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Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

first generation cephalosporins

A

cephalexin (Keflex) cefadroxil (Duricef)

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2
Q

second generation cephalosporin

A

cefuroxime (Ceftin), cefprozil (cefzil)

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3
Q

sulfa drugs

A

TMP/SMX (bactrim, septra)

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4
Q

primary prevention is

A

to prevent disease, injury, or condition

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5
Q

personal safety promotion such as wearing a seatbelt, airbag, and helmet is an example of

A

primary prevention

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6
Q

education about immunization and using sunscreen is an example of

A

primary prevention

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7
Q

promoting a healthy lifestyle is an example of

A

primary prevention

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8
Q

secondary prevention is to

A

detect disease as early as possible

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9
Q

a lab test used to screen for a disease (CBC for anemia) is an example of

A

secondary prevention

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10
Q

USPSTF and screening mammograms are examples of

A

secondary prevention

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11
Q

screening for suicide and depression is an example of

A

secondary prevention

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12
Q

BSE and TSE are examples of

A

secondary prevention

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13
Q

tertiary prevention is to

A

limit further harm

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14
Q

cardiac rehab, PT/OT, SLP is an example of

A

tertiary prevention

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15
Q

an exercise program for an obese person is an example of

A

tertiary prevention

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16
Q

cancer with the highest morbidity/mortality

A

lung cancer

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17
Q

most common cause of gynecological cancer

A

uterine cancer

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18
Q

when to start screening for breast cancer

A

start at age 50-75 every 2 years

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19
Q

Gluten foods

A

wheat, rye, barley, oats (breads, cereals, cookies, cakes, pasta)

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20
Q

examples of monounsaturated fats

A

nuts, olive oil, sunflower seeds

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21
Q

examples of magnesium rich foods

A

some nuts, whole wheat

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22
Q

examples of potassium rich foods

A

most fruits (apricot, banana, orange), some veggies (brussel sprouts)

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23
Q

gluten-free foods

A

rice, corn, potatoes, peanuts, soy, beans

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24
Q

screening for prostate cancer

A

not recommended

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25
Q

influenza intranasal spray is for those

A

age 2-49

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26
Q

influenza intranasal spray is contraindicated in those with

A

asthma, COPD, renal failure, DM; pregnancy; children on ASA therapy

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27
Q

earliest a child can get flu vaccine

A

6 months

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28
Q

if patient had only one hep B injection, then

A

complete series; check hep B titers within 60 days of 3rd dose

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29
Q

cause of hand foot and mouth disease

A

coxsackie A16

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30
Q

hand foot and mouth disease is common in children

A

less than 5

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31
Q

fifth’s disease is caused by

A

parovirus B19

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32
Q

s/s of fifth’s disease

A

prodrome with fever, malaise, sore throat; then rash begins on cheeks and spreads to trunk (lacy rash)

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33
Q

children with fifth’s disease can return to school

A

during rash phase when afebrile for more than 24 hours.

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34
Q

cause of roseola

A

human herpes virus 6

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35
Q

higher risk of Cdiff with this atbx

A

clindamycin

36
Q

atbx that’s only indication is for community acquired PNA

A

telithromycin (Ketek)

37
Q

adverse effects of erythromycin

A

GI distress

38
Q

this atbx has a risk of prolong QT intervals (torsades)

A

macrolides

39
Q

MOA of beta lactam drugs

A

have a protective barrier over the beta lactam ring that prevent them from being destroyed by beta lactamase

40
Q

example of beta lactam drugs

A

PCN, cephalosporin

41
Q

first generation cephalosporins have activity against

A

gram positive bacteria

42
Q

second generation cephalosporins have activity against

A

gram positive and gram negative

43
Q

broad spectrum pcn (amoxicillin and ampicillin) have activity against

A

gram positive and some gram negative bacteria

44
Q

some women will c/o this when taking amoxicillin

A

candida vaginitis; recommend taking with probiotic

45
Q

cephalosporins that are good for ear infection and sinus infections

A

cefuroxime (2nd gen) and cefixime (3rd gen)

46
Q

fluoroquinolones are effective against

A

gram negative, gram positive, and atypical

47
Q

ciprofloxacin coverage

A

narrow spectrum quinolone (gram neg and atypical)

