomatic (this is fairly common and thought to occur 1 in 1,000 births).

When it is bilateral, there will be oligohydramnios, and this can lead to inadequate fetal lung development and disfigurement of the growing fetus because the fetus is compressed against the placenta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Blood flow to the kidneys

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Three layers of renal capillaries

A
  1. Fenestrated endothelium
  2. Specialized basement membrane
  3. Podocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Podocytes

A

Unique type of visercal epithelial cell that lines the renal capillaries.

These cells have a series of extensions or “feet” that interdigitate with neighboring cells to form specialized junctions that allow filtration. They also help support the open capillaries in a fashion analogous to the architectural flying buttress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hydrostatic and oncotic pressure gradient across renal capillaries vs distance

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Important physiologic distinctions between glomerular and normal capillaries

A
  • Glomerular capillaries have a higher hydraulic pressure
  • That pressure changes very little from beginning to end (~constant slope)
  • The oncotic pressure of the capillary rises asymptotically with the hydrostatic pressure as the limit (while it is constant in normal capillaries)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The “kidney function” and SNGFR

A

The “kidney function” of an individual patient is the sum of the filtration of each of the glomeruli.

The single nephron glomerular filtration rate (SNGFR) is a model on the level of an individual nephron. This follows the function:

SNGFR = k x A x (ΔP - Δπ)

Where k is hydraulic permeability and A is surface area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Clearance

A

Also called the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). The clearance of a substance is the volume of plasma from which all the substance is removed and excreted per unit time.

Clearance of a substance = GFR if the substance is:

  1. Freely filtered
  2. Not secreted
  3. Not absorbed

U is the concentration of a substance in the urine. V is the urine flow rate and P is the concentration in the plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Inulin

A

A natural, easily measurable polysaccharide that has been used to study renal clearance because it meets the criteria of the clearance equation. When injected into humans or dogs, it rapidly appears in the urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Calculating renal blood flow from lab measurements

A

This assay utilizes para aminohippurate, or PAH, which is so readily excreted by the glomerulus that it does not make it into the renal vein, thus delivery = excretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Creatinine

A

A normal serum creatinine for a man is about 1.0 mg/dL and normal values for women tend to be a little lower, perhaps 0.7-0.8 mg/dL.

Creatinine slightly overestimates the GFR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Creatinine clearance equation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

eGFR equation

A

GFR (mL/min/1.73 m2 ) = 175 × (Scr)e-1.154 × (Age)e-0.203 × (0.742 if female) × (1.212 if African American)

No need to memorize this, but know it is the more accurate equation, but it too is still an estimate. Depsite this, it is now looked down upon due to its use of ‘race’ which is not particularly useful and was not even determined with any examination of ancestry of this population. It also often overestimates kidney function of African Americans, who have some of the highest risk for ESRD. Better off ignoring the last part of the equation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

BUN

A

Blood urea nitrogen

Formerly used as another assessment of renal function, still used sometimes, but not as useful as creatinine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Renal autoregulation relationship

A

The kidney’s vasculature autoregulates incoming pressure across a wide range of pressure, but is not all encompassing. Too low and there is insufficient pressure to perfuse the kidney and filter in glomeruli. Too high and the glomeruli get damaged by sheer stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sympathetic and juxtaglomerular autoregulation of renal perfusion

A

Sympathetic: Efferent nerves from the thoraco-lumbar sympathetic chain and the celiac plexus supply the kidney and release norepinephrine which results in vasoconstriction.

Juxtaglomerular: Juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole release renin in response to decreased blood pressure. This results in angiotensin II production downstream in the lungs, locally constricting renal blood vessels and systemically affecting blood pressure and fluid retention as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most important of the many roles of angiotensin II

A
  • Potent systemic vasoconstriction
  • Maintenance of glomerular filtration rate
  • Sodium retention (especially in the proximal tubule)
  • Stimulation of aldosterone release
  • Cardiac remodeling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Role of prostaglandins in renal autoregulation

A

Allow for renal vasodilation even when there is systemic vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Macula densa

A

Portion of the distal convoluted tubule which comes back up to meet the glomerulus again, making tubuloglomerular feedback possible.

If the flow is very high in the macula densa, a signal is sent to the glomerulus to limit filtration by vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole. If the flow in the macula densa is reduced, then mediators release prostaglandins to vasodilate the afferent arteriole and increase filtration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which renal vein is longer?

A

The left! It has to cross over the aorta in order to make its way to the inferior vena cava. In transit, it passes between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Abdominal aorta

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cortical-medullary imaging phase

A

Phase after injecting contrast at which the contrast is in the cortex of the kidney, but has not yet made its way into the medullary renal pyramids and glomeruli.

Useful for imaging purposes and demostrates the circulation of the kidney.

~30 seconds post-bolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Sequence of renal imaging

A

Contrast moves from a cortical-only distribution, to a homogenous distribution, to a homogeneous distribution with enhanced papillae and renal pelvis.

30
Q

Shapes on renal imaging (CT) and interpretation

A

Wedge-shaped dark region

31
Q

Horseshoe kidney

A

Resides lower in the abdomen as it is trapped on ascent by the inferior mesenteric artery.

U shaped, fused kidneys. Higher risk of traumatic injury to kidnies.

32
Q

Cross-fused ectopic kidney

A

Developmental anomaly. Kidnies are both on one side and may be connected towards the renal pelvis.

33
Q

Fascia surrounding the kidnies

A
34
Q

Loin pain hematuria syndrome

A

Occurs when the superior mesenteric artery and aorta cut off the left renal vein as it transits to the IVC.

Results in nephric pain and blood in the urine.

