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HSM-72 HAC > CV NATOPS > Flashcards

CV NATOPS Flashcards

1
Q

Red Helmet
Green vest
H on front and back

Is who?

A

Helicopter LSE

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2
Q

Red helmet
Brown vest
H on front and back
Is who?

A

Helicopter plane captain

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3
Q

Purple shirts and helmet?

Blue shirts and crew number on front and back?

A

Aviation fuel crew

Aircraft handling crew and chock men

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4
Q

What is CASE 1 defined as pertaining to Wx control criteria:

A

Case I: When it is anticipated that flights will not encounter instrument conditions during daytime departures, recoveries, and the ceiling and visibility in the carrier control zone are no lower than 3,000 feet and 5 nm respectively.

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5
Q

What is CASE 2 defined as pertaining to Wx control criteria:

A

Case II: When it is anticipated that flights may encounter instrument conditions during a daytime departure or recovery, and the ceiling and visibility in the carrier control zone are no lower than 1,000 feet and 5 nm respectively.

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6
Q

What is CASE 3 defined as pertaining to Wx control criteria:

A

Case III: When it is anticipated that flights will encounter instrument conditions during a departure or recovery because the ceiling or visibility in the carrier control zone are lower than 1,000 feet and 5 nm respectively; or a nighttime departure or recovery (one‐ half hour after sunset and one‐half hour before sunrise).

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7
Q

What are the 4 degrees of control?

A

Positive

Advisory

Monitor

Nonradar

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8
Q

What is the ceiling and VIS for helicopters needed for positive control?

What else warrants positive control?

A

Ceiling of 500ft and visibility of 1 mile or less

  • All flight operations between one‐half hour after sunset and one‐half hour before sunrise except as modified by the OTC or carrier commanding officer.
  • During mandatory letdown in thunderstorm areas.

-In other situations where supervisory personnel can anticipate weather phenomena that might cause
difficulty to pilots.

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9
Q

What is advisory control?

A

It shall be used when the traffic density in the operating area requires a higher degree of control for safety flight. It is normally limited to VMC. Traffic separation is the responsibility of the individual pilot with assistance from the controlling agency.

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10
Q

What is monitor control?

A

This control shall be utilized only when aircraft are operating VMC outside controlled airspace and the responsibility for separation from other traffic can be safely assumed by the pilot.

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11
Q

What is Non-radar control?

A

This control shall be used when shipboard radar is inoperative or so degraded as to be inadequate to provide radar separation of air traffic under conditions normally requiring positive control

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12
Q

Vertical separation for helicopters under positive control shall be __________.

A

500 ft

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13
Q

Mode I emergency squawks?

A

1st digit

0- ok
1- Hydraulic 
2- electrical 
3- fuel
4- oxygen 
5- engine

2nd digit

0- no radio
1- no radio, tacan ok
2- no radio, ADF ok
3- radio ok, no NAVAIDs

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14
Q

Helicopter approach mins?

Missed approach instructions?

A

Non-prec: 300-3/4

MODE III: 200-1/2

Miss app: Helicopters shall climb straight ahead on the extended final bearing to 300 feet altitude and await instructions from approach control.

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15
Q

If no instructions are received prior to reaching __________, the pilot will attempt to make contact with the ship, giving identification and position. If instructions are not received, he will assume communication failure and execute a turn downwind reporting _________.

If radio contact is not reestablished, what do you do?

A
  • 4 miles or 2 min ahead of the ship
  • Downwind abeam

Helicopters reenter through the 3 nm DME fix or turn inbound 2 minutes past abeam.

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16
Q

ALDIS LAMP: Flashing Red light?

A

Bingo- proceed to alternate

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17
Q

ALDIS LAMP: Steady green light?

A

Charlie- Cleared to land aboard

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18
Q

ALDIS LAMP: Steady Red light?

A

DELTA — Delay in landing. Enter DELTA pattern and maintain visual contact with the ship.

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19
Q

Starting engines for helicopters: 3 things?

