Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > Hematology > Flashcards

Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

The initial Hgb value during active bleeding may be

A

normal; it takes approx 24 hours after hemorrhage for CBC to show true H/H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

s/s of Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

peripheral neuropathy, ataxia, impaired memory, dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a cancer of the b cells

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

risk factors for Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

age 20-40 or older than 60, white, male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

s/s of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

night sweat, fever, pain with ingestion of alcohol, painless enlarged neck lymph nodes, anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A cancer of B cells and killer cells

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

risk factor for Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

A

greater than 60 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which lymphoma has worse prognosis

A

non-hodgkin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

a cancer of the plasma cells

A

multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

s/s of multiple myeloma

A

fatigue, weakness, and bone pain in back or chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

diagnostic findings in multiple myeloma

A

proteinuria with Bence-Jones protein, hypercalcemia, normocytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

thrombocytopenia is

A

platelet less than 150,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

normal platelet count

A

150,000 - 450,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

bruising in children

A

normal if in distal upper and lower extremities. Abnormal if accompanied by petechiae/purpura, large hematomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Normal H&H in males

A

Hgb: 14-18
Hct: 42-52%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Normal H&H in females

A

Hgb: 12-16
Hct: 37-47%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hgb in those who live in high-altitude areas are

A

elevated (secondary polycythemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

a measure of the avg color of the RBC in a sample of blood

A

MCHC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A measure of available transferrin that is left unbound to iron

A

TIBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

TIBC is elevated in ____

A

iron deficiency anemia b/c there is not enough iron for transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

labs in thalassemia

A

low H&H, low MCV, low MCHC, low MCH, normal TIBC, high RDW, normal ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most sensitive test for iron deficiency anemia

A

serum ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

measure of the variability of the size of RBC

A

RDW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

reticulocytes are immature RBCs that still have ____; they mature into RBC in

A

nuclei; 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

reticulocytosis occurs after

A

supplementation of iron, vit B12, folate, acute bleeding, hemolysis, leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

poikilocytosis is seen with

A

severe iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Types of microcytic anemia

A

iron deficiency, thalassemia, sideroblastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Types of macrocytic anemia

A

vitamin B12, folate deficiency, pernicious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Types of normocytic anemia

A

anemia of chronic disease, sickle cell, aplastic, hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

gold standard test to diagnose for sickle cell and thalassemia

A

hemoglobin electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

causes of secondary polycythemia

A

chronic smokers, COPD, residents of high-altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

s/s of iron deficiency anemia

A

fatigue, pallor, glossitis (shiny red tongue), angular chelitis (irritated fissures at corners of mouth), pica.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

most common cause of iron deficiency anemia

A

blood loss

34
Q

labs in iron deficiency anemia

A

low H&H, low MCV, low MCHC/MCH, low ferritin, low iron, high TIBC, high RDW

35
Q

Diagnostic test for pernicious anemia

A

high antiparietal antibodies

36
Q

anemia in those with chronic disease or inflammatory disease such as RA

A

normocytic anemia

37
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies seen in

A

sickle cell anemia

38
Q

trx for iron deficiency anemia

A

ferrous sulfate 325 mg TID between meals x3-6 months

39
Q

examples of iron rich foods

A

red meat, black beans, green leafy veggies

40
Q

avoid taking iron supplements with

A

antacids, dairy, quinolones, tetracyclines

41
Q

A genetic disorder in which the bone marrow produces abnormal hgb

A

thalassemia

42
Q

Alpha thalassemia is more common in

A

Chinese, filipinos, thai

43
Q

beta thalassemia is more common in

A

Mediterranean’s

44
Q

trx for thalassemia minor

A

none

45
Q

it compliant patient with iron deficiency anemia has failure to respond, then consider

A

thalassemia, malabsorption (Celiac)

46
Q

Educate about iron poisoning in children less than

A

6 years old

47
Q

destruction of all blood cells caused by either radiation, viral infection, adverse rx to drug

A

aplastic anemia

48
Q

gold standard diagnostic for aplastic anemia

A

bone marrow aspiration

49
Q

an autoimmune disorder caused by destruction of parietal cells in the fundus resulting in loss of intrinsic factor production

A

pernicious anemia

50
Q

This is needed to absorb vitamin B12

A

intrinsic factor

51
Q

causes of vitamin B12 deficiency

A

pernicious anemia, vegans, alcoholics

52
Q

diet sources of vitamin B12

A

meat, poultry, eggs, milk, cheese

53
Q

s/s of pernicious anemia

A

peripheral neuropathy, difficulty in fine motor skills, abnormal Romberg, decreased reflexes

54
Q

treatment for perncious anemia

A

lifetime vit B12 (injection, nasal spray, oral)

55
Q

diagnostic for pernicious anemia

A

decreased B12; decreased folate, positive antiparietal antibody

56
Q

drugs that can cause folate deficiency anemia

A

dilantin, TMP-SMZ, methotrexate

57
Q

labs in folate deficiency anemia

A

low H&H, high MCV, low folate

58
Q

food high in folate

A

green leafy veggies, grains, beans

59
Q

trx for folate deficiency anemia

A

folic acid 1-5 mg per day

60
Q

sickle cell anemia is passed by

A

genetics (autosomal recessive)

61
Q

Screening test for sickle cell disease

A

Sickledex, but diagnosed by hemoglobin electrophoresis

62
Q

When evaluating a patient with high MCV (macrocytic), next step is to

A

order folate and vitamin B12

63
Q

Sideroblastic anemia is a lead level of

A

greater than 10

64
Q

G6PD is passed down as

A

x-linked recessive

65
Q

meds to avoid with G6PD deficiency

A

antimalarials, sulfa, aspirin, nitrofurantoin, Bactrim

66
Q

meds that an cause vitamin B12 deficiency

A

cochicine, PPI, biguanide

67
Q

treatment for neonatal hyperbilirubinemia

A

increase breastfeeding, phototherapy

68
Q

cause of neonatal hyperbilirubinemia

A

High levels of unconjugated bilirubin d/t Hgb breakdown and inability of liver to excrete

69
Q

Rh incompatibility occurs when a Rh ____ mother has a Rh ____ infant

A

negative; positive

70
Q

this vaccine should be given in those undergoing a splenectomy

A

pneumonia 2 weeks prior

71
Q

most common congenital bleeding disorder

A

Von Willebrand’s

72
Q

labs for von willebrand’s

A

normal CBC, PT/PTT/INR;

test for factor VIII and vWF

73
Q

labs in hemophilia

A

normal PT/PTT/INR;

aPTT prolonged

74
Q

labs in acute lymphocytic leukemia

A

VERY high WBCs (blast cells), low RBC, low platelets

75
Q

hallmark of chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)

A

Philadelphia chromosome

76
Q

most common s/s of CML

A

splenomegaly

77
Q

diagnosis of Hodgkin lymphoma

A

presence of Reed-Sternberg cells

78
Q

during a viral infection, a CBC will have

A

neutrophil (poly) and lymphocytes will be close in number

79
Q

monocytes become elevated when

A

patient has been sick for more than 24 hours

80
Q

during a bacterial infection, a CBC will have

A

high WBC; neutrophil (poly) and lymphocytes will be far apart in number

Boards (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions