Infectious Diseases

Question 1

Which tick is responsible for transmission of Ehrlichia canis?

Answer 1

Rhipicephalus sanguiensus

Question 2

Which tick is responsible for transmission of Ehrlichia ewingii?

Answer 2

Amblyomma americanum

Question 3

Which tick is responsible for transmission of Ehrlichia chaffeensis?

Answer 3

Amblyomma americanum

Question 4

Which tick is responsible for transmission of Anaplasma phagocytophilium?

Answer 4

Ixodes pacificus (Northwest USA), Ixodes scapularis (Northeast + upper midwest USA), Ixodes ricinus (Europe)

Question 5

Which tick is responsible for transmission of Anaplasma platys?

Answer 5

Rhipicephalus sanguiensus

Question 6

Which tick is responsible for transmission of Rickettsia rickettsia?

Answer 6

Dermacentor variabilis, Dermacentor andersoni

Question 7

Which vector is responsible for transmission of Neorickettsia helminthoeca?

Answer 7

Fluke (Nanophyetus salminocola)

Question 8

By what routes of transmissions is neospora caninum spread?

Answer 8

Consumption of infected bovine, transplacentally, transmammary

Question 9

What is the most sensitive test for diagnosing Aspergillus?

Answer 9

Cytology via brushing of lesions during endoscopy, squash prep? (detected in 93-100% of dogs)

Question 10

What is the treatment of choice for Giardia?

Answer 10

Fenbendazole (or metronidazole)

Question 11

What is the gold standard of diagnosis for Rabies?

Answer 11

dFA (direct fluorescent antibody toest)

Question 12

What is the diagnostic test of choice for Anaplasma phagocytophilum? What problems exist with the test?

Answer 12

Serology (IFA/ELISA); there is cross reactivity with other Anaplasma species and Ehrlichia, may reflect chronic exposure so need to demonstrate 4x increase, false negatives if recent exposure

Question 13

What does a positive urine PCR test indicate? A negative?

Answer 13

Positive test indicates acute leptosporosis OR subclinical/chronic infection with shedding of bacterium through the urine
A negative test could indicate lack of infection, early infection before urine shedding has occurred, or false negative (such as when abx are started prior to testing)

Question 14

What is the preferred method to diagnose/speciate Campylobacter-associated diarrhea?

Answer 14

Fresh fecal swab/anaroebic transport medium for culture on Campy-CVA w/ antimicrobial agent (cefoperazone)

Question 15

What preventative measures can pregnant owners take to minimize risk for Toxoplasma gondii infections (can cause birth defects if infected during pregnancy)?

Answer 15

Keep cat indoors, don’t feed raw food diet, rodent control, scoop litterbox daily (prevents oocytes from sporulating), good hygiene

Question 16

What illness does canine influenza (H3N8) cause?

Answer 16

Respiratory signs

Question 17

What tick-borne bacteria is responsible for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

Answer 17

Rickettsia rickettsia

Question 18

What is the mechanism of Babesia RBC lysis?

Answer 18

Parasite antigens incorporate into red blood cell membrane (merozoites) OR attach to the surface of red blood cells + platelets and induce host opsonizing antibodies
Increased osmotic fragility
Direct erythrocyte injury by organism
Induction of oxidative damage

Question 19

Biochemical findings in FIP effusion

Answer 19

Classical finding is clear/yellow and sticky but can be variable. Typical high protein content (>3.5 g/dL) typical of an exudate and moderately low cell count (<5000 cells/mL). Increased globulins and an ALB:Glob of <0.4.

Question 20

What is the mechanism for FIP effusion?

Answer 20

Vasculitis secondary to over-production of inflammatory cytokines (TNF-a, IL-1B) and VEGF

Question 21

What is the infective form for toxoplasma?

Answer 21

Infection occurs via ingestion of oocytes (contain sporozoites) or tissue cyst (contains bradyzoites)

Question 22

What is the placental infective form for toxoplasma?

