Industrial/Organizational Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

Name the branch of I/O psych that is concerned with
assessment, selection, placement, and training of new and
current employees.

A

Personnel Psychology

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2
Q

Performance assessments are conducted in organizations
most often to ______ and to _______, but they may also be
used to ________, ______, and ______.

A
make salary decisions
provide feedback to employees
help determine training needs
make decisions about promotions
validate selection procedures
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3
Q

Job analysis is a systematic method for collecting the

information needed to identify three things:

A

1) nature of the job
2) KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, and other
characteristics) that people must have to do the job; and
3) the measures with which job performance can be
evaluated

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4
Q

The development of performance assessment techniques

usually begins with a ________.

A

Job analysis

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5
Q

The increase in decision-making accuracy an employer
achieves by using the predictor to make selection decisions is
called?

A

Incremental Validity

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6
Q

In terms of INCREMENTAL VALIDITY, which of the
following situations most supports the use of a new
predictor:
a. moderate base rate with many applications and few job
openings (low selection ratio)
b. low base rate with many applicants and few job openings
(low selection ratio)
c. moderate base rate with few applicants and many job
openings (high selection ratio)
d. low base rate with few applicants and many job openings
(high selection ratio)

A

a. a moderate base rate suggests that there is room for
improvement and, therefore, that a new predictor is likely to
increase decision-making accuracy. Also, the situation is
optimal when there is a low selection ratio.
b. INCORRECT. a low base rate suggests that something
else besides selection is the problem -e.g., company’s
standards is too low or too high or employees need training
in order to do the job satisfactorily.

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7
Q

Define incremental validity:

A

the degree to which a new selection technique will increase
decision-making accuracy. it depends on several factors
including the base rate (proportion of correct decisions
without the new technique) and the selection ratio (ratio of
applicants to job openings.

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8
Q

A transformational leader defines a goal to employees in a
way that imbues the goal with meaning and purpose. This is
referred to as:
a. priming
b. escalating commitment
c. framing
d. positioning

A

c. giving goals added mening is referred to as framing.

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9
Q

According to Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership
model, a “telling” leader will respond to an employee who is
low in both ability and motivation by:
a. recommending that the employee receive additional
training
b. having the employee participate in goal-setting
c. providing the employee with close supervision and
specific instructions
d. setting easy goals for the employee and providing external
incentives.

A

c. a telling leadership style is optimal for employees who are
low in both ability and motivation and provides close
supervision and specific instructions.

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10
Q

In an interview, a job applicant exhibits one or two very
positive characteristics. These characteristics influence how
the interviewer evaluates the applicant on the unrelated
characteristic so that her overall impression is very
favorable. This is an example the:
a. halo error
b. contrast effect
c. leniency bias
d. fundamental attribution bias

A

a. halo error

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11
Q

In an interview, several poor job applicants are interview and
then a mediocre applicant is interviewed and hired
immediately. This is an example of the:
a. halo error
b. contrast effect
c. leniency bias
d. fundamental attribution bias

A

b. a contrast effect occurs when the evaluation of an

applicant is affected by a previous applicant.

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12
Q
The tendency for a rater to rate everyone highly is known as
the:
a. halo error
b. contrast effect
c. leniency bias
d. fundamental attribution bias
A

c. leniency bias

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13
Q

The tendency to attribute the behavior of others as
dispositional versus situational is known as the:
a. halo error
b. contrast effect
c. leniency bias
d. fundamental attribution bias

A

d. fundamental attribution bias

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14
Q

The best conclusion that can be drawn about biodata as a
selection technique is that:
a. it is the best predictor of organizational behavior for entry
level managers, middle-level managers, and nonmanagers
b. it is a very good predictor of some aspects of
organizational behavior, but additional research is needed to
clarify which aspects it is best for predicting.
c. it is a very good predictor of organizational behaivor only
when an applicant is appying for a job that is similar to
his/her previous jobs
d. it is a poor predictor for nonmanagers but an accurate
predictor of some aspects of organizational behavior for
managerial-level applicants.

A

b. the accuracy of biodate seems to depend on the criterion.
There is evidence that suggests that biodata is a very good
predictor of training success, but other predictors may be
better for actual job performance.

