Diagnostic Assessment Flashcards
1
Q
- As a communications theorist and therapist, Haley deals
with the concepts of the double-bind, setting conditions, and
what else?
a. family blueprint
b. paradoxical interventions
c. i-messages
d. prejudicial scapegoating
A
b.
Jay Haley, a communications theorist, is associated with
strategic family therapy and is well known for his use of
paradoxical interventions (e.g., instructing a patient to
purposefully engage in the symptomatic behavior).
2
Q
- According to psychoanalytic theory, the ego defense
mechanisms fucntion to:
a. keep unacceptable impulses from reaching consciousness.
b. ensure socially appropriate behavior
c. signal the emergence of anxiety
d. reduce conflict between the ego and the superego
A
a.
The function of ego defense mechanisms is to keep
unacceptable impulses from reaching consciousness. Anxiety
results when the defense mechanisms fail to control “psychic
excitation” (i.e., the entry of unconscious impulses into
consciousness).
3
Q
- A recent Latino immigrant to the United States would
probably have the most difficulty adjusting to a
psychotherapist who displays:
a. an eclectic orientation
b. a focus on individualism.
c. an informal personal style.
d. a focus on the client’s level of acculturation
A
b.
As compared to American culture, Latino culture is generally
characterized by a greater emphasis on the immediate
extended family unit and less emphasis on individualism.
4
Q
- Which of the following is least descriptive of the hypnotic
state? It involves:
a. induction of a “trance state” which, in its deepest form,
may be associated with induced visual or auditory
experiences.
b. a heightened state of concentration and increased
receptivity to the suggestions of another person.
c. a loss of control over one’s actions from oneself to the
hypnotist.
d. an ability to recall memories that are not available to the
conscious mind during the non-hypnotic state.
A
c.
People under hypnosis report that they never feel as though
they are not in control of their actions when they are in a
hypnotic trance.
Choices A and B have been used in various contexts as
working definitions of hypnosis.
5
Q
5. Which of the following is the strongest indicator of suicide risk? a. depression b. family history of suicide c. hopelessness d. alcoholism
A
c.
A number of studies has identified hopelessness as the aspect
of depressive symptomatology associated with the greatest
suicide risk.
6
Q
- From the perspective of Gestalt therapy, the term
“introjection” refers to:
a. adopting the values and behaviors of others without fully
assimilating them into the personality structure.
b. directing unacceptable anger and aggression inward.
c. being oriented toward self rather than oriented toward
others.
d. attributing one’s own unacceptable beliefs and impulses to
others.
A
- A
According to the theory that underlies Gestalt therapy,
introjection is a boundary disturbance that involves
assimilating information, beliefs, and values without really
understanding them.
7
Q
7. Which of the following clinical tests was developed on the basis of emperical criterion keying? a. Rorschach b. 16PF c. WAIS-III d. MMPI-2
A
- D
Empirical criterion keying is a method of choosing items for
a test on the basis of the items’ ability to distinguish between
groups. Of the choices listed, only the MMPI-2 was
developed on the basis of empirical criterion keying.
8
Q
- A feminist therapist would:
a. focus on innate, biological differences between men and
women.
b. believe that there are no inherent differences in power
between a psychotherapist and a client.
c. focus on social and political factors that underlie a
woman’s so called psychopathology.
d. argue that only highly trained professionals are capable of
understanding and treating female clients in psychotherapy.
A
- C
Feminist therapy approaches assume that sexism and
oppressive social roles underlie the reported problems of
women who seek therapy.
9
Q
- Which of the following statements regarding
client-therapist ethnic matching is most consistent with the
overall body of research on the issue?
a. Clients who receive therapy from racially and ethnically
similar therapists are likely to show greater progress than
those who have ethnically different therapists.
b. Client-therapist ethnic similarity has not been
demonstrated to have any significant effect on therapy
outcome.
c. The race of the client and therapist are variables that
interact with a number of client and therapist variables in
exerting their effects on therapy outcome.
d. Client-therapist ethnic similarity has been shown to have
an impact on therapy outcome for only African-American
clients
A
- C
Though this is a controversial issue in the literature, the
generally accepted consensus is that ethnic matching per se
is not related to therapy outcome. However, variables such as
therapist sensitivity to cultural variable and the client’s level
of identification with their ethnic groups influence the way in
which ethnic similarity affects outcome.