A
  1. There are no wind limitations for starting engines; the air officer, Helicopter Control Officer (HCO), or Helicopter Engaged Turn Officer (HETO) should be prepared to engage rotors immediately following engine start.
  2. Personnel shall not enter or exit the rotor arc with the engines operating and the rotor brake on. Excessive
    time with the engines operating and the rotor brake on should be avoided. The air officer, HCO, or HETO should be prepared for rotor brake slippage at all times.
  3. The Auxillary Power Unit (APU) may be started provided there is enough clearance to prevent damage to adjacent aircraft/equipment from APU exhaust.
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20
Q

LSE/PC shall request which evolutions through flight deck control?

A

Engine start, rotor engage/disengage, break and lift

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21
Q

If SAR capable the helicopter shall report?

A
  • shall report red light to the controlling agency upon launch. When there is a significant change in the red light or red light is reached, a radio call to the controlling agency should be made.
  • SAR capable helicopters will report “red light” in HHMM local. Non-SAR capable helicopters will report fuel state HH+MM to NATOPS minimum fuel.
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22
Q

Unless otherwise directed, helicopters shall take departure to ___ and shall not cross the bow within ___ or the stern within ___ without specific clearance from the tower.

A

Port

5 NM

3 NM

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23
Q

Launching from spots ___,___, and _____ should be avoided when aircraft are turning in the six pack.

A

4,5,6

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24
Q

Helicopter restrictions during fixed wing launch/recovery (aka keyhole dimensions)?

A

340* to 020* (Bow) - not within 5 mm. Below 200 ft from 5 to 10 nm

190* to 150* (stern) - not within 3

Port side- below 300’ within 5nm, below 400’ from 5-10nm

Starboard- below 400’

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25
Q

Helicopters experiencing lost communications should remain ______, arc to enter ______, and execute lost communications procedures

A

at or below 300 ft, starboard delta

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26
Q

During recovery of aircraft with forward firing ordnance, the plane guard helicopter shall not be positioned where?

A

on the starboard side from the 360 to the 090 degree relative bearing within 5 nm from the carrier.

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27
Q

Visual signal for immediate landing?

I desire to land but I can wait?

A

Fly close aboard starboard quarter, remaining clear of other traffic,with gear down and flood/search/landing lights on. With complete electrical failure, fire a red flare to seaward.

Fly by or hover on the starboard side of the ship, low and close aboard, with navigation lights bright and flashing and anticollision lights on.

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28
Q

Plane guard is on station when operating within:

A

20 nm during the day

10 nm during the night

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29
Q

Helicopter readiness condition 1?

A
  • The aircraft shall be spotted for immediate launch, with rotor blades spread, starting equipment plugged in, and a LSE, starting crewman, plane captain, and required plane handlers standing by
  • unless otherwise directed by aircraft handling officer, four tiedowns shall be attached to the aircraft
  • The flightcrew shall be ready for launch in all respects, with all personnel equipment attached and adjusted as in flight.
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30
Q

Helicopter readiness condition 2?

A

Same as condition 1, except that flightcrews shall stand by in the ready rooms.

An alert SAR helicopter in Condition II may be folded provided the primary SAR helicopter is airborne.

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31
Q

Helicopter readiness condition 3?

A
  • Main rotor blades may be folded and the aircraft need not be in position for immediate launch; however, it must be parked so as to allow direct access to a suitable launch spot.
  • A towbar shall be attached to the aircraft and a specific LSE, tractor driver, handling crew, and starting crewman shall be designated and assigned to each helicopter. These personnel must be thoroughly briefed so that when the order is given to prepare to launch, the aircraft can be safely and expeditiously moved into position and readied for launch.
  • Flightcrews should be briefed for the launch and be standing by in a designated location.
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32
Q

Helicopter readiness condition 4?

A

Same as condition 3 except that minor maintenance may be performed on the aircraft if no delay in launch is involved.

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33
Q

Starboard delta is at _____ft and ____ kts

A

300

80

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34
Q

Upon calling the ball during a night recovery, the _____ shall be secured.

What do you do once on deck?

A

lower anti-collision light

The upper anti-collision light shall be secured and navigation lights switched to FLASHING

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35
Q

TACAN marshal position? After each extra helo? What’s the holding pattern?

How do you commence the TACAN approach after leaving the marshal position?

