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AAD ETAS > infectious > Flashcards

infectious Flashcards

1
Q

primary effusion lymphoma,

A

KS

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2
Q

HHV 8 semen %HIV

A

20%

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3
Q

woods lamp copyroporphyringen

A

erythrasma

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4
Q

Valacyclovir-in immunosuppressed

A

TTP

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5
Q

paravaccinia

A

milkers nodule

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6
Q

xenopyxella cheoplas

A

endemic murine typhus

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7
Q

GPRwoolsorter

A

anthrax,

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8
Q

widened mediastiunum,

A

inhalational anthrax

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9
Q

lethal toxin virulence cytokine

A

TNF-a

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10
Q

child erythema migrans Rx

A

amoxicillin

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11
Q

Leprosy cytokine

A

-il2

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12
Q

Nhl,mixed cryoglobinemia link with virus

A

HCV

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13
Q

patchy lung infiltrate eosinophilia is result of

A

larva migrans

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14
Q

•papillomatosis cutis carcinoides causative virus

A

hpv 11-

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15
Q

negative weil felix

A

rickettsial pox

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16
Q

primary syphilis most sensitive markers

A

fta abs

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17
Q

hutchinson teeth is a feature of

A

late congenital syphilis

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18
Q

human body louse carries what type typhus

A

epidemic typhus

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19
Q

secondary syphillis- ?w after chancre

A

3-12w

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20
Q

SIADH is a feature of what type viral infection

A

ramsay hunt-

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21
Q

bartonella hensalae rx

A

erythromycin

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22
Q

c5 deficiency predisposes to

A

meningococcemia

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23
Q

seabthers pattern of distribution

A

-areas covered

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24
Q

which medications has side efect edema itching arthralgia

A

dimethylcarbamazine-

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25
Q

onchocerciasis-Rx

A

dimethylcarbamazine-

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26
Q

whitmore disease

A

burkholderia

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27
Q

chocolate. Agar,

A

gonorrhea,

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28
Q

-NNN Novy-MacNeal-Nicolle (NNN) medium,

A

leishmaniasis( espundia),

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29
Q

pentavalent antimony,

A

leishmaniasis-

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30
Q

leishmaniasis- vector

A

sandfly,

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31
Q

STD lgv-

A

proctocolitis

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32
Q

%-hiv hairy tongue

A

33%

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33
Q

of all sct-,? % first year zoster

•

A

70%

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34
Q

HSV HLA link

A

HLAB15

herpes assoc EM

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35
Q

congenital varicella syndrome-

A

1st 20w

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36
Q

michelis gutmann bodies stain

A

-von kossa

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37
Q

HPV 60-

A

ridged wart,

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38
Q

focal epithelial hyperplasia

A

HPV,

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39
Q

HPV 7

A

butchers warts ,

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40
Q

Hpv5,8,9,

A

epidermodysplasia verruciformiis-

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41
Q

HPV 6/11,

A

genital wart

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42
Q

hpv13/32

A

hecks disease

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43
Q

s aureus pseudomonas, e coli

A

uncontrolled HIV

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44
Q

fish handlers finger

A

strep iniae

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45
Q

buschke lowenstein

A

Hpv6

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46
Q

epithelioma cuniculatum, ,

A

sole-HPV

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47
Q

miculicz cell foamy macrophages

A

klebsiella

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48
Q

klebsiella rx

A

ciprofloxacin

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49
Q

erysipeloid rx

A

penicillin

•

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50
Q

acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans

A

borrelia afzelii •

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51
Q

reduviid bug

A

chagas

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52
Q

incubation IMO

A

3-7 w

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53
Q

verruga oerunialiglis vector

A

sandfly

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54
Q

> 20 outside dermatome,

A

disseminated

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55
Q

PAN hep? %

A

7-8%