48
Q

treatment for traveler’s diarrhea

A

ciprofloxacin 500 mg bid x 3 days

49
Q

This atbx has the best activity against Pseudomonas aeruoginosa (gram negative)

A

ciprofloxacin

50
Q

patients at highest risk of quinolone tendon rupture

A

those on steroids, those older than 60

51
Q

sulfonamides have activity against

A

gram negative bacteria

52
Q

other sulfa-type drugs

A

TMP-SMX, thiazide, sulfonyureas, Cox-2 inhibitor

53
Q

dosing for Hep A vaccine

A

2 doses at 0 and 6-12 months

54
Q

dosing for Hep B vaccine

A

3 doses; first 2 one month apart, third dose 6 months later

55
Q

Meningitis vaccine for those older than 56

A

MPSV4

56
Q

HPV vaccine

A

for females 19-26 years old and males 9-26 years old. 3 doses at 0, 1-2, and 6 months

57
Q

3rd generation cephalosporins provide coverage against

A

weak gram +; gram negative; beta lactamase;

The extended spectrum have better gram +, gram -, and beta lactam coverage

58
Q

extended spectrum 3rd gen cephalosporins

A

ceftriaxone (Rocephin), cefdinir (Omnicef), cefpodoxime (Vantin), cefditoren (Spectracef)

59
Q

regular 3rd gen cephalosporins

A

ceftibuten (Cedax), cefixime (Suprax)

60
Q

top 3 gram positive bugs

A

staph, strept, enterococcus

61
Q

staphylococcus is mostly a

A

skin bug

62
Q

streptococcus is mostly a

A

throat and lung bug

63
Q

enterococcus is mostly a

A

urinary tract bug

64
Q

other misc gram + bugs

A

listeria, c. diff, tetanus, anthrax, diptheria

65
Q

basis of PCN and cephalosporin allergy

A

each drug has a beta-lactam ring; if the patient has allergy to beta lactam ring, then they are allergic to both ceph and pcn

66
Q

Never give a cephalosporin to a patient if PCN reaction was

A

anaphylaxis or hives

67
Q

Ok to give a cephalosporin to a patient if PCN reaction was

A

morbilliform rash (maculopapular rash that can sometimes be itchy).

68
Q

what is beta lactamase?

A

an enzyme that bacteria produce to destroy the beta lactam ring of an atbx

69
Q

atbx that provide beta lactam coverage

A

Augmentin and 3rd gen cephalosporins

70
Q

Penicillins do NOT cover

A

staphylococcus

71
Q

This drug can kill DRSP at high doses

A

amoxicillin (2g bid in adults and 80-90 mcg/kg/day for children)

72
Q

Augmentin coverage

A

gram +, gram -, beta lactamase

73
Q

how to tell if a bug produce beta-lactamase?

A

if the patient had an atbx in the past 90 days

74
Q

sulfonamides provide coverage against

A

gram negative (not E.coli d/t high resistance) and MRSA

75
Q

tetracyclines provide coverage against

A

gram negative, atypicals, and MRSA

76
Q

Macrolides provide coverage against

A

atypical pathogens (gram +); not strept or enterococcus d/t high resistance

77
Q

3rd generation respiratory fluoroquinolones

A

levofloxacin

78
Q

4th generation respiratory fluoroquinolones

A

moxifloxacin (Avelox), gemifloxacin (Factive)

79
Q

difference in coverage between 3rd and 4th generation respiratory fluoroquinolones

A

3rd gen provide coverage for gram neg above and below belt; 4th gen only provide coverage for gram neg above the belt

80
Q

this flouroquinolone should not be used for UTI

A

4th gen: moxifloxacin (Avelox), gemifloxacin (Factive); only provide gram neg coverage above the belt.

81
Q

nitrofurantoin concentrates in

A

bladder

82
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl) provides coverage against

A

gram negative

83
Q

Lincosamides (clindamycin) provides coverage against

A

gram positive

84
Q

Linezolid (Zyvox) provides coverage against

A

gram positive

85
Q

vancomycin provides coverage against

A

gram positive

86
Q

trx for C.diff

A

Flagyl or oral vanc (NOT IV so that it can concentrate in gut)

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