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15
Q

In the context of Holland’s theory of vocational choice, a
high degree of differentiation:
a. reflects an uncommon or unusual pattern of interests
b. reflects a common pattern of interests
c. increases the predictability of the person-environment
interaction
d. decreases the predictability of the person-environment
interaction

A

c. according to Holland, the importance of a good “fit”
between a person’s interrests and the characteristics of the
job is most important for those who are highly differentiated.
Holland used the term differentiation to describe the extent
to which a person has clearly defined interests. A person who
scores high on one of his interests scales and low on all other
scales is highly differentiated.

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16
Q

Name the six basic personality/work environment types of

Holland’s theory of vocational choice (RIASEC).

A

realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and
conventional.

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17
Q

Equity theory predicts that the husband will feel best about
his marriage if:
a. he and his wife give and receive the same amount in their
relationship
b. he perceives that he and his wife give and receive the
same amount in their relationship
c. in terms of their relationship, he perceives that his
give/receive ratio is the ssame as the give/receive ratio of his
wife.
d. in term sof their relationship, he perceives that his
give/receive ratio is the same as the give/receive ratio of his
wife.

A

d. according to equity theory, a person compares his/her
input/outcome ratio to that of others. If he/she perceives the
ratios to be similar, this has positive effects on satisfaction and
motivation.

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18
Q

The shortage of mentors for women and members of
culturally-diverse groups at the managerial level is likely to
be of most concern for an advocate of:
a. social learning theory
b. contingency management theory
c. need hierarchy theory
d. LPC theory

A

a. According to social leaerning theory, people learn from
observing and interacting with others. Therefore, not having
a “model” who is of the same gender or cultural background
would be of concern to advocates of this theory.

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19
Q
The use of rewards and punishments to elicit desired
behavior is know as:
a. social learning theory
b. contingency management theory
c. need hierarchy theory
d. LPC theory
A

b. contingency management

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20
Q

Research on the application of goal-setting theory to groups
(versus individuals) suggests that:
a. individual goals are more effective than group goals
b. individual plus gropu goals are more effective than group
goals plus performance feedback
c. performance feedback plus group goals is more effective
than either of these alone
d. performance plus group goals is no more effective than
either of these along.

A

c. the research has found that a combination of specific goals
with performance feedback is the optimal situation for both
groups and individuals.

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21
Q

“Group polarization” occurs when:
a. group members are split in their solution to a problem
b. group members make riskier decisions as a group than
they would have as individuals
c. group members make more extreme decisions (riskier or
conservative) as a group then they would have as individuals
d. group members are encouraged to think alike and all
dissent is discouraged.

A

c

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22
Q

Research investigating the relationship between interest test
scores and future occupational choice suggests that these
tests have the highest predictive validity for:
a. lower-class people
b. middle-class people
c. upper-class people
d. lower-and upper-class people

A
b. middle class people tend to have the greatest latitude when
it comes to choosing an occupation and, therefore, are most
likely to choose jobs that coincide with their interests.
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23
Q

An examinee whose highest score on Holland’s occupational
themes is on the realistic scale would probably be least
interested in pursuing a career as a:
a. farmer
b. bookkeeper
c. technical writer
d. social worker

A

d. social work is appropriate for people who score highest on
the social theme, which is most dissimiilar from the realistic
theme.

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24
Q

An assumption underlying the notion of “groupthink” is that:
a. pressures toward uniformity limit task effectiveness
b. increasing cohesiveness results in more extreme decisions
c. excessive pressures toward conformity produce reactance
d. lack of familiarity with task demands leads to maintenance
of the status quo

A

a. Groupthink is characterized by a decrease in willingness to
consider divergent points of view, resulting in inappropriate
decisions and actions (although not necessarily more extreme
ones).

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25
Q

Research examining the role of raters’ expectations on their
ratings has found that, when ratees are equal in actual level
of performance:
a. raters assign lower ratings to ratees who perform worse
than they expected than to ratees whose performance
matches their expectations
b. raters assign lower ratings to ratees who perform better
than they expected than to ratees whose performance
matches their expectation
c. raters assign lower ratings to ratees who perform worse
or better than they expected than to ratees whose
performance matches their expectations
d. raters assign higher rating to ratees who perform better
than they expected and lower ratings to ratees who perform
worse than they expected than to ratees whose performance
matches their expectation.

