Industrial/Organizational Psychology

Question 1

Name the branch of I/O psych that is concerned with
assessment, selection, placement, and training of new and
current employees.

Answer 1

Personnel Psychology

Question 2

Performance assessments are conducted in organizations
most often to ______ and to _______, but they may also be
used to ________, ______, and ______.

Answer 2

make salary decisions
provide feedback to employees
help determine training needs
make decisions about promotions
validate selection procedures

Question 3

Job analysis is a systematic method for collecting the

information needed to identify three things:

Answer 3

1) nature of the job
2) KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, and other
characteristics) that people must have to do the job; and
3) the measures with which job performance can be
evaluated

Question 4

The development of performance assessment techniques

usually begins with a ________.

Answer 4

Job analysis

Question 5

The increase in decision-making accuracy an employer
achieves by using the predictor to make selection decisions is
called?

Answer 5

Incremental Validity

Question 6

In terms of INCREMENTAL VALIDITY, which of the
following situations most supports the use of a new
predictor:
a. moderate base rate with many applications and few job
openings (low selection ratio)
b. low base rate with many applicants and few job openings
(low selection ratio)
c. moderate base rate with few applicants and many job
openings (high selection ratio)
d. low base rate with few applicants and many job openings
(high selection ratio)

Answer 6

a. a moderate base rate suggests that there is room for
improvement and, therefore, that a new predictor is likely to
increase decision-making accuracy. Also, the situation is
optimal when there is a low selection ratio.
b. INCORRECT. a low base rate suggests that something
else besides selection is the problem -e.g., company’s
standards is too low or too high or employees need training
in order to do the job satisfactorily.

Question 7

Define incremental validity:

Answer 7

the degree to which a new selection technique will increase
decision-making accuracy. it depends on several factors
including the base rate (proportion of correct decisions
without the new technique) and the selection ratio (ratio of
applicants to job openings.

Question 8

A transformational leader defines a goal to employees in a
way that imbues the goal with meaning and purpose. This is
referred to as:
a. priming
b. escalating commitment
c. framing
d. positioning

Answer 8

c. giving goals added mening is referred to as framing.

Question 9

According to Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership
model, a “telling” leader will respond to an employee who is
low in both ability and motivation by:
a. recommending that the employee receive additional
training
b. having the employee participate in goal-setting
c. providing the employee with close supervision and
specific instructions
d. setting easy goals for the employee and providing external
incentives.

Answer 9

c. a telling leadership style is optimal for employees who are
low in both ability and motivation and provides close
supervision and specific instructions.

Question 10

In an interview, a job applicant exhibits one or two very
positive characteristics. These characteristics influence how
the interviewer evaluates the applicant on the unrelated
characteristic so that her overall impression is very
favorable. This is an example the:
a. halo error
b. contrast effect
c. leniency bias
d. fundamental attribution bias

Answer 10

a. halo error

Question 11

In an interview, several poor job applicants are interview and
then a mediocre applicant is interviewed and hired
immediately. This is an example of the:
a. halo error
b. contrast effect
c. leniency bias
d. fundamental attribution bias

Answer 11

b. a contrast effect occurs when the evaluation of an

applicant is affected by a previous applicant.

Question 12

The tendency for a rater to rate everyone highly is known as
the:
a. halo error
b. contrast effect
c. leniency bias
d. fundamental attribution bias

Answer 12

c. leniency bias

Question 13

The tendency to attribute the behavior of others as
dispositional versus situational is known as the:
a. halo error
b. contrast effect
c. leniency bias
d. fundamental attribution bias

Answer 13

d. fundamental attribution bias

Question 14

The best conclusion that can be drawn about biodata as a
selection technique is that:
a. it is the best predictor of organizational behavior for entry
level managers, middle-level managers, and nonmanagers
b. it is a very good predictor of some aspects of
organizational behavior, but additional research is needed to
clarify which aspects it is best for predicting.
c. it is a very good predictor of organizational behaivor only
when an applicant is appying for a job that is similar to
his/her previous jobs
d. it is a poor predictor for nonmanagers but an accurate
predictor of some aspects of organizational behavior for
managerial-level applicants.

