Diagnostic Assessment Flashcards
1
Q
- As a communications theorist and therapist, Haley deals
with the concepts of the double-bind, setting conditions, and
what else?
a. family blueprint
b. paradoxical interventions
c. i-messages
d. prejudicial scapegoating
A
b.
Jay Haley, a communications theorist, is associated with
strategic family therapy and is well known for his use of
paradoxical interventions (e.g., instructing a patient to
purposefully engage in the symptomatic behavior).
2
Q
- According to psychoanalytic theory, the ego defense
mechanisms fucntion to:
a. keep unacceptable impulses from reaching consciousness.
b. ensure socially appropriate behavior
c. signal the emergence of anxiety
d. reduce conflict between the ego and the superego
A
a.
The function of ego defense mechanisms is to keep
unacceptable impulses from reaching consciousness. Anxiety
results when the defense mechanisms fail to control “psychic
excitation” (i.e., the entry of unconscious impulses into
consciousness).
3
Q
- A recent Latino immigrant to the United States would
probably have the most difficulty adjusting to a
psychotherapist who displays:
a. an eclectic orientation
b. a focus on individualism.
c. an informal personal style.
d. a focus on the client’s level of acculturation
A
b.
As compared to American culture, Latino culture is generally
characterized by a greater emphasis on the immediate
extended family unit and less emphasis on individualism.
4
Q
- Which of the following is least descriptive of the hypnotic
state? It involves:
a. induction of a “trance state” which, in its deepest form,
may be associated with induced visual or auditory
experiences.
b. a heightened state of concentration and increased
receptivity to the suggestions of another person.
c. a loss of control over one’s actions from oneself to the
hypnotist.
d. an ability to recall memories that are not available to the
conscious mind during the non-hypnotic state.
A
c.
People under hypnosis report that they never feel as though
they are not in control of their actions when they are in a
hypnotic trance.
Choices A and B have been used in various contexts as
working definitions of hypnosis.
5
Q
5. Which of the following is the strongest indicator of suicide risk? a. depression b. family history of suicide c. hopelessness d. alcoholism
A
c.
A number of studies has identified hopelessness as the aspect
of depressive symptomatology associated with the greatest
suicide risk.
6
Q
- From the perspective of Gestalt therapy, the term
“introjection” refers to:
a. adopting the values and behaviors of others without fully
assimilating them into the personality structure.
b. directing unacceptable anger and aggression inward.
c. being oriented toward self rather than oriented toward
others.
d. attributing one’s own unacceptable beliefs and impulses to
others.
A
- A
According to the theory that underlies Gestalt therapy,
introjection is a boundary disturbance that involves
assimilating information, beliefs, and values without really
understanding them.
7
Q
7. Which of the following clinical tests was developed on the basis of emperical criterion keying? a. Rorschach b. 16PF c. WAIS-III d. MMPI-2
A
- D
Empirical criterion keying is a method of choosing items for
a test on the basis of the items’ ability to distinguish between
groups. Of the choices listed, only the MMPI-2 was
developed on the basis of empirical criterion keying.
8
Q
- A feminist therapist would:
a. focus on innate, biological differences between men and
women.
b. believe that there are no inherent differences in power
between a psychotherapist and a client.
c. focus on social and political factors that underlie a
woman’s so called psychopathology.
d. argue that only highly trained professionals are capable of
understanding and treating female clients in psychotherapy.
A
- C
Feminist therapy approaches assume that sexism and
oppressive social roles underlie the reported problems of
women who seek therapy.
9
Q
- Which of the following statements regarding
client-therapist ethnic matching is most consistent with the
overall body of research on the issue?
a. Clients who receive therapy from racially and ethnically
similar therapists are likely to show greater progress than
those who have ethnically different therapists.
b. Client-therapist ethnic similarity has not been
demonstrated to have any significant effect on therapy
outcome.
c. The race of the client and therapist are variables that
interact with a number of client and therapist variables in
exerting their effects on therapy outcome.
d. Client-therapist ethnic similarity has been shown to have
an impact on therapy outcome for only African-American
clients
A
- C
Though this is a controversial issue in the literature, the
generally accepted consensus is that ethnic matching per se
is not related to therapy outcome. However, variables such as
therapist sensitivity to cultural variable and the client’s level
of identification with their ethnic groups influence the way in
which ethnic similarity affects outcome.
10
Q
10. Which of the following terms is not associated with Minuchin's structural family therapy? a. enmeshment b. disengagement c. boundaries d. congruence
A
- D
The term congruence is associated with Roger’s
client-centered therapy. It refers to genuineness and
consistency between the therapist’s words and behaviors
11
Q
11. A therapist that focuses on a client's basic needs for power, affiliation, and fun is likely a: a. reality therapist b. Gestalt therapist c. transactional therapist d. person-centered therapist
A
- A
According to the theory underlying reality therapy,
psychological problems are due to an inability to responsibly
and adequately meet one’s basic needs. These needs include
those for survival, belonging, power, fun, and freedom.
12
Q
- According to psychoanalytic theory, a patiente with an
obsessive-compulsive neurosis is likely to strongly rely on
which of the following sets of defenses:
a. reaction formation, isolation of affect, and undoing
b. projection, displacement, and denial
c. somatization, introjection, and reaction formation
d. isolation, denial, and repression
A
- A
Reaction formation involves dealing with unacceptable
impulses by substituting their opposite. The OCD personality
is often overly rigid in matters of morality and ethics.
Isolation of affect involves separation of thoughts from
feelings associated with them. The OCD personality, while
able to describe affectively charged events, prefers to avoid
discussing feelings about them. Undoing involves behaviors
designed to symbolically negate unacceptable thoughts or
actions. OCD often involves ritualistic compulsions in
response to obsessions.
13
Q
13 Unconscious mental processing is called primary process
thinking. This primary process functions according to the:
a. pleasure principle
b. reality principle
c. free association principle
d. transference between client and therapist
A
- A
Freud described the primary process thinking as governed by
the id and functioning according to the pleasure principle.