Answer 22

Transplacental infection can occur if the dam is infected DURING pregnancy. Tachyzoites migrate across placenta to fetus

Question 23

What is the infective form responsible for signs in cytauxzoonosis?

Answer 23

Sporozoite

Question 24

What is the infective form of Babesia?

Answer 24

Sporozoite

Question 25

What are the hosts of cryptosporidium hominis?

Answer 25

Primates (humans) primarily, also cattle, sheep, and pigs

Question 26

What is the main clinical presentation of dogs infected with Borrelia burgdorferi?

Answer 26

Asymptomatic (90%) - if show symptoms, see fever, polyarthritis, lyme nephritis

Question 27

What is the most sensitive test for leptospirosis?

Answer 27

Serololgy (IFA/ELISA)? MAT is gold standard but has poor sensitivity, especially early on with infection. Cannot distinguish between active infection and chronic/vaccination with serology but should catch most of the positive cases (i.e. high sensitivity, poor specificity)

Question 28

What is the most accurate test for toxoplasma infection in cats?

Answer 28

Serology (IgM correlates best with active infection, typically use paired IgG and IgM)

Question 29

What is the treatment of Babesia gibsoni?

Answer 29

1. Azithromycin + atovaquone
2. Imidocarb
3. Clindamycin, metronidazole + doxycycline

Question 30

When do we use antibiotics for treating salmonellosis?

Answer 30

Only treat if systemic clinical signs (diarrhea, vomiting, fever, or lethargy). Can be asymptomatic carriers.

Question 31

Which pulmonary parasite is diagnosed with Baermann method?

Answer 31

Aleurostrongylus abstrusus

ALSO Strongyloides, Filaroides

Question 32

What test most helpful to diagnose leptospirosis 5 days after infection

Answer 32

Paired blood and urine PCR

Question 33

What is the vector for Babesia gibsoni?

Answer 33

Rhipicephalus sanguiesus (U.S.)
Dermacentor reticulatus (Europe)

Question 34

What tick vectors carry Cytauxzoon felis?

Answer 34

Amblyoma americanum

Dermacentor variabilis

Question 35

What is considered the gold standard test for confirming a diagnosis of acute leptospirosis (if clinical signs started at least 5 days prior)?

Answer 35

Microscopic agglutination test (MAT)

Question 36

What is the vector for Borrelia burgdoferi?

Answer 36

Ixodes pacificus (West Coast), Ixodes scapularis (North East USA, Upper Midwest USA)

Question 37

What is a zoonotic pathogen between horses/dogs and people?

Answer 37

Staph aureus

Question 38

How is Pythium transmitted?

Answer 38

Inoculation of skin (infection by encysting in damaged skin or GI mucosa)

Question 39

What causes myocarditis in dogs, cerebellar dz in cats, diarrhea in pigs?

Answer 39

Canine parvovirus - 2

Question 40

What acid fast pathogen can cause pyothorax?

Answer 40

Nocardia (& Mycobacterium)

Question 41

What is the treatment for feline Tritrichomonas foetus? (blagburni)?

Answer 41

Ronidazole

Question 42

What is the most common Gram negative cause of feline pyothorax?

Answer 42

Pasteurella multocida

Question 43

What is the treatment for Cytauxzoonosis?

Answer 43

Atovaquone and azithromycin

Question 44

Dog with fever of unknown origin (FUO) from the south east (SE), has morulae within neutrophils?

Answer 44

Anaplasma phagocytophilum or E. ewingii (SE)

Question 45

What is the treatment for nasal aspergillosis?

Answer 45

Meticulous sinonasal fungal plaque debridement and lavage is an important aspect of therapy and may require sinus trephination
Intranasal 1% clotrimazole or 1-2% enilconazole solutions in polyethylene glycol are then utilized
Continue treatment until there is resolution of clinical, endoscopic, and CT disease