A

c. apparently raters do not like to be wrong: they tend to
assign lower ratings regardless of whether the ratee did
worse or better than expected.

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26
Q

Research on equity theory suggests that:
a. underpayment shoud be avoided but overpayment should
be encouraged
b. underpayment and overpayment should both be avoided
c. negative valence should be avoided but positive valence
should be encouraged
d. negative valence and positive valence should both be
avoided.

A

b. Although overpayment can produce an increase in
productivity, the increase is only temporary. Overpayment
sets up an inequitable situation that can have adverse effects
on the performance of others.
Valence is associated with expectancy theory.

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27
Q

Research on job satisfaction suggests that it:
a. is a relatively stable trait and is minimally affected by job
changes
b. is relatively stable within the same job but unstable when
measured across different jobs
c. is relatively unstable and varies over time both within the
same job and accross different jobs.
d. may be stable or unstable within and across jobs
depending on the characteristics of the particular worker.

A

a. It appears that job satisfaction is directly related to the
tendency toward positive or negative affect, which is a stable
characteristic. People with negative affect tend to be
dissatisfied with work; pepole with positive affect tend to be
satisfied.

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28
Q
The rational-economic model of decision-making views
decision-makers as attempting to make:
a. "satisficing" decisions
b. "bounded" decisions
c. representative decisions
d. optimal decisions
A

d. the rational-economic model assumes that
decision-makers will consider all possible alternatives and
choose the optimal one.

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29
Q

The bounded rationality (administrative) model of
decision-making views decision-makers as attempting to
make:
a. “satisficing” decisions
b. less than rational decisions due to limited capabilities,
time, and resources
c. representative decisions
d. optimal decisions

A

b. these are “bounded” decisions

30
Q
In an oraganization, an assessment center is most likely to
include which of the following:
a. a measure of psychomotor ability
b. a lie detector
c. a "vestibule"
d. an "in-basket test"
A

d. assessment centers incorporate a variety of techniques

including situational tests such as the in-basket test.

31
Q

In an oraganization, a common assessment for a
production-type job is most likely to include which of the
following:
a. a measure of psychomotor ability
b. a lie detector
c. a “vestibule”
d. an “in-basket test”

A

c. a vestibuele is a facsimilie of a real environment.
Vestibules are used for training purposes and are most
commonly associated with production-type jobs (e.g., a
vestibule might be a facsimile of an actual assembly line).

32
Q

A problem with rational decision-making is that decision
makers often examine possible alternatives only until a
solution that meets minimal requirements is found and then
stop looking for better alternatives. This is referred to as:
a. minimizing
b. polarizing
c. suboptimizing
d. satisficing

A

d. satisficing

33
Q

Due to recent changes in technology, a company vice
president realizes that many employees will need to be
retrained. The first step in identifying training needs will
most likely be:
a. performing a job evaluation
b. conducting a needs assessment
c. identifying training objectives
d. performing a personnel audit

A

b. needs analysis (assessment) is done to determine training
needs. It encompasses several other analyses such as task
analysis and person analysis.
a. INCORRECT - this is used to set wages and salaries
c. INCORRECT - this is one of the outcomes of a needs
assessment
d. INCORRECT - a personnel audit is part of an
organizational assessment which, in turn, is part of a needs
assessment.

34
Q

Research on goal-setting theory suggests that monetary
incentives:
a. are irrelevant to goal achievement as long as the goals
have been accepted by employees
b. are irrelevant to goal achievement as long as the goals
have been self-set by employees
c. have a positive effect only if employees participate in
determining the difficulty of the goals
have a positive effect whether or not employees have been
involved in goal-setting.

A

d. monetary incentive seem to have a positive effect on goal
achievement (especially when they are tied specifically to
achievement) regardless of the circumstances. (Some
research states that monetary incentives can have a
detrimental effect when the employee is involved in the goal
setting.)

35
Q

Research on shiftwork suggests that:
a. all tasks, regardless of complexity, are performed more
efficiently and accurately on the day shift
b. simple monotonous tasks are ordinarily performed equally
well on day or night shifts
c. complex mental tasks involving short-term memory may
be performed better on night shifts than on day shifts
d. performance on complex (vs. simple) tasks is most
negatively affected by rotating shifts.