14
Q
14. Jung believed that people turn from an extroverted process to an introverted one: a. in early adolescence b. toward the end of life c. around age 40 d. depending on the social situation
A
- C
Carl Jung described extroversion as the disposition to find
pleasure in external things. Introversion reflected a turning
inward of the libido. He believed that we turned from the
extroversion of youth to the introversion of adulthood
somewhere near the midpoint of life - around 40.
15
Q
- Adler termed the concept the “masculine protest” to refer
to:
a. a child’s awareness that he is not female
b. the pre-feminist movement
c. Neo-Freudians
d. inferiority complex
A
- D
The masculine protest came from Adler’s idea that every
child experiences feelings of inferiority which supply the
motivation to grow, dominate, and be supportive.
16
Q
16. Harry Stack Sullivan believed that neurotic behavior is often caused by: a. syntaxic modes b. prototaxic modes c. parataxic modes d. Neo-Freudians
A
- C
Harry Stack Sullivan believed that parataxic distortions -
delaing with current acquaintances as if they were significant
persons from early life - caused neuroticism.
He also described syntaxic mode experiences (symbols with
shared meanings) and prototaxic mode experiences (involve
discrete unconnected momentary states)
17
Q
- Existential psychotherapy focuses on:
a. the individual and his community
b. the individual and the ultimate concerns of existence
c. the existence of our species
d. congruence
A
- B
Existential psychotherapy holds that personality is an
outgrowth of the struggle between the individual and
ultimate concerns of existence, such as death, isolation,
meaninglessness, and the ultimate responsibility for our own
lives.
18
Q
- Fritz Perl’s Gestalt therapy and theory of personality
emphasizes:
a. style of life
b. boundary disturbances
c. an understanding of maladaptive interactions
d. psychoanalysis
A
- B
Fritz Perl’s theory of personality viewed it as consistency of
the self and the self-image. A person’s interaction with the
environment determines which part of the personality exerts
the most control. A “boundary disturbance” such as
introjection, deflection, confluence, results in a person who
is less controlled by the self and more controlled by the
self-image.
19
Q
19. A feminist therapist would often have as a primary goal for her clients: a. an understanding of sexism b. reducing crossed transactions c. empowerment d. group therapy
A
- C
The emphasis of feminist therapy is to show clients
alternative social roles and options. One of the primary goals
is empowerment.
20
Q
- The primary difference between object relations family
therapy, and most system based models is:
a. the development of a supportive therapeutic environment.
b. active listening
c. communication is needed for effective family change.
d. insight is a core requirement for family change.
A
- D
A core tenet of object relations family therapy is that insight
is a care requirement for family change. Another major tenet
of this form of therapy is that problems in current
relationships between family members can be interpretted in
terms of transferences resulting from the early mother-child
relationship.
21
Q
- According to Yalom, if a therapist is criticized by the
group for not disclosing personal information, the therapist
should:
a. interpret the behavior as resistance
b. consider it a normal stage in the development of the group
and ignore it
c. ask the group more questions about why they feel that way
d. exhibit more control
A
- C
This question is really asking about transference. Answer B
is only partially correct. Transference is a normal stage in
group development; however, it should not be ignored.
Yalom believes that transference can be beneficial if it is
managed effectively. The only answer that allows for further
investigation and management of transference is C.
22
Q
- A disadvantage of concurrent participation in individual
and group therapy is that:
a. the patient is likely to rely on group therapy rather than
individual therapy for support.
b. the patient may save all of his personal self-disclosures for
individual therapy, leaving nothing for the group.
c. the patient may bring material from the group into
individual therapy.
d. it is not useful for patients with a Personality Disorder
(PD).
A
- B
According to Yalom, a disadvantage of concurrent
participation in individual and group therapy is that the
patient may be more inclined to self-disclosure in individual
therapy, where he or she receives more individual attention.
As a consequence, self-disclosure in group therapy is
reduced or lost.
23
Q
- The MMPI-2, the most widely used clinical personality
test, contains the following clinical scales:
a. Schizophreniform (SF), Gender Identity (GI), Narcissism
(N), Social Extroverson (SE)
b. Bipolar I (Bi), Personality Disorder (PD), Axis I (A1),
Axis II (A2)
c. Hypochondriasis (HS), Hysteria (HY), Paranoia (Pa),
Hypomania (Ma)
d. Location, Determinants, Content, Populars
A
- C
Choice C are clinical scales from the MMPI-2. Choice D is a
list of different scoring categories from Exner’s
Comprehensive Scoring System for the Rorschach. Choices
A and B are made up.
24
Q
24. Most of the variance in treatment outcome is accounted for by: a. the working alliance b. the specific treatment intervention c. the fee d. the initial impression
A
- A
The working alliance accounts for most of the variance in
treatment outcome and it has been found to be more
important than the specific treatment intervention.
25
Q
25. Remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation are descriptions of: a. crisis intervention b. therapy phase outcomes c. stages in alcohol treatment d. stages of life
A
- B
The three Rs describe the three phases of therapy outcome
described by Howard’s research that found a relationship
between the number of therapy sessions and therapy
outcome.
According to Howard’s research: Remoralization is the first
phase encompassing the first few sessions. Remediation is
the second phase that requires symptomatic relief and
requires about 16 sessions. Rehabilitation is the third phase
and involves a gradual improvement in various aspects of
functioning.
26
Q
- The emic-etic distinction in the study of a culture
includes the etic approach of looking at cultures from the
outside using universally accepted means of investigation
and the emic approach which involves:
a. analyzing the culture from the researcher’s perspective
b. comparing it to other cultures.
c. studying a culture from the inside and seeing it as its own
members do
d. ego-manic idiosyncratic consultation.
A
- C
The emic approach involves studying the culture from the
inside, and attempting to see it as its own members do.
27
Q
- A culturally encapsulated therapist:
a. is aware of his/her own cultural biases
b. defines the world in terms of his own cultural beliefs.
c. notices and works with cultural variations among clients.
d. is able to work effectively with members of different
cultural groups.