Answer 14

b. the accuracy of biodate seems to depend on the criterion.
There is evidence that suggests that biodata is a very good
predictor of training success, but other predictors may be
better for actual job performance.

Question 15

In the context of Holland’s theory of vocational choice, a
high degree of differentiation:
a. reflects an uncommon or unusual pattern of interests
b. reflects a common pattern of interests
c. increases the predictability of the person-environment
interaction
d. decreases the predictability of the person-environment
interaction

Answer 15

c. according to Holland, the importance of a good “fit”
between a person’s interrests and the characteristics of the
job is most important for those who are highly differentiated.
Holland used the term differentiation to describe the extent
to which a person has clearly defined interests. A person who
scores high on one of his interests scales and low on all other
scales is highly differentiated.

Question 16

Name the six basic personality/work environment types of

Holland’s theory of vocational choice (RIASEC).

Answer 16

realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and
conventional.

Question 17

Equity theory predicts that the husband will feel best about
his marriage if:
a. he and his wife give and receive the same amount in their
relationship
b. he perceives that he and his wife give and receive the
same amount in their relationship
c. in terms of their relationship, he perceives that his
give/receive ratio is the ssame as the give/receive ratio of his
wife.
d. in term sof their relationship, he perceives that his
give/receive ratio is the same as the give/receive ratio of his
wife.

Answer 17

d. according to equity theory, a person compares his/her
input/outcome ratio to that of others. If he/she perceives the
ratios to be similar, this has positive effects on satisfaction and
motivation.

Question 18

The shortage of mentors for women and members of
culturally-diverse groups at the managerial level is likely to
be of most concern for an advocate of:
a. social learning theory
b. contingency management theory
c. need hierarchy theory
d. LPC theory

Answer 18

a. According to social leaerning theory, people learn from
observing and interacting with others. Therefore, not having
a “model” who is of the same gender or cultural background
would be of concern to advocates of this theory.

Question 19

The use of rewards and punishments to elicit desired
behavior is know as:
a. social learning theory
b. contingency management theory
c. need hierarchy theory
d. LPC theory

Answer 19

b. contingency management

Question 20

Research on the application of goal-setting theory to groups
(versus individuals) suggests that:
a. individual goals are more effective than group goals
b. individual plus gropu goals are more effective than group
goals plus performance feedback
c. performance feedback plus group goals is more effective
than either of these alone
d. performance plus group goals is no more effective than
either of these along.

Answer 20

c. the research has found that a combination of specific goals
with performance feedback is the optimal situation for both
groups and individuals.

Question 21

“Group polarization” occurs when:
a. group members are split in their solution to a problem
b. group members make riskier decisions as a group than
they would have as individuals
c. group members make more extreme decisions (riskier or
conservative) as a group then they would have as individuals
d. group members are encouraged to think alike and all
dissent is discouraged.

Answer 21

c

Question 22

Research investigating the relationship between interest test
scores and future occupational choice suggests that these
tests have the highest predictive validity for:
a. lower-class people
b. middle-class people
c. upper-class people
d. lower-and upper-class people

Answer 22

b. middle class people tend to have the greatest latitude when
it comes to choosing an occupation and, therefore, are most
likely to choose jobs that coincide with their interests.

Question 23

An examinee whose highest score on Holland’s occupational
themes is on the realistic scale would probably be least
interested in pursuing a career as a:
a. farmer
b. bookkeeper
c. technical writer
d. social worker

Answer 23

d. social work is appropriate for people who score highest on
the social theme, which is most dissimiilar from the realistic
theme.

Question 24

An assumption underlying the notion of “groupthink” is that:
a. pressures toward uniformity limit task effectiveness
b. increasing cohesiveness results in more extreme decisions
c. excessive pressures toward conformity produce reactance
d. lack of familiarity with task demands leads to maintenance
of the status quo

Answer 24

a. Groupthink is characterized by a decrease in willingness to
consider divergent points of view, resulting in inappropriate
decisions and actions (although not necessarily more extreme
ones).