A

c. complex mental tasks involving short-term memory may
be performed better on night shifts than on day shifts.
b. INCORRECT -simple monotonous tasks are ordinarily
performed better during the day.
d. INCORRECT - This is the opposite of what is true:
complex tasks seem to be less negatively affected by rotating
shifts than simple tasks.

36
Q

The predictions of goal-setting theory appear to be most
accurate for:
a. easy tasks and people high in need for achievement
b. easy tasks and people low in need for achievement
c. complex tasks and people high in need for achievement

A

a. There is some evidence that the prediction of goal setting
theory are more accurate for simple tasks and for people who
are high in neec for achievement (who are more likely to
commit to goals).

37
Q

According to Locke’s goal-setting theory, employees are
motivated to achieve goals that they have:
a. consciously accepted
b. unconsciously accepted
c. understand
d. do not understand

A

a. Locke believes that employees are more committed to

goals that they have consciously accepted

38
Q

Goal setting theory predicts that ______ difficulty goals and
______ goals will produce higher levels of performance than
easy, general, or ambiguous goals.

A

moderate; specific

39
Q
Critical for ensuring maximum productivity is providing
employees with:
a. criticism
b. feedback
c. power
d. praise
A

b. feedback

40
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_ goals are associated with greater goal commitment
for people with high nACH.
a. assigned
b. self-set
c. easy
d. difficult
A

b. self-set

41
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_ goals are associated with greater goal commitment
for people with low nACH.
a. assigned
b. self-set
c. easy
d. difficult
A

a. assigned

42
Q

When workers are allowed to participate in setting their
goals, the goals are more _____ than the ones the supervisor
would have set alone.
a. easy
b. flexible
c. rigid
d. difficult

A

d. difficult

43
Q

According to Tiedeman and O’Hara, career development
involves two phases –anticipation and preoccupation –that
each consists of several stages. Moreover, during these
stages, the individual:
a. attempts to achieve a balance between integration and
differentiation
b. compares his/her own abilities and performance to an
external standard to help decide future goals
c. makes choices that are based primarily on his/her level of
self-awareness
d. makes choices based on his/her needs, which are
determined primarily by family and other environmental
factors.

A

a. these investigators propose that achieving a balanced
vocational identity involves both becoming part of a career
field (integration) and retaining one’s uniqueness
(differentiation).

44
Q

Holland’s theory of vocational personalities and work
environments predicts that a person with a REALISTIC
orientation will be most satisfied with job tasks that:
a. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity
b. require manual or technical sills and concrete
problem-solving
c. require systematic manipulation and organization of data
d. require introspection and intellectual problem-solving

A

b. Realistic work requires mechanical, manual, technical

skills.

45
Q

Holland’s theory of vocational personalities and work
environments predicts that a person with an ARTISTIC
orientation will be most satisfied with job tasks that:
a. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity
b. require manual or technical sills and concrete
problem-solving
c. require systematic manipulation and organization of data
d. require introspection and intellectual problem-solving

A

a. This type of job is appropriate for an artistic individual

46
Q

Holland’s theory of vocational personalities and work
environments predicts that a person with an
CONVENTIONAL orientation will be most satisfied with
job tasks that:
a. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity
b. require manual or technical sills and concrete
problem-solving
c. require systematic manipulation and organization of data
d. require introspection and intellectual problem-solving

A

c. This type of job is appropriate for a conventional

individual.

47
Q

Holland’s theory of vocational personalities and work
environments predicts that a person with an
INVESTIGATIVE orientation will be most satisfied with job
tasks that:
a. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity
b. require manual or technical sills and concrete
problem-solving
c. require systematic manipulation and organization of data
d. require introspection and intellectual problem-solving

A

d. This type of job is appropriate for a conventional

individual.

48
Q

If the court determines that a selection procedure is having
an adverse impact, a company:
a. can no longer use the procedure
b. can use the procedure if there is evidence that the adverse
impact represents “fair discrimination”
c. can use the procedure only if there is evidence that it is
job-related.
d. can use the procedure only if there is evidence that it is
valid and there are no alternative procedures

A

d. when the court has determined that a selection technique is
having an adverse impact, it is up to the company to prove
that continued use of the technique is a “business necessity.”
This involves showing evidence of the procedure’s validity
and of a lack of alternatives mearsure that would have less
adverse impact

49
Q

A potential problem with Holland’s theory of vocational
choice is that, in terms of cross-cultural vocational
counseling, it:
a. doesn’t take into account the possibility that certain
occupational environments may not be available to members
of minority groups
b. doesn’t take into account the possibility that members of
some minority groups are more likely to have a collectivistic
(vs. individualistic) orientation
c. doesn’t recognize that self-concept may be affected, to
some degree, by level of acculturation
d. hasn’t been shown to accurately predict stages of
vocational development for members of minority groups.