A
- B
A culturally encapsulated therapist defines the world in
terms of this/her own cutltural beliefs, according to Wrenn.
Choices A, C, and D are descriptions of a culturally
competent counselor according to Sue.
28
Q
28. Which age range has seen the greatest increase in suicide rates in recent years? a. under 15 b. 15-24 c. 40-55 d. 65-80
A
- B
The question focuses specifically on which age group is
showing the greatest increase in suicide rate, which is the
15-24 age group.
29
Q
- You develop a program for preschool children who are at
risk for learning disabilities. This is an example of:
a. primary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. tertiary prevention
d. advocacy consultation
A
- A
Primary prevention is administered before the onset of a
problem and is designed to prevent the development of the
problem.
30
Q
- When they seek psychotherapy, many physically abused
women report that they do not want to leave their husbands.
A common reason for this is that:
a. the woman feels she is physically strong enough to defend
herself.
b. the woman and her husband are in a “honeymoon” stage in
which the husband apologizes and promises to change.
c. the woman has an adequate support system to help her in
times of crisis
d. the woman has a self-defeating personality disorder
A
- B
According to Lenore Walker’s three stage model of domestic
violence, a battering incident usually culminates in a
“honeymoon” phase, in which the batterer is remorseful,
apologetic, and promises never to batter again. Interventions
for spouse abuse most commonly occur in this honeymoon
phase, shortly after the abuse has occurred
31
Q
- The difference between peroperational and concrete
operational thought is that:
a. the preoperational child is able to intuit, whereas the
concrete operational child is not
b. the concrete operational child has mastered conservation
of the object, whereas the preoperational child has not
c. the concrete operational child is able to coordinate his
thinking into systems he can direct and control, whereas the
preoperational child is not.
d. the concrete operational child is not capable of
representation, whereas the preoperational child is.
A
- B
Piaget divided cognitive development into four stages:
sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and
formal operational. In the preoperational stage, the child is
unable to conserve, or recognize that a change in an objects
appearance does not mean that the object’s fundamental
properties have changed.
32
Q
- A 3-year-old child sees a squirrel “fly” from one tree to
another and classifies it as a bird. After getting a closer look
at the squirrel, he sees that it can only “fly” short distances
and that it has fur instead of feathers. He then reclassifies it
as a “flying animal other than a bird”. According to Piaget,
the child has engaged in what two processes, respectively?
A
- A
Assimilation involves incorporating new information from
the environment into existing cognitive schemas.
Accommodation, by contrast, involves modifying a cognitive
scheam to be consistent with new environmental
information.
33
Q
33. According to Erikson, the psychosocial conflict experienced by adolescents is: a. autonomy vs. shame b. ego identity vs. role confusion c. intimacy vs. isolation d. rebellion vs. conformity
A
- B
Erikson’s theory of development describes the “Eight Stages
of Man” or the psychosocial crises that are associated with
development throughout the life span. According to this
theory, adolescents face the crisis of ego identity vs. role
confusion.
34
Q
- Kohlberg’s theory of moral development suggests all of
the following except the:
a. necessity of progressing through the stages of moral
development in a set sequence.
b. importance of the development of cognitive skill as a basis
for changes in the quality of one’s moral judgment.
c. direction of development as moving from a more
hedonistic stance to a reliance on specific principles of
conscience
d. necessity of progressing through the stages as opposed to
remaining fixed at an early stage of development
A
- D
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development holds that our
beliefs about what is right and what is wrong progress
through a predictable sequence that is a function of our
cognitive development. Many individuals never progress to
the final stage of development and remain fixed at an earlier
stage.
35
Q
- A behavior that does not develop unless certain
environmental events are present during a limited period of
time illustrates the notion of:
a. sensitive periods
b. critical periods
c. canalization
d. maturation
A
- B
A critical period is a limited time period during which an
organism is biologically prepared to acquire certain
behaviors but requires the support of an appropriately
stimulating environment.
36
Q
- Phenotype refers to:
a. genetically determined characteristics
b. environmentally determined characteristics
c. observable and measureable characteristics
d. characteristics with an unknown origin
A
- C
Phenotype refers to characteristics that are observable and
measureable and that often reflect a combination of genetic
and environmental influences.
37
Q
- As defined by Vygotsky, the zone of proximal
development:
a. refers to the people and resources in the learner’s
immediate environment
b. refers to the child’s biologically-determined range of
reactions
c. is the gap between what a child can do and what he or she
wants to do
d. is the gap between what a child can currently do and what
he or she can do with assistance.
A
- D
Vygotsky believed teaching is most effective when it occurs
within the child’s zone of proximal development, the gap
between what a child can currently do and what the child can
do with assistance from an adult or more competent peer.
38
Q
- Stranger anxiety is most intense when an infant is:
a. 6-7 months
b. 10-11 months
c. 17-18 months
d. 22-24 months
A
- C
Strange anxiety is first evident when the infant is between
8-10 months of age. The intensity of stranger anxiety is at its
maximum when the infant is about 18 months of age.
39
Q
39. Delinquent adolescents are most likely to have parents who are: a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. permissive d. uninvolved
A
- D
The characteristics of the uninvolved parents (e.g., weak
supervision, hostility or indifference) have been linked to
delinquency in adolescence.
40
Q
- The goodness of fit model developed by Thomas and
Chess proposes that healthy development requires a match
between:
a. temperament and environment
b. thoughts, feelings, and actions
c. attachment and parents’ responsibility
d. cognitive abilities and environmental demands
A
- A
Knowning that Thomas and Chess are most associated with
research on temperament would have guided you to the right
answer.
41
Q
41. Which of the following aspects of memory shows the most decline with age? a. sensory memory b. primary memory c. secondary memory d. implicit memory
A
- C
One of the most consistent findings of the research in this
area is that recent long-term (i.e., secondary memory) is
most adversely affected by normal aging.