10
Q
10. Which of the following terms is not associated with Minuchin's structural family therapy? a. enmeshment b. disengagement c. boundaries d. congruence
A
- D
The term congruence is associated with Roger’s
client-centered therapy. It refers to genuineness and
consistency between the therapist’s words and behaviors
11
Q
11. A therapist that focuses on a client's basic needs for power, affiliation, and fun is likely a: a. reality therapist b. Gestalt therapist c. transactional therapist d. person-centered therapist
A
- A
According to the theory underlying reality therapy,
psychological problems are due to an inability to responsibly
and adequately meet one’s basic needs. These needs include
those for survival, belonging, power, fun, and freedom.
12
Q
- According to psychoanalytic theory, a patiente with an
obsessive-compulsive neurosis is likely to strongly rely on
which of the following sets of defenses:
a. reaction formation, isolation of affect, and undoing
b. projection, displacement, and denial
c. somatization, introjection, and reaction formation
d. isolation, denial, and repression
A
- A
Reaction formation involves dealing with unacceptable
impulses by substituting their opposite. The OCD personality
is often overly rigid in matters of morality and ethics.
Isolation of affect involves separation of thoughts from
feelings associated with them. The OCD personality, while
able to describe affectively charged events, prefers to avoid
discussing feelings about them. Undoing involves behaviors
designed to symbolically negate unacceptable thoughts or
actions. OCD often involves ritualistic compulsions in
response to obsessions.
13
Q
13 Unconscious mental processing is called primary process
thinking. This primary process functions according to the:
a. pleasure principle
b. reality principle
c. free association principle
d. transference between client and therapist
A
- A
Freud described the primary process thinking as governed by
the id and functioning according to the pleasure principle.
14
Q
14. Jung believed that people turn from an extroverted process to an introverted one: a. in early adolescence b. toward the end of life c. around age 40 d. depending on the social situation
A
- C
Carl Jung described extroversion as the disposition to find
pleasure in external things. Introversion reflected a turning
inward of the libido. He believed that we turned from the
extroversion of youth to the introversion of adulthood
somewhere near the midpoint of life - around 40.
15
Q
- Adler termed the concept the “masculine protest” to refer
to:
a. a child’s awareness that he is not female
b. the pre-feminist movement
c. Neo-Freudians
d. inferiority complex
A
- D
The masculine protest came from Adler’s idea that every
child experiences feelings of inferiority which supply the
motivation to grow, dominate, and be supportive.
16
Q
16. Harry Stack Sullivan believed that neurotic behavior is often caused by: a. syntaxic modes b. prototaxic modes c. parataxic modes d. Neo-Freudians
A
- C
Harry Stack Sullivan believed that parataxic distortions -
delaing with current acquaintances as if they were significant
persons from early life - caused neuroticism.
He also described syntaxic mode experiences (symbols with
shared meanings) and prototaxic mode experiences (involve
discrete unconnected momentary states)
17
Q
- Existential psychotherapy focuses on:
a. the individual and his community
b. the individual and the ultimate concerns of existence
c. the existence of our species
d. congruence
A
- B
Existential psychotherapy holds that personality is an
outgrowth of the struggle between the individual and
ultimate concerns of existence, such as death, isolation,
meaninglessness, and the ultimate responsibility for our own
lives.
18
Q
- Fritz Perl’s Gestalt therapy and theory of personality
emphasizes:
a. style of life
b. boundary disturbances
c. an understanding of maladaptive interactions
d. psychoanalysis
A
- B
Fritz Perl’s theory of personality viewed it as consistency of
the self and the self-image. A person’s interaction with the
environment determines which part of the personality exerts
the most control. A “boundary disturbance” such as
introjection, deflection, confluence, results in a person who
is less controlled by the self and more controlled by the
self-image.