A

a. To answer this question, you need to know that Holland’s
theory proposes that workers will be most satisfied when the
job environment fits their personality type. It doesn’t take
into consideration the impact of discrimination, which may
limit the availability of certain types of jobs for members of
certain groups.

50
Q

A personnel director conducts a study to evaluate the
criterion-related validity of a new selection test. She finds
that the slope of the regression line differs for males and
females. This suggests that the test:
a. may be “unfair”
b. may have differential validity
c. may be lacking in incremental validity
d. may be lacking in convergent validity

A

b. If the slopes of the regression lines for two different
groups differ, this suggests that there may be differential
validity (different validity coefficients for different groups).
a. INCORRECT - It is the predictor cutoff scores of the two
groups that help determine whether there is unfairness
d. INCORRECT - Convergent validity refers to the degree of
correlation between two measures that assess the same trait
using different techniques.

51
Q

Research on the compressed (four-day) workweek suggests
that it results in:
a. increases in job satisfaction but decreases in job
productivity
b. increases in job satisfaction and mixed results in terms of
absenteeism
c. improvements in employee-supervisor relations and
organizational commitment
d. decreases in job productivity and increases in absenteeism

A

b. The compressed work week may have some benefits for
productivity in the short-run, but in the long run, seems to
have neither positive nor negative effects. It’s strongest
impact is on satisfaction (workers tend to like it), but it’s
effects on absenteeism depend on which study you read.

52
Q
The larger the group size, the more likely that social
loafing will occur. This may be due to:
a. the sleeper effect
b. increased social inhibition
c. decreased arousal
d. decreased self-attention
A

d. Once theory of social loafing is that it increases as group
size increases because the larger the group, the more
information about other members an individual member has
to process. This has the effect of lowering an individualn
self-attention and ability to monitor his/her own
performance.

53
Q

In a study on group decision-making, it is found that the
average group response is much more extreme, but in the
same direction, as the average response given by group
members before participating in the group. This phenomenon
is referred to as:
a. the free-rider effect
b. groupthink
c. group polarization
d. risky shift

A

c. Group (response) polarization occurs when a person
makes a more extreme decision in group than he/she would
have made alone.
a. INCORRECT n the free-rider suggests that people reduce
their effort on a group task when they observe that their
contributions to a group are dispensable and that the group
will succeed without them.
b. INCORRECT n Groupthink refers to a suspension of
critical and objective thinking that can occur under certain
circumstances in group decision-making. Although
groupthink can result in more extreme decisions, it isn’t
necessarily so.
d. INCORRECT n the risky shift is like group polarization,
but only includes the risky end of the decision
continuum.

54
Q

One criticism of BARS is that:
a. it requires raters to indicate the kinds of behaviors they
would expect of ratees rather than the behaviors that they
have actually observed.
b. It requires raters to recall the frequency of critical
behaviors over an extended period of time in the past.
c. There is too much ambiguity with regard to the
performance dimensions being measured
d. It overemphasizes the subjective features of job
performance.

A

a. CORRECT

55
Q

Name the BIG FIVE: OCEAN

A
Openness to experience
Conscientiousness
Extraversion
Agreeableness
Neuroticism
56
Q

Criterion contamination occurs when a raters
knowledge of a predictor scores affects how he/she assigns
criterion scores. Criterion contamination can be eliminated
by ensuring that the individual who assigns criterion scores
is ignorant of the predictor scores. The resulting elimination
of criterion contamination would most likely have what
effect on the validity coefficient:
a.increase its magnitude
b.decrease its magnitude
c.either increase or decrease its magnitude
d.neither increase nor decrease its magnitude

A

b. criterion contamination artificially inflates the correlation
coefficient. Therefore, the elimination of criterion
contamination would lower the coefficient.
When a raters knowledge of the ratees predictor scores
affects his/her ratings of the ratees on the criterion measure
an artificially strong relationship is created between the
predictor and criterion.