42
Q
- Patterson and colleagues would most likely agree that
highly aggressive children:
a. are born that way
b. exhibit a high incidence of cognitive distortions
c. have unfulfilled needs
d. have highly aggressive parents
A
- D
Patterson has focused on family factors that contribute to
aggressiveness in children, and he has found that the
development of aggression was due largely to imitation of
parent’s aggressive behaviors and the parent’s reinforcement
of aggressive behavior by the the child.
43
Q
- Anxiety about death is greatest for individuals aged:
a. 20-30
b. 30-40
c. 40-50
d. 50-60
A
- C
For most people, anxiety about death is strongest during the
midlife years.
44
Q
- A school psychologist is interested in studying the
interrelationships between a child’s home and school
environments. From the perspective of Brofenbrenner’s
ecological model, the psychologist is interested in the:
a. mesosystem
b. exosystem
c. macrosystem
d. endosystem
A
- A
As defined by Bronfenbrenner, the mesosystem refers to the
interconnections between different aspects of the
microsystem - the connection between the family and the
school.
45
Q
- A 15-year-old gets her haircut and feels that the
hairdresser trimmed her bangs much too short. She tells her
mother that she doesn’t want to return to school until her hair
grows out because she is sure that everyone will make fun of
her until then. This is an example of:
a. identity moratorium
b. adolescent centration
c. personal fable
d. imaginary audience
A
- D
According to Elkind, one manifestation of adolescent
egocentrism is the belief that one is always “on stage”. This
is referred to as the imaginary audience
46
Q
- Zajonc’s “confluence model” would support the finding
that:
a. first-born children tend to have greater intellectual ability
than later-born.
b. later-born children tend to have greater intellectual ability
than early-born.
c. the last child born is coddled
d. the larger the family, the better the children get along
A
- A
Zajonc proposed a confluence model to support a number of
studies that suggest that first born children tend to have
greater intellectual abilities than later born children. Zajonc
maintains that as the number of children in a family
increases, the amount of intellectual stimulation and other
important family resources available to each individual
declines.
47
Q
- The first words infants express are usually:
a. Ninja turtles
b. action words
c. verbs
d. nouns
A
- D
Children tend to express names of objects of significance to
them, like Da-Da, Ba-ba, MaMa, etc. So nouns is the best
answer.
48
Q
- Which of the following provides the best predictor of
teenage delinquency?
a. low SES
b. single-parent household
c. low self-esteem
d. poor supervision and erratic discipline
A
- D
Research appears to indicate that poor adult supervision and
erratic discipline are among the most critical factors
associated with teenage delinquency.
49
Q
49. During the first few days following birth, smiling by an infant is associated with: a. human voices b. REM sleep c. human smiling d. wet diapers
A
- B
During the first few days following birth, smiling by an
infant is associated with REM sleep. By the second week,
the infant will begin to smile while awake.
50
Q
- Comparing children from intact families to children from
divorced families, the National Survey of Children has found
that as they reach early adulthood:
a. children from divorced families are more likely to
demonstrate academic and emotional problems
b. children from intact families are more likely to
demonstrate academic problems, but emotionally are not
different
c. children from intact families are more likely to
demonstrate academic and emotional problems
d. children from intact families and divorced families are
indistinguishable
A
- A
Although the evidence is not overwhelming, the evidence
suggests that divorce can produce negative consequences by
the time the child reaches early adulthood.
51
Q
- Which of the following is least characteristic of infants
who were exposed to cocaine in utero?
a. crawl, stand, and walk early
b. low birthweight
c. very irritable
d. insensitive to visual, auditory, and tactile stimulation
A
- D
Exposure to cocaine during prenatal development often leads
to oversensitivity, rather than undersensitivity, to sensory
stimulation. The other responses are characteristic of many
of these infants who are exposed to cocaine during early
development.
52
Q
- Organic brain disease would be suggested on the
WAIS-III if, on the subtests (compared to the subject’s
mean),
a. Information and Vocabulary scores were low
b. Digit Span and Digit Symbol-Coding scores were very
low
c. Similarities and Vocabulary were high
d. Arithmetic was down, while Block Design was high
A
- B
The subtests of the WAIS-III vary in terms of their
sensitivity to brain impairment. The Digit Span and Digit
Symbol-Coding subtests are among the most sensitive.
Scores on these subtests are most likely to be adversely
affected by organic dysfunction.
53
Q
- For a group of 50 gifted children, scores on the
WISC-III, as compared to the Stanford-Binet, would tend to
be
a. lower
b. the same
c. higher
d. unpredictably higher or lower
A
- A
The Stanford Binet is a more sensitive measure of
intelligence than the WISC-III at the outer extremes (high or
low) of intelligence. Thus, gifted children would likely score
higher on the SB than on the WISC-III, while profoundly
retarded individuals would likely score lower on the SB.
54
Q
- Administering only the verbal subtests of the WISC-III
as a means of assessing intelligence would be most
appropriate for:
a. a child from a rural Appalachian community
b. a recent immigrant to this country
c. a child from an affluent suburban community
d. a high school dropout
A
- C
The WISC-III verbal subtests are influenced more by a
variety of extraneous variables than are the performance
subtests. Of the choices listed, the verbal subtest scores of a
child from the the Burbs are least likely to be adversely
affected by extraneous variables.
55
Q
- Scores on which of the following WAIS-III subtests
would show the least reduction as a result of brain injury?
a. Block Design
b. Similarities
c. Comprehension
d. Information
A
- D
Scores on the Information and Vocabulary subtests of the
WAIS-III are usually relatively unaffected by brain
impairment. For this reason, the Information and Vocabulary
subtests are used as measures of premorbid functioning in
brain impaired individuals.
56
Q
- You are hired by a sheltered workshop program to do
assessments of moderately to severely retarded adults. To
obtain the most reliable and valid estimates of functioning
with these clients, you would use the
a. Vineland Social Maturity Inventory
b. WAIS-III
c. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT)
d. Californing Test of Mental Maturity (CTMM)
A
- A
The Vineland Scales are used to assess levels of adaptive
functioning in mentally retarded individuals. They are useful
as part of hte process of arriving at a diagnosis of Mental
Retardation since such diagnosis requires evidence of
deficits in adaptive functioning.