19
Q
19. A feminist therapist would often have as a primary goal for her clients: a. an understanding of sexism b. reducing crossed transactions c. empowerment d. group therapy
A
- C
The emphasis of feminist therapy is to show clients
alternative social roles and options. One of the primary goals
is empowerment.
20
Q
- The primary difference between object relations family
therapy, and most system based models is:
a. the development of a supportive therapeutic environment.
b. active listening
c. communication is needed for effective family change.
d. insight is a core requirement for family change.
A
- D
A core tenet of object relations family therapy is that insight
is a care requirement for family change. Another major tenet
of this form of therapy is that problems in current
relationships between family members can be interpretted in
terms of transferences resulting from the early mother-child
relationship.
21
Q
- According to Yalom, if a therapist is criticized by the
group for not disclosing personal information, the therapist
should:
a. interpret the behavior as resistance
b. consider it a normal stage in the development of the group
and ignore it
c. ask the group more questions about why they feel that way
d. exhibit more control
A
- C
This question is really asking about transference. Answer B
is only partially correct. Transference is a normal stage in
group development; however, it should not be ignored.
Yalom believes that transference can be beneficial if it is
managed effectively. The only answer that allows for further
investigation and management of transference is C.
22
Q
- A disadvantage of concurrent participation in individual
and group therapy is that:
a. the patient is likely to rely on group therapy rather than
individual therapy for support.
b. the patient may save all of his personal self-disclosures for
individual therapy, leaving nothing for the group.
c. the patient may bring material from the group into
individual therapy.
d. it is not useful for patients with a Personality Disorder
(PD).
A
- B
According to Yalom, a disadvantage of concurrent
participation in individual and group therapy is that the
patient may be more inclined to self-disclosure in individual
therapy, where he or she receives more individual attention.
As a consequence, self-disclosure in group therapy is
reduced or lost.
23
Q
- The MMPI-2, the most widely used clinical personality
test, contains the following clinical scales:
a. Schizophreniform (SF), Gender Identity (GI), Narcissism
(N), Social Extroverson (SE)
b. Bipolar I (Bi), Personality Disorder (PD), Axis I (A1),
Axis II (A2)
c. Hypochondriasis (HS), Hysteria (HY), Paranoia (Pa),
Hypomania (Ma)
d. Location, Determinants, Content, Populars
A
- C
Choice C are clinical scales from the MMPI-2. Choice D is a
list of different scoring categories from Exner’s
Comprehensive Scoring System for the Rorschach. Choices
A and B are made up.
24
Q
24. Most of the variance in treatment outcome is accounted for by: a. the working alliance b. the specific treatment intervention c. the fee d. the initial impression
A
- A
The working alliance accounts for most of the variance in
treatment outcome and it has been found to be more
important than the specific treatment intervention.
25
Q
25. Remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation are descriptions of: a. crisis intervention b. therapy phase outcomes c. stages in alcohol treatment d. stages of life
A
- B
The three Rs describe the three phases of therapy outcome
described by Howard’s research that found a relationship
between the number of therapy sessions and therapy
outcome.
According to Howard’s research: Remoralization is the first
phase encompassing the first few sessions. Remediation is
the second phase that requires symptomatic relief and
requires about 16 sessions. Rehabilitation is the third phase
and involves a gradual improvement in various aspects of
functioning.
26
Q
- The emic-etic distinction in the study of a culture
includes the etic approach of looking at cultures from the
outside using universally accepted means of investigation
and the emic approach which involves:
a. analyzing the culture from the researcher’s perspective
b. comparing it to other cultures.
c. studying a culture from the inside and seeing it as its own
members do
d. ego-manic idiosyncratic consultation.
A
- C
The emic approach involves studying the culture from the
inside, and attempting to see it as its own members do.