A
  • 1000’, 5 nm on the 110 radial
  • Each successive helo adds 1 nm and 500 ft to altitude.
  • Pattern is right hand with 2 nm legs

Helicopters shall descend at 90 knots and 500 feet per minute from marshal, crossing 145 relative to the final bearing at or above 900 feet. Unless otherwise directed, helicopters shall commence transition to a landing configuration prior to the 3 nm fix.

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36
Q

Cross cockpit recoveries forward of an occupied spot are:

A

Not recommended

37
Q

White shirt
no helmet
is who?

A

LSO, has LSO stenciled on the back and front

38
Q

Who has wears a White helmet and a White Shirt?

A
  • Transfer officer, has Transfer officer stenciled on the back
  • Safety officer, has SAFETY on the back
  • Medical, has a red cross on the back
  • IW watch, has IW on the back
  • LOX crew, has LOX on the back
39
Q

White Shirt
Brown helmet
is who?

A

Quality assurance, has QA on the back

40
Q

Red shirt
Red helmet
3 inch black strike on vest
is who?

A

Ordnance

41
Q

What do maintenance personnel wear?

A

Green helmet and shirt, and Squadron designator plus “Maint. CPO” on the front and back

42
Q

From a control standpoint, aircraft emergencies fall in the what three categories?

A
  1. Communication failures
  2. NAVAID failures.
  3. Other aircraft system failures.
43
Q

CVN launch weather minimums are ____.

A

200 - 1/2

44
Q

CASE III Launch:

A

After takeoff, the Helo shall climb straight ahead to between 200 to 300 feet (unaided), 150 to 300 feet (NVD aided), or as assigned by CATCC, and arc within 3 nm to intercept the assigned departure radial. Helicopters being launched from the angled deck will not cross the bow when fixed-wing aircraft are being launched.

45
Q

When ready for break-down and launch, in addition to light signals required by CV NATOPS, helicopters shall place _______ as an additional warning to flight deck personnel of impending launch

A

formation lights to full bright

46
Q

Helicopters departing Spot 9 should normally lift and depart to _____ depending on winds. When an angled deck departure from Spot 9 is required or desired, the PIC shall _____ and request a _____ so the air officer/HCO can clear the angle prior to departure.

A

starboard or port
notify tower
“departure up the LA (Landing Area)”

47
Q

When the air officer passes the word to stand by to launch the Condition I helicopter(s), what does the flight crew do?

A

engines shall be started without further instructions; however, rotor engagement and launch shall be positively controlled by PriFly.

48
Q

When do transient helicopters contact Marshal control?

A

25 nm out

49
Q

What does it mean if the helicopter is directed to “snuggle up”?

A

the Helo can operate within 1 nm of the ship and expect to land within the next 5 minutes

50
Q

What does it mean if the helicopter is directed to “Charlie”?

A

cleared to cross the stern (if required) and to commence an approach to the designated landing spot

51
Q

Helicopters (should/shall) not be taxied on the flight deck

A

should

52
Q

What spots are used for night helicopter launches?

A

Only spots that afford visual reference to the deck shall be used for night helicopter launches

53
Q

What lights are on for NVD helicopter ops?

A

Blue deck lights
Overhead sodium oxide light
Beacon lights

54
Q

Define Red Light

A

The local time at which a helicopter will no longer be SAR capable and has approximately 30 minutes of flight time remaining.

55
Q

Except in an emergency, pilots ___ not ___ ___ or ___ ____ without clearance from LSE.

A
  • Shall
  • Stop engines
  • Fold rotor baldes
56
Q

Spot 7

A
  • Best for hung crew served weapon
  • Concurrent ops with FW authorized
  • Forward firing ordinance requires CV CO’s permission
    • Helo shall be offset to right
    • FFO at night/IMC should be avoided
    • Shall not land with hung or misfired FFO
  • Personnel shall not enter rotor arc with FW on tension on cats 3 or 4
  • safety boundaries around spot 7 and 8 shall be clear of unnecessary personnel and equipment
57
Q

Spot 2 safety considerations

A
  • Left slide in recoveries are not recommended
  • Starboard recoveries and departures are prohibited
  • Concurrent operations with fixed wing authorized
58
Q

Spot 8 safety considerations

A
  • Helo ops shall not be conducted with
    • Fixed wing recoveries
    • FW AC on tension in cats 3 and 4
  • No hot refueling
  • LSO platform shall be lowered and clear of personnel
59
Q

Hung ordnance

A

Notify tower, include type, #of rounds, malfunction

  • Crew served should land 7 or 9 (BRC +15 on 9)
  • FFO shall not land 7
60
Q

Hung dome

A
  • Spot 9 recommended
  • consider putting LSE in vultures row
  • consider using mattress
  • cable should be placed in helo prior to shut down
61
Q

What does CATCC stand for, and who is it comprised of?