57
Q
- A clinician uses scatter analysis of the WAIS-III to
diagnose individuals suffering from organic brain damage.
The clinician should be aware that this method is likely to
yield
a. too many false positives
b. too many false negatives
c. too many true negatives
d. too many true positives
A
- A
Individuals with brain damage do tend to show particular
patterns of scores on WAIS-III subtests, but similar patterns
are also shown by some non-brain damaged individuals.
Thus, the strategy described in the question would likely
yield too many false positives.
58
Q
- Research suggests that the most significant contributors
to reading disabilities originating in childhood are
a. visual processing deficiencies
b. auditory processing deficiencies
c. phonological processing deficiencies
d. syntactic knowledge deficiencies
A
- C
Many studies have confirmed that phonological processing
deficiencies are apparent in most children with reading
problems. Visual and auditory processing deficiencies have
been shown to have a relatively small impact on reading
disabilities.
59
Q
- In Schizophrenia, the prognosis is most favorable when
a. the patient has little or no associated mood disturbances
b. the patient is in on-going psychotherapy
c. the disorder has an onset in early life
d. the patient’s family is engaged in coping skills therapy
A
- D
A number of factors are associated with a relatively
favorable prognosis for Schizophrenia. On such factor is
availability of social support. Others include: acute onset,
later age of onset, being female, precipitating events,
presence of associated mood disturbance, good interepisode
functioning, minimal residual symptoms, normal
neurological functioning, and a family history of Mood
Disorder.
60
Q
60. The best behavioral techniques for Specific Phobia would be a. reciprocal inhibition b. flooding c. modeling d. aversion
A
- B
Research suggests that Specific Phobia is most effectively
treated with exposure to the phobic object. Specific
techniques would include flooding and and systematic
desensitization.
61
Q
61. A symptom often noted in severe abusers of amphetamines is a. visual hallucinations b. amotivational syndrome c. increased appetite d. paranoid ideation
A
- D
Typical complications of Amphetamine Dependence include
paranoid ideation, as well as aggressive behavior, anxiety,
depression, and weight loss.
62
Q
- The main disadvantage of abrupt termination of
barbiturate addiction is the:
a. management of the resultant depression and agitation
b. “REM rebound” phenomenon
c. probability of seizures leading to death
d. general physical distress that disposes the patient to
resume his or her drug habit
A
- C
Abrupt termination of barbiturate use can sometimes cause a
grand mal seizure, which can be fatal. Choices A, B, and D
also occur but C is the best answer given that the question
asks for the “main disadvantage”.
63
Q
- During an initial interview with a patient, the patient
reports symptoms including loss of appetite, sleep difficulty,
and spells of sadness and weeping. It would be important to
promptly assess
a. for the use of alcohol
b. for suicide potential
c. sexual behavior
d. level of anxiety
A
- B
Since the patient is reporting symptoms of severe depression,
it is important to promptly assess for the level of suicide risk
and, if necessary, intervene immediately to reduce this risk.
64
Q
- Anaclitic depression would most often occur in
a. an elderly person who recently moved to a senior citizens’
home
b. a middle age man who has been laid off from his job after
12 years
c. a teenaged girl leaving home to go to college
d. an infant whose mother is hospitalized for a lengthy period
of time
A
- D
Anaclitic depression is a syndrome that occurs in infants who
have been deprived of maternal attention between the ages of
6 and 8 months. Symptoms include withdrawal, weepiness,
insomnia, and a general decline in health.
65
Q
- In dealing with a highly delusional patient, the most
inappropriate strategy would be:
a. an attempt to dispel the patient’s delusions through
tenacious logical argumentation
b. gently guide the discussion away from the delusional ideas
raised by the patient.
c. explore the patient’s delusions without expressing personal
belief or disbelief.
d. reflect the patient’s feelings without being interpretative.
A
- A
Note that you were asked for the most inappropriate
intervention. When dealing with a delusional person, it is
important to behave respectfully and validate the person’s
feelings and correct perceptions, without reinforcing or
disputing the delusional system. Attempts to dispel the
patient’s delusions via logic and argumentation will likely
just prevent the development of trust and rapport.
66
Q
- Which of the following symptoms is the most telling sign
that a person who drinks heavily should receive a DSM-IV
diagnosis of Substance Dependence?
a. morning drinking
b. three arrests for drunk driving
c. tolerance and withdrawal
d. drinking more than a bottle of liquor a day
A
- C
Tolerance and withdrawal are among the diagnostic criteria
for Substance Dependence. The other signs may occur in
individuals with this diagnosis, but are not actual diagnostic
criteria.
67
Q
- You are seeing a client, a 38-year-old man, for the first
time. Based on his symptoms, you determine that he should
receive a diagnosis of Panic Disorder. Finding out which of
the following would most likely lead you to change your
opinion?
a. He injected heroin that day.
b. He smoked a pack of cigarettes that day.
c. He drank 15 cups of coffee that day.
d. He has a family history of Major Depressive Disorder.
A
- C
Central nervous stimulants, such as caffeine, the diagnosis
is Caffeine-Induced Anxiety Disorder, not panic disorder.
68
Q
- Which type of Schizophrenia would you diagnose in a
patient who displayed inappropriate affect, incoherence, and
fragmented, non-systematized delusions?
a. Disorganized
b. Residual
c. Paranoid
d. Catatonic
A
- A
The symptoms of Schizophrenia, Disorganized Type include
disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, and flat or
inappropriate affect. When delusions are present, they are
not systematized and not related to a single theme.