57
Q

To maximize the cueing function of feedback regarding
social achievement:
a.internal and/or external rewards must be available when
goals are achieved
b.the feedback must be specific (rather than global) in nature
c.the feedback should be outcome (versus process) oriented
d.the level of behavior required to achieve the goal must be
attainable
b. feedback is more effective when it is specific

A

a. INCORRECT rewards are associated more with
motivation
c. INCORRECT to maximize its effectiveness, feedback
should provide information about both outcome and process.
d. INCORRECT more relevant to motivating

58
Q

Research investigating the effects of job satisfaction has
generally found that:
a. it is correlated with physical and psychological health and
longevity
b. it is correlated with physical health and longevity but not
with mental health
c. it is correlated with psychological health but not with
physical health or longevity
d. it is not correlated with physical or mental health or
longevity.

A

a. job satisfaction has been found to correlate with longevity
while dissatisfaction has been associated with both
psychological and physical disorders (high blood pressure,
alcoholism).

59
Q

One problem with a decentralized communication network is
that:
a. it is associated with low levels of employee morale
b. it can lead to the developments of autocratic leadership
c. it can confuse the situation when the task is simple
d. it is effective only when the company’s organizational
structure is also decentralized

A

c. for simple tasks (e.g., automated production line),
centralized communication networks tend to be more
effective. Decentralized networks are better for complex
tasks because they provide greater flexibility and exchange
of ideas.

60
Q

A person is most likely to be happy in a job that involves
working with tools and objects, requires physical strength,
and provides regular feedback in the form of practical results
if his/her highest score is on the __________ subscale of
Holland’s personality/job environment theme scale:
a. investigative
b. mechanical
c. conventional
d. realistic

A

d. a person who scores highest in realistic enjoys or does
well in technical, physical, mechanical, and/or outdoor
activities.

61
Q

From the perspective of equity theory, a worker’s
motivation is related to his/her perceptions regarding fairness
of:
a. outcomes
b. input/outcome ratios
c. effort/performance ratios
d. negative and positive outcomes

A

c. employees compare their own input/outcome ratios to the

ratios of others doing similar work

62
Q

Group decisions tend to be better than decisions made by
individuals when:
a.the task requires a high degree of creativity
b.the group is highly cohesive
c.the group consists of members with complementary
expertise
d.the group has a directive leader

A

c. groups are more effective when they are heterogeneous
(when members have different skills and knowledge).
a. INCORRECT individual decisions tend to be better than
group decisions for tasks that require a high degree of
conformity
b. INCORRECT a high degree of cohesiveness can lead to
groupthink

63
Q

According to Donald Super, career maturity refers to:
a.the final stage of career development
b.the ability to accomplish the tasks of each stage of career
development
c.the ability to make realistic career choices
d.the acquisition of skills needed to successfully perform
one’s chosen job.

A

b. Correct

64
Q

As described by Krumboltz, career counseling involves:
a. assessing the individual’s self-concept and then
identifying careers that match his/her self-concept
b. helping the individual transition from the
anticipation/preoccupation phase to the implementation
phase of career development
c. instilling an attitude of self-development in the individual
so that he/she can adapt to changing work requirements in
the future.
d. Helping the individual successfully accomplish the tasks
of his/her current stage of career development.

A

c. in contrast to many other career development theories,
Krumboltz’s theory does not focus on matching individual
characteristics to the characteristics of the job or
organization. Instead, he argues that the purpose of career
counseling is to help the individual develop attitudes and
skills that will enable him/her to adapt to changing work
requirements.
a.INCORRECT this sounds like Super’s theory
b.INCORRECT this sounds more like the theory of
Tiedeman and O’Hara
c.INCORRECT this sounds like Super’s theory

65
Q

A new selection test is apparently having an adverse impact
on females. To determine if the adverse impact is being
caused by unfairness,n you would check:
a.the predictor scores obtained by males and females
b.the slopes of the regression lines for males and females
c.to see if the language used in the test is biased
d.to see if the measure of job performance is biased

A

a. as defined by the EEOC, unfairness occurs when the
validity coefficients and crieterion performance for two
groups are similar but members of the groups perform
differently on the predictor.
b. INCORRECT the slopes of the regression lines would
be useful for determining if adverse impact is due to
differential validity