Question 25

Research examining the role of raters' expectations on their ratings has found that, when ratees are equal in actual level of performance: a. raters assign lower ratings to ratees who perform worse than they expected than to ratees whose performance matches their expectations b. raters assign lower ratings to ratees who perform better than they expected than to ratees whose performance matches their expectation c. raters assign lower ratings to ratees who perform worse or better than they expected than to ratees whose performance matches their expectations d. raters assign higher rating to ratees who perform better than they expected and lower ratings to ratees who perform worse than they expected than to ratees whose performance matches their expectation.

Answer 25

c. apparently raters do not like to be wrong: they tend to assign lower ratings regardless of whether the ratee did worse or better than expected.

Question 26

Research on equity theory suggests that: a. underpayment shoud be avoided but overpayment should be encouraged b. underpayment and overpayment should both be avoided c. negative valence should be avoided but positive valence should be encouraged d. negative valence and positive valence should both be avoided.

Answer 26

b. Although overpayment can produce an increase in productivity, the increase is only temporary. Overpayment sets up an inequitable situation that can have adverse effects on the performance of others. Valence is associated with expectancy theory.

Question 27

Research on job satisfaction suggests that it: a. is a relatively stable trait and is minimally affected by job changes b. is relatively stable within the same job but unstable when measured across different jobs c. is relatively unstable and varies over time both within the same job and accross different jobs. d. may be stable or unstable within and across jobs depending on the characteristics of the particular worker.

Answer 27

a. It appears that job satisfaction is directly related to the tendency toward positive or negative affect, which is a stable characteristic. People with negative affect tend to be dissatisfied with work; pepole with positive affect tend to be satisfied.

Question 28

``` The rational-economic model of decision-making views decision-makers as attempting to make: a. "satisficing" decisions b. "bounded" decisions c. representative decisions d. optimal decisions ```

Answer 28

d. the rational-economic model assumes that decision-makers will consider all possible alternatives and choose the optimal one.

Question 29

The bounded rationality (administrative) model of decision-making views decision-makers as attempting to make: a. "satisficing" decisions b. less than rational decisions due to limited capabilities, time, and resources c. representative decisions d. optimal decisions

Answer 29

b. these are "bounded" decisions

Question 30

``` In an oraganization, an assessment center is most likely to include which of the following: a. a measure of psychomotor ability b. a lie detector c. a "vestibule" d. an "in-basket test" ```

Answer 30

d. assessment centers incorporate a variety of techniques | including situational tests such as the in-basket test.

Question 31

In an oraganization, a common assessment for a production-type job is most likely to include which of the following: a. a measure of psychomotor ability b. a lie detector c. a "vestibule" d. an "in-basket test"

Answer 31

c. a vestibuele is a facsimilie of a real environment. Vestibules are used for training purposes and are most commonly associated with production-type jobs (e.g., a vestibule might be a facsimile of an actual assembly line).

Question 32

A problem with rational decision-making is that decision makers often examine possible alternatives only until a solution that meets minimal requirements is found and then stop looking for better alternatives. This is referred to as: a. minimizing b. polarizing c. suboptimizing d. satisficing

Answer 32

d. satisficing

Question 33

Due to recent changes in technology, a company vice president realizes that many employees will need to be retrained. The first step in identifying training needs will most likely be: a. performing a job evaluation b. conducting a needs assessment c. identifying training objectives d. performing a personnel audit

Answer 33

b. needs analysis (assessment) is done to determine training needs. It encompasses several other analyses such as task analysis and person analysis. a. INCORRECT - this is used to set wages and salaries c. INCORRECT - this is one of the outcomes of a needs assessment d. INCORRECT - a personnel audit is part of an organizational assessment which, in turn, is part of a needs assessment.

Question 34

Research on goal-setting theory suggests that monetary incentives: a. are irrelevant to goal achievement as long as the goals have been accepted by employees b. are irrelevant to goal achievement as long as the goals have been self-set by employees c. have a positive effect only if employees participate in determining the difficulty of the goals have a positive effect whether or not employees have been involved in goal-setting.

Answer 34

d. monetary incentive seem to have a positive effect on goal achievement (especially when they are tied specifically to achievement) regardless of the circumstances. (Some research states that monetary incentives can have a detrimental effect when the employee is involved in the goal setting.)