A

carrier air traffic control center and is comprised of two

interdependent work centers, Air Operations (Air Ops) and Carrier Controlled Approach (CCA)

62
Q

What does FACSFAC stand for and what do they do?

A

fleet area control and surveillance facility

Designated to manage offshore and inland operating areas and other assigned airspace, including special use airspace. Provides joint-use scheduling and control of surface, subsurface, and airborne military platforms operating within and transiting to and from these areas.

63
Q

Name the restrictions for Spot 1

A
  • If any spot 1-6 is occupied by an H-46, H-47, H-53, or V-22, the spots immediately forward and aft shall remain vacant
  • Shall not be used for nighttime departures
64
Q

Name the restrictions for Spot 2

A
  • Left slide-in visual recoveries to spot 2 are not recommended
  • Spot 2 Starboard approaches and departures are prohibited
  • Concurrent operations involving fixed wing aircraft and H-60’s are authorized for Spot 2 and Spot 7
  • If any spot 1-6 is occupied by an H-46, H-47, H-53, or V-22, the spots immediately forward and aft shall remain vacant
65
Q

Name the restrictions for Spot 3

A
  • Left seat slide-in visual recoveries to Spot 3 are prohibited
  • The preferred area to load AGM-114 Hellfire and rockets is Spot 3 or Spot 4
  • Flight deck helo Spot 4 will be the primary dearming area while Spot 3 is the secondary dearming area
  • If any spot 1-6 is occupied by an H-46, H-47, H-53, or V-22, the spots immediately forward and aft shall remain vacant
66
Q

Name the Restrictions for Spot 4

A
  • The preferred area to load AGM-114 Hellfire and rockets is Spot 3 or Spot 4
  • Flight deck helo Spot 4 will be the primary dearming area while Spot 3 is the secondary dearming area
  • Launching helicopters from Spots 4,5, and 6 with aircraft turning in the “six-pack” should be avoided
  • Left seat helicopter recoveries to spots 4, 5, and 6 while there is a turning helicopter in the next forward spot represents an increased risk to the LSE.
  • If any spot 1-6 is occupied by an H-46, H-47, H-53, or V-22, the spots immediately forward and aft shall remain vacant
67
Q

Name the restrictions for Spot 5

A
  • Launching helicopters from Spots 4,5, and 6 with aircraft turning in the “six-pack” should be avoided
  • Left seat helicopter recoveries to spots 4, 5, and 6 while there is a turning helicopter in the next forward spot represents an increased risk to the LSE.
  • If any spot 1-6 is occupied by an H-46, H-47, H-53, or V-22, the spots immediately forward and aft shall remain vacant
68
Q

Name the restrictions for Spot 6

A
  • Spot 6 and spot 9 are the primary V-22 spots
  • Launching helicopters from Spots 4,5, and 6 with aircraft turning in the “six-pack” should be avoided
  • Left seat helicopter recoveries to spots 4, 5, and 6 while there is a turning helicopter in the next forward spot represents an increased risk to the LSE.
  • If any spot 1-6 is occupied by an H-46, H-47, H-53, or V-22, the spots immediately forward and aft shall remain vacant
69
Q