27
Q
- A culturally encapsulated therapist:
a. is aware of his/her own cultural biases
b. defines the world in terms of his own cultural beliefs.
c. notices and works with cultural variations among clients.
d. is able to work effectively with members of different
cultural groups.
A
- B
A culturally encapsulated therapist defines the world in
terms of this/her own cutltural beliefs, according to Wrenn.
Choices A, C, and D are descriptions of a culturally
competent counselor according to Sue.
28
Q
28. Which age range has seen the greatest increase in suicide rates in recent years? a. under 15 b. 15-24 c. 40-55 d. 65-80
A
- B
The question focuses specifically on which age group is
showing the greatest increase in suicide rate, which is the
15-24 age group.
29
Q
- You develop a program for preschool children who are at
risk for learning disabilities. This is an example of:
a. primary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. tertiary prevention
d. advocacy consultation
A
- A
Primary prevention is administered before the onset of a
problem and is designed to prevent the development of the
problem.
30
Q
- When they seek psychotherapy, many physically abused
women report that they do not want to leave their husbands.
A common reason for this is that:
a. the woman feels she is physically strong enough to defend
herself.
b. the woman and her husband are in a “honeymoon” stage in
which the husband apologizes and promises to change.
c. the woman has an adequate support system to help her in
times of crisis
d. the woman has a self-defeating personality disorder
A
- B
According to Lenore Walker’s three stage model of domestic
violence, a battering incident usually culminates in a
“honeymoon” phase, in which the batterer is remorseful,
apologetic, and promises never to batter again. Interventions
for spouse abuse most commonly occur in this honeymoon
phase, shortly after the abuse has occurred
31
Q
- The difference between peroperational and concrete
operational thought is that:
a. the preoperational child is able to intuit, whereas the
concrete operational child is not
b. the concrete operational child has mastered conservation
of the object, whereas the preoperational child has not
c. the concrete operational child is able to coordinate his
thinking into systems he can direct and control, whereas the
preoperational child is not.
d. the concrete operational child is not capable of
representation, whereas the preoperational child is.
A
- B
Piaget divided cognitive development into four stages:
sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and
formal operational. In the preoperational stage, the child is
unable to conserve, or recognize that a change in an objects
appearance does not mean that the object’s fundamental
properties have changed.
32
Q
- A 3-year-old child sees a squirrel “fly” from one tree to
another and classifies it as a bird. After getting a closer look
at the squirrel, he sees that it can only “fly” short distances
and that it has fur instead of feathers. He then reclassifies it
as a “flying animal other than a bird”. According to Piaget,
the child has engaged in what two processes, respectively?
A
- A
Assimilation involves incorporating new information from
the environment into existing cognitive schemas.
Accommodation, by contrast, involves modifying a cognitive
scheam to be consistent with new environmental
information.
33
Q
33. According to Erikson, the psychosocial conflict experienced by adolescents is: a. autonomy vs. shame b. ego identity vs. role confusion c. intimacy vs. isolation d. rebellion vs. conformity
A
- B
Erikson’s theory of development describes the “Eight Stages
of Man” or the psychosocial crises that are associated with
development throughout the life span. According to this
theory, adolescents face the crisis of ego identity vs. role
confusion.
34
Q
- Kohlberg’s theory of moral development suggests all of
the following except the:
a. necessity of progressing through the stages of moral
development in a set sequence.
b. importance of the development of cognitive skill as a basis
for changes in the quality of one’s moral judgment.
c. direction of development as moving from a more
hedonistic stance to a reliance on specific principles of
conscience
d. necessity of progressing through the stages as opposed to
remaining fixed at an early stage of development
A
- D
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development holds that our
beliefs about what is right and what is wrong progress
through a predictable sequence that is a function of our
cognitive development. Many individuals never progress to
the final stage of development and remain fixed at an earlier
stage.