Question 35

Research on shiftwork suggests that: a. all tasks, regardless of complexity, are performed more efficiently and accurately on the day shift b. simple monotonous tasks are ordinarily performed equally well on day or night shifts c. complex mental tasks involving short-term memory may be performed better on night shifts than on day shifts d. performance on complex (vs. simple) tasks is most negatively affected by rotating shifts.

Answer 35

c. complex mental tasks involving short-term memory may be performed better on night shifts than on day shifts. b. INCORRECT -simple monotonous tasks are ordinarily performed better during the day. d. INCORRECT - This is the opposite of what is true: complex tasks seem to be less negatively affected by rotating shifts than simple tasks.

Question 36

The predictions of goal-setting theory appear to be most accurate for: a. easy tasks and people high in need for achievement b. easy tasks and people low in need for achievement c. complex tasks and people high in need for achievement

Answer 36

a. There is some evidence that the prediction of goal setting theory are more accurate for simple tasks and for people who are high in neec for achievement (who are more likely to commit to goals).

Question 37

According to Locke's goal-setting theory, employees are motivated to achieve goals that they have: a. consciously accepted b. unconsciously accepted c. understand d. do not understand

Answer 37

a. Locke believes that employees are more committed to | goals that they have consciously accepted

Question 38

Goal setting theory predicts that ______ difficulty goals and ______ goals will produce higher levels of performance than easy, general, or ambiguous goals.

Answer 38

moderate; specific

Question 39

``` Critical for ensuring maximum productivity is providing employees with: a. criticism b. feedback c. power d. praise ```

Answer 39

b. feedback

Question 40

``` ______ goals are associated with greater goal commitment for people with high nACH. a. assigned b. self-set c. easy d. difficult ```

Answer 40

b. self-set

Question 41

``` ______ goals are associated with greater goal commitment for people with low nACH. a. assigned b. self-set c. easy d. difficult ```

Answer 41

a. assigned

Question 42

When workers are allowed to participate in setting their goals, the goals are more _____ than the ones the supervisor would have set alone. a. easy b. flexible c. rigid d. difficult

Answer 42

d. difficult

Question 43

According to Tiedeman and O'Hara, career development involves two phases --anticipation and preoccupation --that each consists of several stages. Moreover, during these stages, the individual: a. attempts to achieve a balance between integration and differentiation b. compares his/her own abilities and performance to an external standard to help decide future goals c. makes choices that are based primarily on his/her level of self-awareness d. makes choices based on his/her needs, which are determined primarily by family and other environmental factors.

Answer 43

a. these investigators propose that achieving a balanced vocational identity involves both becoming part of a career field (integration) and retaining one's uniqueness (differentiation).

Question 44

Holland's theory of vocational personalities and work environments predicts that a person with a REALISTIC orientation will be most satisfied with job tasks that: a. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity b. require manual or technical sills and concrete problem-solving c. require systematic manipulation and organization of data d. require introspection and intellectual problem-solving

Answer 44

b. Realistic work requires mechanical, manual, technical | skills.

Question 45

Holland's theory of vocational personalities and work environments predicts that a person with an ARTISTIC orientation will be most satisfied with job tasks that: a. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity b. require manual or technical sills and concrete problem-solving c. require systematic manipulation and organization of data d. require introspection and intellectual problem-solving

Answer 45

a. This type of job is appropriate for an artistic individual

Question 46

Holland's theory of vocational personalities and work environments predicts that a person with an CONVENTIONAL orientation will be most satisfied with job tasks that: a. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity b. require manual or technical sills and concrete problem-solving c. require systematic manipulation and organization of data d. require introspection and intellectual problem-solving

Answer 46

c. This type of job is appropriate for a conventional | individual.

Question 47

Holland's theory of vocational personalities and work environments predicts that a person with an INVESTIGATIVE orientation will be most satisfied with job tasks that: a. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity b. require manual or technical sills and concrete problem-solving c. require systematic manipulation and organization of data d. require introspection and intellectual problem-solving

Answer 47

d. This type of job is appropriate for a conventional | individual.

Question 48

If the court determines that a selection procedure is having an adverse impact, a company: a. can no longer use the procedure b. can use the procedure if there is evidence that the adverse impact represents "fair discrimination" c. can use the procedure only if there is evidence that it is job-related. d. can use the procedure only if there is evidence that it is valid and there are no alternative procedures

Answer 48

d. when the court has determined that a selection technique is having an adverse impact, it is up to the company to prove that continued use of the technique is a "business necessity." This involves showing evidence of the procedure's validity and of a lack of alternatives mearsure that would have less adverse impact

Question 49

A potential problem with Holland's theory of vocational choice is that, in terms of cross-cultural vocational counseling, it: a. doesn't take into account the possibility that certain occupational environments may not be available to members of minority groups b. doesn't take into account the possibility that members of some minority groups are more likely to have a collectivistic (vs. individualistic) orientation c. doesn't recognize that self-concept may be affected, to some degree, by level of acculturation d. hasn't been shown to accurately predict stages of vocational development for members of minority groups.

Answer 49

a. To answer this question, you need to know that Holland's theory proposes that workers will be most satisfied when the job environment fits their personality type. It doesn't take into consideration the impact of discrimination, which may limit the availability of certain types of jobs for members of certain groups.

Question 50

A personnel director conducts a study to evaluate the criterion-related validity of a new selection test. She finds that the slope of the regression line differs for males and females. This suggests that the test: a. may be "unfair" b. may have differential validity c. may be lacking in incremental validity d. may be lacking in convergent validity

Answer 50

b. If the slopes of the regression lines for two different groups differ, this suggests that there may be differential validity (different validity coefficients for different groups). a. INCORRECT - It is the predictor cutoff scores of the two groups that help determine whether there is unfairness d. INCORRECT - Convergent validity refers to the degree of correlation between two measures that assess the same trait using different techniques.

Question 51

Research on the compressed (four-day) workweek suggests that it results in: a. increases in job satisfaction but decreases in job productivity b. increases in job satisfaction and mixed results in terms of absenteeism c. improvements in employee-supervisor relations and organizational commitment d. decreases in job productivity and increases in absenteeism

Answer 51

b. The compressed work week may have some benefits for productivity in the short-run, but in the long run, seems to have neither positive nor negative effects. It's strongest impact is on satisfaction (workers tend to like it), but it's effects on absenteeism depend on which study you read.

Question 52