35
Q

Anatomy of the gonadal veins

A

The right gonadal vein goes directly into the IVC, much like the left renal vein, and has its own dedicated valve at the IVC junction.

The left gonadal vein, much like the left renal vein, must take a more circuitous route. It actually drains into the left renal vein in a valveless junction in order to reach the IVC. Compression of these structures may result in enlarged, varicosed veins on the left side of a male’s testicles, however this is very rare on the right side.

36
Q

Isolated anatomy of the renal and adrenal vasculature

A
37
Q

Presentation of pain in nephrolithiasis

A

Very commonly there is pain at the posterior costo-vertebral angle on the affected size, but due to the lumbar-plexus anatomy, pain often follows a somewhat dermatomal distribution and extends down to the pelvis, testicles, or vagina, and even the medial thigh.

Urinary urgency is often accompanying,

38
Q

Ureter cross-sectional histology

A
39
Q

Vesico-ureteral junction

A
40
Q

The following is a transmission electron micrograph showing kidney microcircullation. What are the vessels shown?

A
41
Q

Nephron structure

A
42
Q

Nephron with associated vasculature

A
43
Q

Structure of Bowman’s Capsule

A
44
Q

Scanning EM of a podocyte

A
45
Q

What determines glomerular filtration of a substance (ignoring reabsorption for now)

A
46
Q

Nephron tubule reabsorption summary

A
47
Q

General role of the major parts of the nephric tubules

A

Proximal: Reabsorb most of the good stuff

Thin parts of loop of Henle: Reabsorb water (water permeable)

Thick part of ascending loop of Henle: Reabsorb Na+, Cl-, Ca2+, Mg2+ (water impermeable)

Distal: Reabsorb Na+ and Ca2+, dilute urine by adding water back

Collecting duct: 1) Principals cells: tunable water reabsorption (vasopressin-AQP2-dependent) and exchange Na+ for H+, 2) alpha-intercalated cells: move H+ to lumen

48
Q

Major machinery within a proximal tubule cell

A

The Na-K ATPase on the basolateral side and all of the many mitochondria in the cell create a Na+ gradient, which is then utilized by the Nhe3 exchanger on the apical side to pump out protons so bicarbonate and other pH-dependent substances may be reabsorbed. Brush-border carbonic anhydrase aids with this process.

49
Q

Bicarbonate clearance threshold

A

The kidnies will retain bicarbonate in the plasma up to a concentration of about 25 mEq/L. Past this value, all bicarbonate will be eliminated and appear in the urine.

50
Q

Ammoniagenesis within proximal tubule cells

A

Proximal tubule cells dispose of nitrogenous waste in the form of glutamine by removing the nitrogen in the form of NH4 and secreting it, preserving the glucose backbone and making a few molecules of bicarbonate in the process.

51
Q

Thick ascending loop of Henle cell

A
52
Q

Distal convoluted tubule cell

A
53
Q

Two major cells of the collecting duct

A

Principal cells and alpha-Intercalated cells

54
Q

The SGLTs

A

Expressed in the proximal tubule cells.

55
Q

How will afferent and efferent arteriole dilation or constriction affect the renal blood flow through capillaries and the GFR? Fill out the table below.

A
56
Q
A
57
Q

Nephron function with and without vasopressin

A
58
Q

Angiotensin II on the paraglomerular arterioles

A

The efferent arteriole is much more sensitive to angiotensin II than the afferent arteriole.

59
Q

Low flow in the macula densa will lead to . . .

A

. . . the production of prostaglandins in the afferent arteriole, which dilates the afferent arteriole and increases GFR.

60
Q

Tubuloglomerular feedback in the setting of high incoming pressure

A
  1. A local myogenic response in the afferent arteriole causes vasoconstriction in order to reduce glomerular pressure
  2. High flow detected in the macula densa causes the release of adenosine (which uniquely vasoconstricts in the afferent arteriole) and inhibits renin release.
61
Q

Tubuloglomerular feedback in the setting of low incoming pressure

A
  1. Decreased pressure detected in the afferent arteriole leads to local renin release in the AA.
  2. Low flow detected in the macula densa results in release of prostaglandins, which vasodilate the AA to maintain GFR, and increase release of renin.
62
Q

Renal hilum structures from anterior to posterior

A

Vein

Artery

Ureter

63
Q

3 sites most likely to develop kidney stones

A
  1. Ureteropelvic junction
  2. Crossing of iliac artery
  3. Uretovesicular junction
64
Q

Which areas of the kidney are most susceptible to damage if there is high pressure in the renal pelvis?

A

The poles, due to their dual-papilla. Papillae help absorb pressure in the kidney, but the fused dual papillae at the superior and inferior poles are less effective than the singular papillae.

65
Q

Sodium is reabsorbed __ in the kidney.

A

Sodium is reabsorbed isotonically in the kidney.

66
Q

Thinning of the renal cortex means. . .

A

. . . less glomeruli. May be seen in abnormal development or in infarction/tissue death.

67
Q

Oligohydramnois

A

Abnormally low level of amniotic fluid. Usually indicates malfunction of fetal kidnies. Potentially deadly for the fetus due to poor shock absorption.

68
Q

Takeaways for all nephron segments

A
69
Q

Countercurrent multiplier system

A
70
Q

NCC

A

Na+/Cl- symporter in distal convoluted tubule. Target of thiazide diuretics.

71
Q

Ion channels on principal cells

A

ENaC: Epithelial Na Channel, a passive sodium channel that lets sodium in.

ROMK and Maxi-K: Potassium channels that passively let potassium out.

72
Q

Charge of the collecting duct

A

Relatively electronegative