Name the restrictions for Spot 7

A
  • An aircraft refueling and/or conducting a crew change on helicopter spot 7 can meet the requirements of an Airborne SAR helicopter at CV CO’s discretion
  • If the CV CO deems it necessary , helicopters loaded with forward firing ordnance are authorized to utilize Spot 7, but shall be offset to starboard when spotted for launch and when landing.
  • Helicopters with hung/misfired forward firing ordnance shall not launch/recover on spot 7
  • Night/IMC operations to Spot 7 with forward firing ordnance should be avoided
  • Personnel shall not be permitted to enter rotor arc area of an engaged helicopter on spot 7 when fixed wing aircraft or on catapults 3 or 4
  • Concurrent operations involving fixed wing aircraft and H-60’s are authorized for Spot 2 and Spot 7
  • Safety boundaries around spot 7 and 8 shall be clear of unnecessary personnel and equipment when helo ops are being conducted
  • For all helo ops on spot 7 and 8, the AHO shall ensure the the elevator has been secured, stanchions lowered, and locks properly engaged
  • Helos with hung ordnance in crew served weapons on the starboard side can land spot 7 or 9
70
Q

Name the restrictions for Spot 8

A
  • Helo ops on Spot 8 shall not be conducted when fixed wing A/C are on catapults 3 or 4
  • Helo ops on Spot 8 shall not be conducted when fixed wing A/C recoveries are taking place
  • Hot refueling ops shall not be conducted on Spot 8
  • LSO platform shall be lowered and clear of personnel for takeoffs and landings on spot 8
  • Safety boundaries around spot 7 and 8 shall be clear of unnecessary personnel and equipment when helo ops are being conducted
  • For all helo ops on spot 7 and 8, the AHO shall ensure the the elevator has been secured, stanchions lowered, and locks properly engaged
71
Q

Name the restrictions for Spot 9

A
  • Spot 9 is recommended for Hung Dome Recovery

- Helos with hung ordnance in crew served weapons on the starboard side can land spot 7 or 9

72
Q

What does the Tractor Driver wear?

A

Blue helmet
Blue jersey
Has Tractor on the back

73
Q

What does the Line Chief wear?

A

Green helmet
Brown Jersey
Line CPO on the back

74
Q

How do you recover unaided?

A

Case III unaided helicopter recoveries shall be conducted to the angled deck, from astern, utilizing the OLS. Upon approaching the fantail and when the deck and LSE have been visually acquired, the helicopter shall then slide over, fly up the port side to the landing spot
and slide into a landing.

75
Q

Prifly

A

Primary flight control: the controlling agency that is responsible for aircraft traffic control within the control zone

76
Q

Required case III departure voice reports

A 
Airborne
Passing 2,500’
Arcing
Established outbound
Popeyes with altitude
On top, with altitude
Kilo
77
Q

What is NATOPS

A

A positive approach toward improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in the aircraft mishap rate

78
Q

How do you “call the ball”?

A

You say “Hawk ball”

79
Q

Gau-21 and SAR

A

A GAU-21 installed on an MH-60R does not preclude SAR operations, but it does present an obstacle to the crewman due to its size and location in the cabin door. To the max extent practicable, the GAU-21 and swing arm should be removed before taking an MH-60R in this configuration to conduct PG.

80
Q

Carrier Control Zone

A

5 miles from the carrier, up to and including 2500 ft unless otherwise designated for special ops, and is under the cognizance of the air officer during VMC

81
Q

Carrier Control Area

A

50 nm around carrier, extending up from surface to infinity under control of CATCC except for those aircraft operating under control of the air officer during case I and case II ops. Note- radius and altitude may be limited by other airspace

82
Q

Clara

A

Pilot transmission saying pilot does not have the ball in sight

83
Q

Zip lip

A

May be prescribed for day VMC under which positive comms control may be waived and radio transmissions between aircraft, pilots and control agencies are held to the minimum necessary for SOF

84
Q

Emergency marshal

A

Same as normal but at 7 nm

85
Q

Starboard delta

A 
Right hand racetrack
045-110 relative 
1-3 nm
300 and below
80 kts
86
Q

Port delta

A

Left hand racetrack
225-315
3-5 nm
300ft/80 kts

87
Q

Comm flow entering CCA

A

50 nm - Red Crown
25 nm - Strike
10 nm- Tower

88
Q

Transition from marshal to FAC

A

Shall descend at 500 fpm and 90 kts
Should cross 145 rel at 900 ft
Shall commence transition to landing config by 3 nm

89
Q

Helos ___ not be towed or pushed with rotors engaged

A

Shall

HSM-72 HAC (47 decks)

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