``` The larger the group size, the more likely that social loafing will occur. This may be due to: a. the sleeper effect b. increased social inhibition c. decreased arousal d. decreased self-attention ```

Answer 52

d. Once theory of social loafing is that it increases as group size increases because the larger the group, the more information about other members an individual member has to process. This has the effect of lowering an individualn self-attention and ability to monitor his/her own performance.

Question 53

In a study on group decision-making, it is found that the average group response is much more extreme, but in the same direction, as the average response given by group members before participating in the group. This phenomenon is referred to as: a. the free-rider effect b. groupthink c. group polarization d. risky shift

Answer 53

c. Group (response) polarization occurs when a person makes a more extreme decision in group than he/she would have made alone. a. INCORRECT n the free-rider suggests that people reduce their effort on a group task when they observe that their contributions to a group are dispensable and that the group will succeed without them. b. INCORRECT n Groupthink refers to a suspension of critical and objective thinking that can occur under certain circumstances in group decision-making. Although groupthink can result in more extreme decisions, it isn't necessarily so. d. INCORRECT n the risky shift is like group polarization, but only includes the risky end of the decision continuum.

Question 54

One criticism of BARS is that: a. it requires raters to indicate the kinds of behaviors they would expect of ratees rather than the behaviors that they have actually observed. b. It requires raters to recall the frequency of critical behaviors over an extended period of time in the past. c. There is too much ambiguity with regard to the performance dimensions being measured d. It overemphasizes the subjective features of job performance.