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56
Q

-roseola infantum

A

HHV6

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57
Q

hemophilus ducreyi chancroid

A

school of fish

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58
Q

camylobacterium granuloma

A

granuloma inuinale -

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59
Q

onychomadesis cause

A

enterovirus

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60
Q

strep moni, penicillin

A

rat bite fever,

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61
Q

groove sign LN

A

LGV

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62
Q

oroya fever /carrions disease superfinfection

A

salmonella

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63
Q

papillma virus - children

A

stridor

64
Q

rhabsomyosarcoma LCH hemolytic disease TORCH

A

blueberry muffin

•

65
Q

photochromogen

A

M kansaii

66
Q

fever central eschars

A

rickettsial pox

67
Q

ssDNA

A

parvovirus

68
Q

verrugua peruana

A

bartonella bacilliniformis

69
Q

E infectiosum

A

parvovirus

70
Q

gamma favre bodies

A

LGV

71
Q

R prowazeki

A

epidemic typhus

72
Q

orf rx

A

Self resolving,

73
Q

eczema vaccinatum rx smallpox vaciine

A

• IVIG-

74
Q

smallpox vaciine efficacy

A

vesicle 4 cm erythema

75
Q

purpura fulminans bacteria

A

gpA strep

76
Q

bartonella bacilliniformis vector

A

lutz sandfly

77
Q

enterotoxin B

A

TSS

78
Q

calabar swellings

A

loiasis-

79
Q

pregnant lyme dz rx

A

amoxiciin

80
Q

MCV in HIV CD4

A

CD4<100

81
Q

ixodes daminiii

A

vector NW USA lyme dz

82
Q

b duttoni,

A

tick born relapsing

83
Q

MCV subtyp HIV

A

MCV 2

84
Q

MCV MOA HIV

A

evades IL18

85
Q

zoster ? %p yr HIV

A

3%

86
Q

colarado tick fever causative agent

A

virus

87
Q

jarisch herxheimer cytokine

A

TNF-a

88
Q

M marinum RX

A

minocycline

cipro doxy

89
Q

mortality untreated M marinum

A

20%

90
Q

brucellosis

A

GNR

91
Q

pediculosis humanis corporis

A

epidemic typhus

92
Q

botrymycosis suppurative

A

S aureus

93
Q

% asymptomatic congenital CMV

A

90

94
Q

loiasis vector

A

mango fly

95
Q

rickettsial pox vector

A

mouse

96
Q

iv penicillinase resistant penicillin

A

SSSS

97
Q

deafness MR

A

congenital CMV

98
Q

hi-CAMP

A

orf

99
Q

palatal petechiae,

A

EBV

100
Q

8-r old common baceria

A

Hib

101
Q

Exanthem subitum

A

HHV6

102
Q

safety pin intracytlasmic inclusions,

A

Granuloma Inguinale

103
Q

non menstrual TSS

A

enterotoxin B /C

104
Q

winterbottom sign

A

african trypansosomiasis

105
Q

Dapsone Clofazamine Rifampicin

A

leprosy

106
Q

rabies diagnostic biopsy location

A

neck

107
Q

migratory eosinophilic panniculitis

A

gnathostomatiasis fish

108
Q

HBsAg ; anti-HBc ;anti-HBs;
negative positive positive

A

Immune due to natural infection

109
Q

HbsAg anti-HBcIgM anti-HBc anti-HBs
positive positive. negative. negative

A

Chronically infected

110
Q

massive number of bee stings can result in multiple organ failure because the venom is rich in

A

phospholipases

111
Q

Fire ant venom contain

A

Solenopsin A

112
Q

Cantharidin in ‘‘blister’’ Coleoptera (beetles) cause vesi-cles and bullae by activation of

A

neutral serine proteases, which cause degeneration ofdesmosomes

113
Q

the main sign of injury of Millipedes

A

is hyperpigmentation

Millipedes have lateral glands, instead of fangs, which contain cyanide and quinones;

114
Q

The brownrecluse spider bite can cause skin necrosis (ie, loxoscelism via

A

sphingomyelinase D which can be

treated with antivenomand/or sulfones.

115
Q

What arthropod contact can result in dermatitis and conjunctivitis via allergic reactions, which can be treated with topical corticosteroids and oral antihistamines.

A

Tarantula contact with body bristles

116
Q

What bites cause pain and erythema via metalloproteases, which canbetreatedwith cold compresses and analgesics

A

Centipede

117
Q

Brown recluse spiders can cause extensive

skin necrosis and acute renal failure via

A

sphingomyelinase D; therapy is with antive-nom (antivenin) and/or sulfones

118
Q

Lower limb cellulitis is a common

infection, primarily caused by

A

streptococci, which often reside in the interdigital toes space

119
Q

For LL cellulitis, what significantly shortens the duration of illness and
may reduce episodes the frequency of
subsequent flares?

A

A brief course of oral corticosteroids

120
Q

carcinoma erysipelatoides has involved the lower limb with malignancies of

A

the bladder and prostate.

121
Q

During transmission, borrelial surface lipo- proteins are altered; OspA

A

downregulated,

122
Q

During transmission, borrelial surface lipo- proteins are altered; OspC and DbpA are

A

upregulated

123
Q

Lyme disease : The most effective transmission occurs ?hours after the onset of tick attachment

A

48 to72 hours

124
Q

Lyme disease is evident in three stages,
The ? stage involves host-wide spiro-chetal dissemination and further skin mani-festations, with or without neurologic, joint,and cardiac involvement

A

second stage

125
Q

Lyme disease is evident in three stages, ? which includes erythema migrans

A

first

126
Q

Lyme disease ? Stage manifests with persistent neurologic symptoms, recur-rent arthritis, or acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans

A

The third stage

127
Q

Lyme disease: Central nervous system invasion usually occurs without the production of

A

intrathecal inflammatorychemokines

128
Q

Lyme disease: Initial serologic diagnosis, when

indicated, requires a two-tiered system,with

A

an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay followed by Western blot.