69
Q
- In making a differential diagnosis between
Schizoaffective Disorder and Bipolar I Disorder, Most
Recent Episode Manic, what information would lead you to
diagnose the former over the latter?
a. The patient experienced a full blown manic episode
b. The patient’s psychotic symptoms have lasted for less than
two weeks.
c. The patient has not responded to antipsychotic medication
d. The patient has had a three week episode of psychotic
symptoms that occurred in the absence of manic symptoms
A
- D
Schizoaffective Disorder involves both prominent psychotic
symptoms and prominent mood symptoms. Bipolar I
Disorder involves mood symptoms and can also include
psychotic features. One diagnostic criterion of
Schizoaffective Disorder is the presence of a two week or
longer period where there are prominent psychotic symptoms
in the absence of prominent mood symptoms. Bipolar I does
not include a period of time in which psychotic, but not
mood, symptoms are present.
70
Q
- In order for a diagnosis of Mental Retardation to be made
all of the following must be met, except:
a. significantly subaverage intellectual functioning.
b. deficits in at least two areas of adaptive functioning.
c. onset before age 18.
d. IQ score below 50, as measured by a test of intellectual
functioning.
A
- D
The criteria for the diagnosis of mental retardation include
significant subaverage intellectual functioning (IQ of 70 or
less), concurrent deficits in at least two areas of adaptive
functioning, and onset before age 18.
71
Q
- Autism is seen in about:
a. 5 cases out of 100
b. 2-5 cases out of 1000
c. 3 cases out of 500
d. 2-5 cases out of 10,000
A
- D
Autism is very rare and is seen in about 2-5 cases out of
10,000. It is also 4-5 times more common in males than
females.
72
Q
- All of the following are learning disorders except:
a. Disorder of Written Expression
b. Asperger’s Disorder
c. Reading Disorder
d. Mathematics Disorder
A
- B
Asperger’s Disorder is similar to Autism except that there is
no significant delay in language. For a diagnosis of any of
the learning disorders to be made, the learning disorder must
be differentiated from a lack of opportunity, poor teaching,
cultural factors, Mental Retardation, PDD, or sensory deficit.
73
Q
- The onset of delirium is
a. slow and unremitting
b. slow but patchy in effect
c. relatively rapid with a duration of several months
d. relatively rapid with a duration of one month or less
A
- D
The onset of delirium is relatively rapid and the duration is
usually brief, rarely for more than a month. If the state last
for longer than a month, the diagnosis would probably be
changed to something reflecting a more stable disorder, such
as Dementia.
74
Q
- An elderly psychologist displays a significantly below
average IQ score, impaired memory, and no awareness of his
impairment. He presents as conscious and alert. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Alzheimer’s Disease
b. Delirium
c. Pseudodementia
d. Post-traumatic exam disorder
A
- A
Alzheimer’s Disease (or Dementia) involves multifaceted
loss of intellectual abilities, such as memory, judgment, and
abstract thought. The fact that the psychologist is not aware
of his deficits suggests the diagnosis is Dementia rather than
pseudodementia, and the fact that he is alert helps rule out
delirium
75
Q
- Research on smokers who are trying to quit has found
that
a. cognitive restructuring is the most effective treatment
b. flooding is the most effective treatment
c. most people quit on their own
d. relaxation training is the most effective treatment
A
- C
Research on cigarette smoking has found that most people
stop smoking on their own or with minimal professional
help. Factors most important to smoking cessation are:
strong desire to quit, awareness of negative health
consequences, and social support
76
Q
76. Psychomotor disturbance such as mutism, rigidity, and motoric immobility is characteristic of: a. Catatonic Schizophrenia b. Paranoid Schizophrenia c. Disorganized Schizophrenia d. Residual type Schizophrenia
A
- A
Mutism, rigidity, and motoric immobility are characteristics
of catatonia. Residual type includes individuals who have
had at least one schizophrenic episode and continue to
display negative signs of the illness (flat affect, alogia,
avolition).
77
Q
77. In order to diagnose a Brief Psychotic Disorder, symptoms should not last a. more than one day b. more than one week c. more than one month d. more than six months
A
- C
To diagnose Brief Psychotic Disorder, one would expect at
least one psychotic symptom, a very sudden onset, and a
duration of several hours to one month - but not to exceed
one month.
78
Q
78. In terms of neurological factors, ADHD has been linked to abnormalities in the a. prefrontal cortex b. temporal cortex c. prestriate cortex d. striate cortex
A
- A
ADHD has been linked to abnormalities in the prefrontal
cortex based on research that has shown diminished glucose
metabolism and decreased blood flow in the prefrontal
regions and pathways connecting these regions to the
caudate nucleus.
79
Q
- A diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder, Most Recent Episode
Manic, requires that the patient:
a. is currently or most recently in the course of a manic
episode.
b. is currently or most recently in the course of a manic or
mixed episode and has a history of depressive episodes.
c. is currently or most recently in a manic episode and has a
history of at least mildly depressed mood.
d. is currently or most recently in an episode characterized
by rapid alternation between manic and depressive episodes.
A
- A
The diagnosis of Bipolar, Most Recent Episode Manic, is
assigned to individuals who currently or recently have
experienced a manic episode, with a history of at least one of
either Depressive Episodes, Manic Episodes, or Mixed
Episodes. In other words, a history of depressive episodes
may be present but is not necessary for the diagnosis.
80
Q
- A 10-year-old boy has no friends, yells at and annoys his
parents, blames others for things he has done, and loses his
temper and swears frequently. The most likely diagnosis for
this boy would be
a. oppositional defiant disorder
b. conduct disorder
c. attention deficit disorder
d. pervasive developmental disorder
A
- A
The child in this question is hostile and negative, but there is
no evidence that he engages in the serious antisocial
behavior that occurs in conduct disorder
81
Q
- According to Salvador Minuchin, which of the following
is most likely to be present in a family in which a teenage
daughter is suffering from anorexia nervosa?
a. Adaptive responses to environmental input into the family
system.
b. Open expression of heated conflict.
c. Over-protectiveness and limited individual autonomy.
d. Rigid boundaries between family members.
A
- C
Minuchin believes that psychosomatic families (i.e., those
families where asthma, diabetes, or anorexia results in
hospitalization of a child) are more likely to be characterized
by enmeshed, or diffuse, highly permeable boundaries.