Answer 54

a. CORRECT

Question 55

Name the BIG FIVE: OCEAN

Answer 55

``` Openness to experience Conscientiousness Extraversion Agreeableness Neuroticism ```

Question 56

Criterion contamination occurs when a raters knowledge of a predictor scores affects how he/she assigns criterion scores. Criterion contamination can be eliminated by ensuring that the individual who assigns criterion scores is ignorant of the predictor scores. The resulting elimination of criterion contamination would most likely have what effect on the validity coefficient: a.increase its magnitude b.decrease its magnitude c.either increase or decrease its magnitude d.neither increase nor decrease its magnitude

Answer 56

b. criterion contamination artificially inflates the correlation coefficient. Therefore, the elimination of criterion contamination would lower the coefficient. When a raters knowledge of the ratees predictor scores affects his/her ratings of the ratees on the criterion measure an artificially strong relationship is created between the predictor and criterion.

Question 57

To maximize the cueing function of feedback regarding social achievement: a.internal and/or external rewards must be available when goals are achieved b.the feedback must be specific (rather than global) in nature c.the feedback should be outcome (versus process) oriented d.the level of behavior required to achieve the goal must be attainable b. feedback is more effective when it is specific

Answer 57

a. INCORRECT rewards are associated more with motivation c. INCORRECT to maximize its effectiveness, feedback should provide information about both outcome and process. d. INCORRECT more relevant to motivating

Question 58

Research investigating the effects of job satisfaction has generally found that: a. it is correlated with physical and psychological health and longevity b. it is correlated with physical health and longevity but not with mental health c. it is correlated with psychological health but not with physical health or longevity d. it is not correlated with physical or mental health or longevity.

Answer 58

a. job satisfaction has been found to correlate with longevity while dissatisfaction has been associated with both psychological and physical disorders (high blood pressure, alcoholism).

Question 59

One problem with a decentralized communication network is that: a. it is associated with low levels of employee morale b. it can lead to the developments of autocratic leadership c. it can confuse the situation when the task is simple d. it is effective only when the company's organizational structure is also decentralized

Answer 59

c. for simple tasks (e.g., automated production line), centralized communication networks tend to be more effective. Decentralized networks are better for complex tasks because they provide greater flexibility and exchange of ideas.

Question 60

A person is most likely to be happy in a job that involves working with tools and objects, requires physical strength, and provides regular feedback in the form of practical results if his/her highest score is on the __________ subscale of Holland's personality/job environment theme scale: a. investigative b. mechanical c. conventional d. realistic

Answer 60

d. a person who scores highest in realistic enjoys or does well in technical, physical, mechanical, and/or outdoor activities.

Question 61

From the perspective of equity theory, a worker's motivation is related to his/her perceptions regarding fairness of: a. outcomes b. input/outcome ratios c. effort/performance ratios d. negative and positive outcomes

Answer 61

c. employees compare their own input/outcome ratios to the | ratios of others doing similar work

Question 62

Group decisions tend to be better than decisions made by individuals when: a.the task requires a high degree of creativity b.the group is highly cohesive c.the group consists of members with complementary expertise d.the group has a directive leader

Answer 62

c. groups are more effective when they are heterogeneous (when members have different skills and knowledge). a. INCORRECT individual decisions tend to be better than group decisions for tasks that require a high degree of conformity b. INCORRECT a high degree of cohesiveness can lead to groupthink

Question 63

According to Donald Super, career maturity refers to: a.the final stage of career development b.the ability to accomplish the tasks of each stage of career development c.the ability to make realistic career choices d.the acquisition of skills needed to successfully perform one's chosen job.

Answer 63

b. Correct

Question 64

As described by Krumboltz, career counseling involves: a. assessing the individual's self-concept and then identifying careers that match his/her self-concept b. helping the individual transition from the anticipation/preoccupation phase to the implementation phase of career development c. instilling an attitude of self-development in the individual so that he/she can adapt to changing work requirements in the future. d. Helping the individual successfully accomplish the tasks of his/her current stage of career development.

Answer 64

c. in contrast to many other career development theories, Krumboltz's theory does not focus on matching individual characteristics to the characteristics of the job or organization. Instead, he argues that the purpose of career counseling is to help the individual develop attitudes and skills that will enable him/her to adapt to changing work requirements. a.INCORRECT this sounds like Super's theory b.INCORRECT this sounds more like the theory of Tiedeman and O'Hara c.INCORRECT this sounds like Super's theory

Question 65

