Instruments/Flight Rules Flashcards

1
Q

Steady Green Light

A

Cleared for takeoff; cleared to land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Flashing Green Light

A

Cleared to taxi; come back around (expect steady green)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Steady Red Light

A

stop; give way to other aircraft and continue circling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Flashing Red Light

A

taxi clear of landing area/runway in use; airport not safe - do not land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Alternating Red/Green Light

A

general warning signal - exercise extreme caution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Flashing White Light

A

return to starting point on airport; no air meaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

To enter Class D

A

need 2 way comms and a 2 way radio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Actual Instrument Approach

A

when actual instrument conditions are encountered below 1000 ft above airport/flight deck during an instrument approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Actual Instrument Conditions

A

conditions external to the aircraft in flight that do not permit visual reference to the horizon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aerobatic Flight Maneuvers

A

intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in a/c attitude, intentionally performed spins, or other maneuvers requiring pitch/dive angles > 45 deg AOB, bank angles > 60 deg AOB, or accelerations greater than 2 g’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Instrument Meteorological Conditons

A

meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceiling less than the minimums specified for visual meteorological conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

IMC conditions exist ___

A

any time a visible horizon is not distinguishable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Instrument Time

A

portion of pilot time in either day or night under actual or simulated instrument conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Logging Actual Instrument Time

A

both pilots in multipiloted a/c during flight in actual IMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Simulated instrument time shall be logged

A

only by pilot actually manipulating controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CNAF Local Flying Area

A

shall not exceed 350 miles from an air installation and be designated as such in AirOps Manual by CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Operational Necessity

A

a mission associated with war or peacetime operations in which the consequences of an action justify accepting the risk of loss of a/c and crew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Simulated Inst Approach

A

instrument approach flown under simulated instrument conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Simulated Inst Conditions

A

conditions external to the a/c in flight are VMC but pilot vision is limited primarily to interior of a/c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

VMC

A

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, cloud distance, and ceiling that are equal to or better than specified minimums; basic wx conditions prescribed for flight under VFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cross Country Flight

A

either does not remain in local flying area or remains in local flying area and terminates at a facility other than an active military facility; includes out and ins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Civilian Airfield Ops are permitted when such operations

A

contribute to mission accomplishment, add value to training, or are otherwise in the interests of government and taxpayer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Authorized to land at other than airfield locations provided

A
  1. Military requirement exists for such a landing
  2. Adequate safeguards are taken to permit safe landing and takeoff ops without hazard to people or property
  3. There are no legal obligations to landing at such nonairfield sites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Conditions to land at other than airfield can be waived when

A

aircraft is engaged in SAR ops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Closed Airfield Ops

A

Prohibited from taking off/landing except in emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

PIC/Form Leader is responsible for

A
  1. flight has been properly authorized
  2. adequate flight planning data
  3. flight adheres to prescribed fuel requirements and wx mins
  4. each pilot has received flight wx brief
  5. PIC/each pilot in formation possesses valid instrument rating
  6. Passengers briefed/manifested
  7. Weight and balance
  8. PIC acknowledges responsibility for safe/orderly conduct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Wx briefing

A
  1. FWB
  2. 1-888-PILOTWX or FSS
  3. Commercial wx reports
28
Q

DD-175-1 Valid Times

A

valid for 3.0 hrs past briefing/FWB delivery time or ETD plus 30 min

29
Q

Wx criteria for filing

A
  1. Actual wx at point of departure at time of clearance
  2. Existing and forecast wx for entire route of flight
  3. Destination and alternate forecasts for a period 1 hr before ETA until 1 hr after ETA
30
Q

If alternate req, shall have published approach compatible with installed a/c nav equipment that can be flown without use of 2 way radio comms whenever either

A
  1. destination lacks the described approach

2. forecasted wx at alternate is below 3000 ft ceiling and 3 SM visibility during period +/- 1 hr ETA

31
Q

IFR Filing criteria; Destination 0-0

A

Alt needs 3000/3 or better

32
Q

IFR Filing criteria; Destination between published mins and up to but not including 3000/3

A

NPA: published mins + 300/1
PA: published mins + 200/1/2

33
Q

Planning for icing/storms

A

shall be planned to circumvent

34
Q

Flying through WW

A

Not progressing as forecast (verification by DoD forecaster or FSS)

  1. VFR filing if that’s met
  2. IFR if have radar installed
  3. IFR in controlled airspace if VMC can be maintained to detect/avoid storms
35
Q

Fuel Planning - Alt NOT req

A

fuel from TO to destination + 10% of planned fuel req

36
Q

Fuel Planning - Alt Req

A

fuel from TO to approach fix at destination, then to alternate + 10% of planned fuel req

37
Q

In no case shall planned fuel reserve after landing (at alt if req), be less than fuel needed for __ of flight based on

A

20 min;

fuel consumption at planned flight altitude

38
Q

Cancellation of instrument flight plan ___ meet the requirement for closing flight plan