35
Q
- A behavior that does not develop unless certain
environmental events are present during a limited period of
time illustrates the notion of:
a. sensitive periods
b. critical periods
c. canalization
d. maturation
A
- B
A critical period is a limited time period during which an
organism is biologically prepared to acquire certain
behaviors but requires the support of an appropriately
stimulating environment.
36
Q
- Phenotype refers to:
a. genetically determined characteristics
b. environmentally determined characteristics
c. observable and measureable characteristics
d. characteristics with an unknown origin
A
- C
Phenotype refers to characteristics that are observable and
measureable and that often reflect a combination of genetic
and environmental influences.
37
Q
- As defined by Vygotsky, the zone of proximal
development:
a. refers to the people and resources in the learner’s
immediate environment
b. refers to the child’s biologically-determined range of
reactions
c. is the gap between what a child can do and what he or she
wants to do
d. is the gap between what a child can currently do and what
he or she can do with assistance.
A
- D
Vygotsky believed teaching is most effective when it occurs
within the child’s zone of proximal development, the gap
between what a child can currently do and what the child can
do with assistance from an adult or more competent peer.
38
Q
- Stranger anxiety is most intense when an infant is:
a. 6-7 months
b. 10-11 months
c. 17-18 months
d. 22-24 months
A
- C
Strange anxiety is first evident when the infant is between
8-10 months of age. The intensity of stranger anxiety is at its
maximum when the infant is about 18 months of age.
39
Q
39. Delinquent adolescents are most likely to have parents who are: a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. permissive d. uninvolved
A
- D
The characteristics of the uninvolved parents (e.g., weak
supervision, hostility or indifference) have been linked to
delinquency in adolescence.
40
Q
- The goodness of fit model developed by Thomas and
Chess proposes that healthy development requires a match
between:
a. temperament and environment
b. thoughts, feelings, and actions
c. attachment and parents’ responsibility
d. cognitive abilities and environmental demands
A
- A
Knowning that Thomas and Chess are most associated with
research on temperament would have guided you to the right
answer.
41
Q
41. Which of the following aspects of memory shows the most decline with age? a. sensory memory b. primary memory c. secondary memory d. implicit memory
A
- C
One of the most consistent findings of the research in this
area is that recent long-term (i.e., secondary memory) is
most adversely affected by normal aging.
42
Q
- Patterson and colleagues would most likely agree that
highly aggressive children:
a. are born that way
b. exhibit a high incidence of cognitive distortions
c. have unfulfilled needs
d. have highly aggressive parents
A
- D
Patterson has focused on family factors that contribute to
aggressiveness in children, and he has found that the
development of aggression was due largely to imitation of
parent’s aggressive behaviors and the parent’s reinforcement
of aggressive behavior by the the child.
43
Q
- Anxiety about death is greatest for individuals aged:
a. 20-30
b. 30-40
c. 40-50
d. 50-60
A
- C
For most people, anxiety about death is strongest during the
midlife years.
44
Q
- A school psychologist is interested in studying the
interrelationships between a child’s home and school
environments. From the perspective of Brofenbrenner’s
ecological model, the psychologist is interested in the:
a. mesosystem
b. exosystem
c. macrosystem
d. endosystem
A
- A
As defined by Bronfenbrenner, the mesosystem refers to the
interconnections between different aspects of the
microsystem - the connection between the family and the
school.
45
Q
- A 15-year-old gets her haircut and feels that the
hairdresser trimmed her bangs much too short. She tells her
mother that she doesn’t want to return to school until her hair
grows out because she is sure that everyone will make fun of
her until then. This is an example of:
a. identity moratorium
b. adolescent centration
c. personal fable
d. imaginary audience
A
- D
According to Elkind, one manifestation of adolescent
egocentrism is the belief that one is always “on stage”. This
is referred to as the imaginary audience
46
Q
- Zajonc’s “confluence model” would support the finding
that:
a. first-born children tend to have greater intellectual ability
than later-born.
b. later-born children tend to have greater intellectual ability
than early-born.
c. the last child born is coddled
d. the larger the family, the better the children get along
A
- A
Zajonc proposed a confluence model to support a number of
studies that suggest that first born children tend to have
greater intellectual abilities than later born children. Zajonc
maintains that as the number of children in a family
increases, the amount of intellectual stimulation and other
important family resources available to each individual
declines.