Family members have less autonomy and would be more
protective of each other.
82
Q
- Certain obsessive and compulsive behaviors have been
successfully treated with a behavioral approach. The most
success has come from treatment which entailed:
a. systematic desensitization only.
b. systematic desensitization with mild aversion.
c. mild aversion combined with positive reinforcement.
d. deliberate exposure with response prevention.
A
- D
Research suggests the best behavioral treatment for
obsessive-compulsive disorder is deliberate exposure with
response prevention - especially for the compulsive aspect of
the disorder.
83
Q
- A research psychologist following the principle of
informed consent informs subjects that due to the sensitive
nature of the study, he wants them to participate only if they
feel they can remain in the study to its completion. He asks
that, by the end of the first experimental session, they
commit themselves to continuing to completion. This
practice, according to current standards of research practice,
is
a. ethical
b. unethical
c. questionable, but not unethical
d. not covered in the Ethical Principles
A
- B
According to the Ethical Standards, researchers are required
to permit subjects to withdraw from a study at anytime.
Moreover, the research must inform the subjects of their
right to withdraw at anytime at the outset of the study.
84
Q
- If you, as an independent psychologist, learn during the
first interview that the client is currently receiving services
from another professional, your most ethical response would
be
a. consult with the other professional before scheduling any
further appointments
b. inform the client that you cannot offer your services
without first informing the other professional
c. recognize that, as the consumer, this client has the right to
use professional services in whatever way he or she pleases.
d. discuss the issues raised with the client so as to minimize
any confusion.
A
- D
When a client is already being served by another mental
health professional, the psychologist must consider relevant
issues and the potential client’s welfare.
85
Q
- The Ethics Committee will review complaints from
a. the general public only
b. both APA members and non-members
c. APA members only
d. licensed professionals in the mental health profession
A
- B
The Ethics Committee is responsible for adjudicating ethical
complaints against members. Its primary concern is
protecting the public against harmful acts by psychologists.
Complaints can be made by APA members and
non-members.
86
Q
- According to the General Guidelines for Psychological
Services, doctoral level psychologists wishing to qualify
themselves for a change in specialty
a. may be considered competent in the new area if they take
an internship or acquire experience in a relevant practicum
setting.
b. must meet the same requirements with respect to subject
matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral training
in the new specialty
c. should obtain appropriate professional supervision in their
new service specialty.
d. should receive a new Ph.D. in that specialty.
A
- B
Though a second Ph.D. is not necessary, complete training
(including relevant course work and practicum or internship
experience) in the new specialty area is required.
87
Q
- The Ethics Committee can act “sua sponte” less than one
year after it is discovered that any of the following has
become final except:
a. a misdemeanor conviction.
b. a felony conviction.
c. a finding of malpractice.
d. de-licensure.
A
- A
The Ethics Committee will not act on anonymous
complaints, but will act “sua sponte” (on its own) without a
complaint, less than one year after it is discovered that any of
the following has become final: a felony conviction, a
finding of malpractice, expulsion or suspension from a state
association for unethical conduct or delicensure by a state
board.
88
Q
- The Preamble and General Principles are
a. enforceable rules for conduct
b. guidelines for the public
c. applicable to both the psychologist’s personal and
professional life.
d. aspirational goals.
A
- D
The Preamble and General Principles are aspirational goals
to guide psychologists toward the highest ideals of
psychology.
89
Q
- According to the Ethical Principles, bartering as a
method of payment for psychological services is
a. ethical if no exploitation is involved and it is not clinically
contraindicated
b. ethical if the therapist barters for goods of known value, as
opposed to services
c. unethical under any circumstances
d. ethical only at the beginning of treatment
A
- A
Choice A is a direct quote from the APA’s Ethical Standards.
90
Q
- For 9 months now, your long term client has made no
significant progress in therapy, even after you’ve revised the
treatment goals several times. You should probably
a. gently state your perception of the situation and encourage
the client’s response
b. seek supervision
c. interpret your formulation for the present resistance
d. seek an appropriate referral for the client.
A
- D
According to APA Ethical Standards, psychologists
terminate professional relationships when it becomes
reasonable clear that the patient or client no longer needs the
service, is not benefitting, or is being harmed by continuing
service.
91
Q
- The purpose of the state licensing board is to
a. protect the public
b. set minimum standards of practice.
c. oversee the profession.
d. educate the public
A
- A
The primary purpose of state licensing boards is to protect
the public.
92
Q
- The General Principle of Competence in APA’s Ethical
Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct includes
discussion of
a. a psychologists recognizing the boundaries of his expertise
b. promoting integrity
c. consulting with colleagues in order avoid unethical
conduct
d. a psychologist seeking to contribute to the welfare of those
with whom they interact professionally
A
- A
The Principle of Competence includes recognizing the
boundaries of one’s expertise.
93
Q
- The private conduct of a psychologist
a. is his/her private business
b. is also subject to the Ethics Code
c. is private, except when it reduces the public’s trust
d. is only of concern if the psychologist has a private
practice.
A
- C
General Principle C states that a psychologist’s personal
conduct is a private matter EXCEPT as it may compromise
his/her professional responsibilities or reduce the public’s
trust in psychologists.
94
Q
- A father brings his son to a psychologist to be evaluated
as recommended by the boy’s school. In the course of the
evaluation, the psychologist discovers that the father is not
the custodial parent. The psychologist should
a. continue with the evaluation, but refuse to release the
results until a written consent is obtained from the custodial
parent.
b. stop the evaluation until a written consent is obtained from
the custodial parent
c. continue with the evaluation, but mail the results to the
custodial parent only
d. obtain consent from the father and s
A
- B
The non-custodial parent has no rights (or limited ones) in
dealing with psychologists. Therefore, it is most appropriate
not to deal with the father at this time, and wait until you
obtain permission from the custodial parent before
proceeding with the evaluation.