66
Q

In mediation:
a. the mediator considers the preferences of all involved
parties but his/her decision or problem solution is binding
b. the mediator makes a formal recommendation following a
review of the facts, but the recommendation may or may not
be acceptable by the involved parties
c. the mediator facilitates the flow of information between
the involved parties and helps them progress toward an
acceptable compromise
d. the mediator provides the final vote that is needed to
break a deadlock between the involved parties

A

c. mediation is often distinguished between fact-finding and
arbitration. In mediation, a neutral third party (the mediator)
uses various tactics to facilitate voluntary agreement between
disputants. Mediators can made recommendations, but they
have no formal power and cannot impose their solution or
decision.
a.INCORRECT this sounds more like arbitration
b.INCORRECT this sounds more like fact-finding than
mediation
d. INCORRECT this does not describe the role of a
mediator

67
Q

To eliminate the least qualified job applicants early in the
selection process, which of the following would be most
helpful:
a.profile matching
b.multiple cutoff
c.critical incident technique
d.multiple hurdle

A

d. as its name implies, the multiple hurdle technique involves
administering selection measures one at a time, with each
successive measure (hurdle) being administered only when
the applicant has been successful on the previous one. The
first hurdle is designed to eliminate the least qualified
applicants.
a. INCORRECT profile matching involves administering
several selection measures and comparing the applicant’s
sore profile to that of the typical successful employee.
b. INCORRECT the multiple cutoff technique entails
administering all selection measures to an applicant and
considering the applicant only if he/she scores above a
predefined minimum score on each measure.
c. INCORRECT critical incidents technique is used in
performance appraisals to determine how well an employee
is doing to provide the employee with feedback about his/her
performance.

68
Q

If the court determines that a selection procedure is having
an adverse impact, a company:
a. can no longer use the procedure
b. can use the procedure if there is evidence that the adverse
impact represents “fair discrimination”
c. can use the procedure only if there is evidence that it is
job-related.
d. can use the procedure only if there is evidence that it is
valid and there are no alternative procedures

A

d. when the court has determined that a selection technique is
having an adverse impact, it is up to the company to prove
that continued use of the technique is a “business necessity.”
This involves showing evidence of the procedure’s validity
and of a lack of alternatives measure that would have less
adverse impact.

69
Q

A potential problem with Holland’s theory of vocational
choice is that, in terms of cross-cultural vocational
counseling, it:
a. doesn’t take into account the possibility that certain
occupational environments may not be available to members
of minority groups
b. doesn’t take into account the possiblitily that members of
some minority groups are more likely to have a collectivisitc
(vs individualistic) orientation
c. doesn’t recognize that self-concept may be affected, to
some degree, by level of acculturation
d. hasn’t been shown to accurately predict stages of
vocational development for members of minority groups.

A

a. To answer this question, you need to know that Holland’s
theory proposes that workers will be most satisfied when the
job environment fits their personality type. It doesn’t take
into consideration the impact of discrimination, which may
limit the availability of certain types of jobs for members of
certain groups.

70
Q

Research on the compressed (four-day) workweek suggests
that it results in:
a. increases in job satisfaction but decreases in job
productivity
b. increases in job satisfaction and mixed results in terms of
absenteeism
c. improvements in employee-supervisor relations and
organizational commitment
d. decreases in job productivity and increases in absenteeism

A

b. The compressed work week may have some benefits for
productivity in the short-run, but in the long run, seems to
have neither positive nor negative effects. It’s strongest
impact is on satisfaction (workers tend to like it), but it’s
effects on absenteeism depend on which study you read.

71
Q

A personnel director conducts a study to evaluate the
criterion-related validity of a new selection test. She finds
that the slope of the regression line differs for males and
females. This suggests that the test:
a. may be “unfair”
b. may have differential validity
c. may be lacking in incremental validity
d. may be lacking in convergent validity

A

b. If the slopes of the regression lines for two different
groups differ, this suggests that there may be differential
validity (different validity coefficients for different groups).
a. INCORRECT - It is the predictor cutoff scores of the two
groups that help determine whether there is unfairness
d. INCORRECT - Convergent validity refers to the degree of
correlation between two measures that assess the same trait
using different techniques.