47
Q
- The first words infants express are usually:
a. Ninja turtles
b. action words
c. verbs
d. nouns
A
- D
Children tend to express names of objects of significance to
them, like Da-Da, Ba-ba, MaMa, etc. So nouns is the best
answer.
48
Q
- Which of the following provides the best predictor of
teenage delinquency?
a. low SES
b. single-parent household
c. low self-esteem
d. poor supervision and erratic discipline
A
- D
Research appears to indicate that poor adult supervision and
erratic discipline are among the most critical factors
associated with teenage delinquency.
49
Q
49. During the first few days following birth, smiling by an infant is associated with: a. human voices b. REM sleep c. human smiling d. wet diapers
A
- B
During the first few days following birth, smiling by an
infant is associated with REM sleep. By the second week,
the infant will begin to smile while awake.
50
Q
- Comparing children from intact families to children from
divorced families, the National Survey of Children has found
that as they reach early adulthood:
a. children from divorced families are more likely to
demonstrate academic and emotional problems
b. children from intact families are more likely to
demonstrate academic problems, but emotionally are not
different
c. children from intact families are more likely to
demonstrate academic and emotional problems
d. children from intact families and divorced families are
indistinguishable
A
- A
Although the evidence is not overwhelming, the evidence
suggests that divorce can produce negative consequences by
the time the child reaches early adulthood.
51
Q
- Which of the following is least characteristic of infants
who were exposed to cocaine in utero?
a. crawl, stand, and walk early
b. low birthweight
c. very irritable
d. insensitive to visual, auditory, and tactile stimulation
A
- D
Exposure to cocaine during prenatal development often leads
to oversensitivity, rather than undersensitivity, to sensory
stimulation. The other responses are characteristic of many
of these infants who are exposed to cocaine during early
development.
52
Q
- Organic brain disease would be suggested on the
WAIS-III if, on the subtests (compared to the subject’s
mean),
a. Information and Vocabulary scores were low
b. Digit Span and Digit Symbol-Coding scores were very
low
c. Similarities and Vocabulary were high
d. Arithmetic was down, while Block Design was high
A
- B
The subtests of the WAIS-III vary in terms of their
sensitivity to brain impairment. The Digit Span and Digit
Symbol-Coding subtests are among the most sensitive.
Scores on these subtests are most likely to be adversely
affected by organic dysfunction.
53
Q
- For a group of 50 gifted children, scores on the
WISC-III, as compared to the Stanford-Binet, would tend to
be
a. lower
b. the same
c. higher
d. unpredictably higher or lower
A
- A
The Stanford Binet is a more sensitive measure of
intelligence than the WISC-III at the outer extremes (high or
low) of intelligence. Thus, gifted children would likely score
higher on the SB than on the WISC-III, while profoundly
retarded individuals would likely score lower on the SB.
54
Q
- Administering only the verbal subtests of the WISC-III
as a means of assessing intelligence would be most
appropriate for:
a. a child from a rural Appalachian community
b. a recent immigrant to this country
c. a child from an affluent suburban community
d. a high school dropout
A
- C
The WISC-III verbal subtests are influenced more by a
variety of extraneous variables than are the performance
subtests. Of the choices listed, the verbal subtest scores of a
child from the the Burbs are least likely to be adversely
affected by extraneous variables.
55
Q
- Scores on which of the following WAIS-III subtests
would show the least reduction as a result of brain injury?
a. Block Design
b. Similarities
c. Comprehension
d. Information
A
- D
Scores on the Information and Vocabulary subtests of the
WAIS-III are usually relatively unaffected by brain
impairment. For this reason, the Information and Vocabulary
subtests are used as measures of premorbid functioning in
brain impaired individuals.