129
Q

lyme disease treatmemt dor children under 8 years of age with early disease,

A

an excellent approach is 50 mg/kg per day of oralamoxicillin, divided into three doses, and not ex-ceeding 500 mg per dose

130
Q

The causative agent of STARI

A

remains uncertain ,

131
Q

southern tick associated rash illness (STARI) tick

A

Lone Star tick (Amblyomma americanum)

132
Q

. associated with verrucae, lym-phedema, immunodeficiency, and a history of infections and skin cancer

A

GATA2 deficiency

133
Q

Larva currens vs cutaneous larva migrans,

A

Larva currens is a hypersensitivity reaction cutaneous

manifestation ofStrongyloides and should be distinguished fromcutaneous abortive larva human migrans,animalhookworm.

134
Q

best treatment for tungiasis

A

Surgical excision

135
Q

chromoblastomycosis most common etiologic agent is

A

F pedrosoi

136
Q

HIV-infected patients cryptococcus presentation

A

molluscum-like lesions,

137
Q

Cryptococcus organ transplant recipients present more commonly with

A

lesions on the extremities that mimic bacterial cellulitis.

138
Q

Rx cryptococcus with central nervous symptoms or dissemination?

A

Amphotericin B with or without flucytosine

139
Q

Zoster most common vertebral dermatomes are

most common cranial nerve dermatome is

A

T5 and T6,

Ophthalmic Division of the trigeminal nerve.

140
Q

the treatment for herpes zoster include all of the following valacyclovir

A

a. A more convenient dosing schedule
b. Greater bioavailability
c. Higher effective plasma levels
d. Lower daily dose

141
Q

Which form leprosy high levels ofinterferon gamma (IFN-g), interleukin 2 (IL-2),TNF

A

tuberculoid disease manifesta predominantly Th1 response with high levels ofinterferon gamma (IFN-g), interleukin 2 (IL-2), TNF

142
Q

What form leprosy demonstrate higher levels of Th2-associated cytokines (IL-4, IL-5, and IL-10) and low levels of IL-2and IFN with a predominance of CD8 cell

A

Lepromatous

143
Q

Mucormycosis Rhinocerebral infections and orbital cellulitis are most common in patients .

A

with diabetes

144
Q

Mucormycosis Rx

A

AmphotericinB, posaconazole , surgery

traconazole/ voriconazole/aspofungin/ flucytosine ineffective

145
Q

for treating mucormycosis. ?is synergistic when used in conjunction with pos-aconazole.

A

caspofungin, an echinocandin class antifungal

146
Q

iron chelator deferoxamine can also increase the risk of mucormycosis infection because it

A

acts as a siderophore,providing iron for fungal growth

147
Q

Previous exposure to ? has been shown to be an independent risk factor to mucormycosis

A

Voriconazole

148
Q

Phaeohyphomycosis is typically follows

A

traumatic implantation of the fungi by a wood splinter or a thorn prick.

149
Q

fungal infections caused by a variety of naturally pigmented fungi, including Exophiala jeanselmei, Exophiala spinifera, and Wanigella dermatitidis.

A

Phaeohyphomycosis

150
Q

Unrelated species do not need to be treated for human scabies mites?

A

Animals can also become infected with scabies. However, the mite that colonizes animals is different from the type that affects humans.

151
Q

erythema migrans test

A

Polymerase chain reaction of the skin biopsy specimen
Amplification of B burgdorferi DNA by polymerase chain reaction studies is the most useful tool for the detection of bacterial DNA from skin biopsy specimens and synovial or cerebrospinal fluid. It is said to be positive in ≤90% of erythema migrans biopsy

152
Q

What stage ? ArgylleRobert-son pupil.

A

tertiary syphilis is the ArgylleRobert-son pupil.

153
Q

Orf caused by

A

Orf is one of several relatively uncommon cutaneous infections caused by zoonotic poxviruses

154
Q

the most specific diagnosis for infection with M leprae.

A

Polymerase chain reaction studies amplify sequences of target DNA

155
Q

most sensitive and specific technique for leishmaniasis .

A

Polymerase chain reaction

156
Q

? are the mostdefinitive tests in early syphilis and

Clinical specimens, taken from ?

A

Darkfield microscopy direct fluorescent antibody testing are the mostdefinitive tests in early syphilis and are able todemonstrate
Clinical specimens, takenfrom lesional exudates, are the most amenable tothis type of testing

AAD ETAS (12 decks)

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