A

does not

39
Q

Position Lights

A

30 min before official sunset until 30 min after official sunrise or at any time visibility from cockpit is less than 3000/3

40
Q

3 times to turn on position lights

A
  1. immediately before engine start
  2. a/c being towed
  3. a/c is parked and likely to cause a hazard unless a/c otherwise illuminated
41
Q

Anti-Collision Lights

A

immediately before engine start and all times when a/c engines operating except when lights adversely affect ground ops; can be turned off in clouds

42
Q

Landing/Taxi Lights

A

should be utilized for all taxi movements ashore during hours of darkness; recommended during approaches (day/night) within class B, C, D

43
Q

outside controlled airspace, helos can operate below ___ ft AGL, __ of clouds, when vis is __ if __

A

1200; clear; less than 1 SM; operated at speed that allows pilot adequate opportunity to see and avoid other traffic & maintain obstacle clearance

44
Q

Minimum Altitude out of controlled airspace

A

1000 ft above highest terrain or obstacle within 22 miles; 2000 ft in mountainous

45
Q

Takeoff Mins

A

NPA, 300/1; PA, 200/1/2/2400 RVR; landing runway in use

46
Q

Multipilot Approach Criteria

A

if wx at or below mins, shall not commence approach unless a/c has capability to proceed to suitable alternate in case of missed approach

47
Q

Single Pilot Approach Criteria

A

shall not be commenced if wx is below mins

48
Q

Continuing Approach to Land

A

shall not descend below MDA/DH unless they have runway envt in sight and in their judgment a safe landing can be executed, either straight in or circling, whatever clearance specifed

49
Q

Practice Approaches

A

no landing intended; facility in question must not be filed destination or alternate

50
Q

Autorotations

A

shall be conducted within limits of field boundary over surface upon which a full auto can be safely completed and that has readily accessible crash, rescue, firefighting crew;
all practice autos require tower approval

51
Q

Noise Sensitive and Wilderness Areas

A

fly at 3000 ft AGL or higher

52
Q

Jettisoning Fuel

A

6000 ft above terrain or greater
make effort to avoid populated areas
advise ATC when under positive control

53
Q

Renewal

A

Valid from last day of month in which evaluation was completed

54
Q

ITO Procedures

A
  1. Select hover mode on FD
  2. Smoothly increase collective to takeoff power and maintain a hover attitude by referencing AI. Allow AFCS to maintain heading (feet off trim once airborne)
  3. Smoothly increase collective to climb out power. As helo passes through 20 ft on radalt, position cyclic forward to establish a 5 deg nose down attitude and accelerate into forward climbing flight
  4. As helo accelerates, cross-check radalt and VSI for positive rates of climb. Rate of climb should be 500 rpm or greater
  5. Maintain a smooth acceleration up to 90 KIAS, referencing the AI and airspeed indicator
55
Q

Instrument Climbs and Descents

A

PAC verbalizes intentions to leave one altitude for another
PNAC monitors flight instruments and provide 100 ft (or as briefed) prior call
Upon reaching intended altitude, PNAC shall verbally note RAD/BARALT latched

56
Q

Change of Scans

A

PAC flies approach and makes landing
PAC maintains instrument scan until landing phase commences
PNAC backs up PAC on instruments and scans outside for landing environment
Once PNAC has landing environment in sight and can safely continue approach, PNAC will provide PAC with a brief description of the visual approach then assume scan responsibilities
PNAC maintains inst scan until landing assured
If missed, PAC ensures obstacle clearance then gets on inst

57
Q

Change of Controls

A

PAC flies inst approach and switches controls to the PNAC for landing
Once PNAC has landing environment in sight and can safely continue approach visually, PNAC shall inform PAC, take controls, and land
Initial PAC continues inst scan until landing assured
If missed, initial PAC reassures control of aircraft and initial PNAC provides backup inst scan and obstacle clearance

58
Q

ENG ANTI ICE switches shall be turned on when

A

OAT is 5 deg C or below in visible moisture

59
Q

Ice damage to the engine may be characterized by

A

A high pitched noise with no associated power loss or secondary indication

60
Q

When you turn on the engine and engine inlet anti ice systems, what 2 things can you expect?

A

Significant power loss and increased fuel consumption

61
Q

Where will you first notice ice accumulation?

A

Windshield wiper arms, mirror support brackets, main landing gear, and external stores

62
Q

Vibes produced by main rotor shedding ice

A

Light to medium

63
Q

Ice detector is located on

A

No 2 engine cowling

64
Q

Blade de-ice will cause a torque increase of up to

A

14% per engine

65
Q

Ice accumulation resulting in __ % tq increase indicates that

A

Normal autorotational rotor rpm may not be attainable should dual engine failure occur

66
Q

Moderate Turbulence Airspeed

A

Blade Stall - 15 knots

67
Q

Light Turbulence

A

Blade Stall - 10 knots