56
Q
- You are hired by a sheltered workshop program to do
assessments of moderately to severely retarded adults. To
obtain the most reliable and valid estimates of functioning
with these clients, you would use the
a. Vineland Social Maturity Inventory
b. WAIS-III
c. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT)
d. Californing Test of Mental Maturity (CTMM)
A
- A
The Vineland Scales are used to assess levels of adaptive
functioning in mentally retarded individuals. They are useful
as part of hte process of arriving at a diagnosis of Mental
Retardation since such diagnosis requires evidence of
deficits in adaptive functioning.
57
Q
- A clinician uses scatter analysis of the WAIS-III to
diagnose individuals suffering from organic brain damage.
The clinician should be aware that this method is likely to
yield
a. too many false positives
b. too many false negatives
c. too many true negatives
d. too many true positives
A
- A
Individuals with brain damage do tend to show particular
patterns of scores on WAIS-III subtests, but similar patterns
are also shown by some non-brain damaged individuals.
Thus, the strategy described in the question would likely
yield too many false positives.
58
Q
- Research suggests that the most significant contributors
to reading disabilities originating in childhood are
a. visual processing deficiencies
b. auditory processing deficiencies
c. phonological processing deficiencies
d. syntactic knowledge deficiencies
A
- C
Many studies have confirmed that phonological processing
deficiencies are apparent in most children with reading
problems. Visual and auditory processing deficiencies have
been shown to have a relatively small impact on reading
disabilities.
59
Q
- In Schizophrenia, the prognosis is most favorable when
a. the patient has little or no associated mood disturbances
b. the patient is in on-going psychotherapy
c. the disorder has an onset in early life
d. the patient’s family is engaged in coping skills therapy
A
- D
A number of factors are associated with a relatively
favorable prognosis for Schizophrenia. On such factor is
availability of social support. Others include: acute onset,
later age of onset, being female, precipitating events,
presence of associated mood disturbance, good interepisode
functioning, minimal residual symptoms, normal
neurological functioning, and a family history of Mood
Disorder.
60
Q
60. The best behavioral techniques for Specific Phobia would be a. reciprocal inhibition b. flooding c. modeling d. aversion
A
- B
Research suggests that Specific Phobia is most effectively
treated with exposure to the phobic object. Specific
techniques would include flooding and and systematic
desensitization.
61
Q
61. A symptom often noted in severe abusers of amphetamines is a. visual hallucinations b. amotivational syndrome c. increased appetite d. paranoid ideation
A
- D
Typical complications of Amphetamine Dependence include
paranoid ideation, as well as aggressive behavior, anxiety,
depression, and weight loss.
62
Q
- The main disadvantage of abrupt termination of
barbiturate addiction is the:
a. management of the resultant depression and agitation
b. “REM rebound” phenomenon
c. probability of seizures leading to death
d. general physical distress that disposes the patient to
resume his or her drug habit
A
- C
Abrupt termination of barbiturate use can sometimes cause a
grand mal seizure, which can be fatal. Choices A, B, and D
also occur but C is the best answer given that the question
asks for the “main disadvantage”.
63
Q
- During an initial interview with a patient, the patient
reports symptoms including loss of appetite, sleep difficulty,
and spells of sadness and weeping. It would be important to
promptly assess
a. for the use of alcohol
b. for suicide potential
c. sexual behavior
d. level of anxiety
A
- B
Since the patient is reporting symptoms of severe depression,
it is important to promptly assess for the level of suicide risk
and, if necessary, intervene immediately to reduce this risk.
64
Q
- Anaclitic depression would most often occur in
a. an elderly person who recently moved to a senior citizens’
home
b. a middle age man who has been laid off from his job after
12 years
c. a teenaged girl leaving home to go to college
d. an infant whose mother is hospitalized for a lengthy period
of time
A
- D
Anaclitic depression is a syndrome that occurs in infants who
have been deprived of maternal attention between the ages of
6 and 8 months. Symptoms include withdrawal, weepiness,
insomnia, and a general decline in health.