A new selection test is apparently having an adverse impact on females. To determine if the adverse impact is being caused by unfairness,n you would check: a.the predictor scores obtained by males and females b.the slopes of the regression lines for males and females c.to see if the language used in the test is biased d.to see if the measure of job performance is biased

Answer 65

a. as defined by the EEOC, unfairness occurs when the validity coefficients and crieterion performance for two groups are similar but members of the groups perform differently on the predictor. b. INCORRECT the slopes of the regression lines would be useful for determining if adverse impact is due to differential validity

Question 66

In mediation: a. the mediator considers the preferences of all involved parties but his/her decision or problem solution is binding b. the mediator makes a formal recommendation following a review of the facts, but the recommendation may or may not be acceptable by the involved parties c. the mediator facilitates the flow of information between the involved parties and helps them progress toward an acceptable compromise d. the mediator provides the final vote that is needed to break a deadlock between the involved parties

Answer 66

c. mediation is often distinguished between fact-finding and arbitration. In mediation, a neutral third party (the mediator) uses various tactics to facilitate voluntary agreement between disputants. Mediators can made recommendations, but they have no formal power and cannot impose their solution or decision. a.INCORRECT this sounds more like arbitration b.INCORRECT this sounds more like fact-finding than mediation d. INCORRECT this does not describe the role of a mediator

Question 67

To eliminate the least qualified job applicants early in the selection process, which of the following would be most helpful: a.profile matching b.multiple cutoff c.critical incident technique d.multiple hurdle

Answer 67

d. as its name implies, the multiple hurdle technique involves administering selection measures one at a time, with each successive measure (hurdle) being administered only when the applicant has been successful on the previous one. The first hurdle is designed to eliminate the least qualified applicants. a. INCORRECT profile matching involves administering several selection measures and comparing the applicant's sore profile to that of the typical successful employee. b. INCORRECT the multiple cutoff technique entails administering all selection measures to an applicant and considering the applicant only if he/she scores above a predefined minimum score on each measure. c. INCORRECT critical incidents technique is used in performance appraisals to determine how well an employee is doing to provide the employee with feedback about his/her performance.

Question 68

If the court determines that a selection procedure is having an adverse impact, a company: a. can no longer use the procedure b. can use the procedure if there is evidence that the adverse impact represents "fair discrimination" c. can use the procedure only if there is evidence that it is job-related. d. can use the procedure only if there is evidence that it is valid and there are no alternative procedures

Answer 68

d. when the court has determined that a selection technique is having an adverse impact, it is up to the company to prove that continued use of the technique is a "business necessity." This involves showing evidence of the procedure's validity and of a lack of alternatives measure that would have less adverse impact.

Question 69

A potential problem with Holland's theory of vocational choice is that, in terms of cross-cultural vocational counseling, it: a. doesn't take into account the possibility that certain occupational environments may not be available to members of minority groups b. doesn't take into account the possiblitily that members of some minority groups are more likely to have a collectivisitc (vs individualistic) orientation c. doesn't recognize that self-concept may be affected, to some degree, by level of acculturation d. hasn't been shown to accurately predict stages of vocational development for members of minority groups.

Answer 69

a. To answer this question, you need to know that Holland's theory proposes that workers will be most satisfied when the job environment fits their personality type. It doesn't take into consideration the impact of discrimination, which may limit the availability of certain types of jobs for members of certain groups.

Question 70

Research on the compressed (four-day) workweek suggests that it results in: a. increases in job satisfaction but decreases in job productivity b. increases in job satisfaction and mixed results in terms of absenteeism c. improvements in employee-supervisor relations and organizational commitment d. decreases in job productivity and increases in absenteeism

Answer 70

b. The compressed work week may have some benefits for productivity in the short-run, but in the long run, seems to have neither positive nor negative effects. It's strongest impact is on satisfaction (workers tend to like it), but it's effects on absenteeism depend on which study you read.

Question 71

A personnel director conducts a study to evaluate the criterion-related validity of a new selection test. She finds that the slope of the regression line differs for males and females. This suggests that the test: a. may be "unfair" b. may have differential validity c. may be lacking in incremental validity d. may be lacking in convergent validity

Answer 71

b. If the slopes of the regression lines for two different groups differ, this suggests that there may be differential validity (different validity coefficients for different groups). a. INCORRECT - It is the predictor cutoff scores of the two groups that help determine whether there is unfairness d. INCORRECT - Convergent validity refers to the degree of correlation between two measures that assess the same trait using different techniques.