95
Q
- A consulting psychologist prints testimonials from
former clients in a brochure advertising her services to
corporations. According to the latest revisions of the Ethical
Principles, this is:
a. ethical and legal
b. unethical and illegal
c. unethical, unless the testimonials were not solicited.
d. unethical, but not illegal
A
- C
Ethical standards prohibit solicitation of testimonials from
current clients or persons who are “vulnerable to undue
influence” which likely applies to former clients. So use of
testimonials would not be ethical unless they were
unsolicited.
96
Q
- A marriage, family, and child counselor is about to
receive a PhD in clinical psychology and meets his own
state’s requirements for taking the psychology licensing
exam. His business card includes information about his
hours, his phone number, and the words “PhD Candidate”.
Which of the following is always true about the situation?
He is
a. engaging in unethical conduct, because the term “PhD
Candidate” could be misleading
b. in violation of ethical and legal standards
c. engaging in unethical conduct, because such a person
should not be distributing business cards.
d. not engaging in unethical conduct, because all of the
information on the business card is truthful
A
- A
Psychologist are not permitted to make public statements
that are false, fraudulent, or misleading. Even if a statement
is true, it can be misleading.
97
Q
- The phrase “holder of privilege”
a. is a legal term signifying that the client (or legal guardian
thereof) in a psychotherapeutic relationship has the right,
though not absolute, to protect his privacy.
b. means that both the therapist and client jointly decide on
what information discussed during therapy will be divulged
in a court of law.
c. is intended to protect the therapy client by restricting
information about the therapeutic relationship that can be
divulged in a court of law to whatever the therapist feels is in
the client’s best interest.
d. has exactly the same meaning as “confidentiality” as it
applies to the psychotherapeutic relationship.
A
- A
The term “privilege” refers to a person’s right to prevent
confidential information from being revealed in a legal
proceeding. An adult client is the holder of privilege; this
means it is the client’s prerogative to claim or waive the
privilege.
98
Q
- A clinical psychologist announces his services by
advertising his name, degree, fee, and APA membership in a
boxed section of a local newspaper. According to recent
changes in APAs Ethical Principles, this action is:
a. permissible
b. illegal
c. unethical
d. unprofessional and illegal
A
- A
There is nothing in this ad that appears to be false,
fraudulent, misleading, deceptive, or unethical in any way.
99
Q
- As a clinical psychologist in private practice, you have
been asked by a single father to perform a standardized test
battery and to forward the report to the local school
psychologist. You do so, noting the child’s unusual responses
and suggesting hypotheses that need further follow-up. The
father now demands a copy of the report. You should:
a. send him a summary of the report that explains the
findings in clearly stated language.
b. tell the father that you have performed your agreed
obligation and owe him nothing further.
c. offer to discuss the reasons why it would be inappropriate
for him to have access to the results.
d. refer him to the school psychologist who will have
integrated your report with additional information of his
own.
A
- A
APA guidelines require that assessment results be provided
to the person assessed or legally authorized persons in
language that is “reasonably understandable”.
100
Q
- You are seeing a teenager in therapy. The guidance
counselor from the teenager’s school calls you requesting
advice on how to deal with a recent incident at school in
which your client was involved. Your best course of action is
to:
a. politely inform the counselor you cannot discuss any client
until written permission from the client and the client’s
parents have been obtained.
b. ask the counselor to describe the incident at school, and
then offer some general suggestions for dealing with the
problem.
c. provide some very limited information about your client,
only in the areas specifically relevant to the school incident,
to help the counselor help your client.
d. offer to come over to the school as soon as possible to talk
over the incident with your client and pertinent school
personnel.
A
- A
Permission from the client’s parents would be required
before you could speak to the school counselor.
101
Q
- Assume you are in private practice seeing a client
whose fees to you are reimbursed by an insurance company.
The insurance company contacts you for information about
the client and the client has signed a release of
confidentiality. Your most appropriate action is to:
a. give the insurance company whatever information it is
seeking since you have a signed release.
b. withhold all information because even though the client
signed a release, he had to sign it in order to receive
reimbursement, and his signature under those circumstances
is not binding.
c. carefully inquire what information the insurance company
is seeking and for what purpose and give it only what is
necessary.
d. explain to the insurance company that you can supply it
with only the diagnosis and treatment data.
A
- C
In communications with third parties, psychologists include
only information that is “germane to the purpose for which
the communication is made”. You would limit the
information released to that which is relevant to the purpose
at hand.
102
Q
- You receive a subpoena to bring your records regarding
a patient to the local courthouse, so that copies can be made
for later use as evidence in the patient’s pending trial for car
theft. The patient has entered a plea of not guilty by reason
of insanity, but does not want you to release his records for
use as evidence in the court proceeding. Legally, you would
be required to
a. withhold the records based on the patient’s legal right to
confidentiality.
b. produce the records unless the patient chooses to change
his plea to eliminate the issue of his mental status
c. provide the records only after deleting material that you do
not deem pertinent to the trial
d. refuse to provide the records, citing the principles of the
APA Ethical Principles of Psychologists
A
- B
Whenever a person raises his/her mental status or mental
condition as an issue in a legal matter, privilege is waived
and the client cannot deny the court access to psychotherapy
records or the therapist’s testimony.
103
Q
- You and your husband have recently divorced and you
notice yourself “taking the wife’s side” when you do couple’s
counseling. You should:
a. seek supervision
b. enroll in a treatment center
c. see only the female part of the marital dyad for now
d. terminate your practice until you can deal with your
personal problem
A
- A
Psychologists have an obligation to be alert to signs of, and
to obtain assistance for their personal problems at an early
stage, in order to prevent significantly impaired
performance.”
104
Q
- You have a client who is a famous artist. Rather than
pay for her sessions, she would like to give you one of her
paintings. She knows the commercial selling value and thus
you could determine the fee appropriately. You should:
a. agree to this since there is an agreed upon market value
b. keep to your already established fee
c. agree to this, but only buy the painting through her dealer.
d. refuse; her art is modern and you are more of a
traditionalist
A
- B
The fact that your client wants to “give” you a painting may
hint at clinically relevant material to be explored. Until you
can be sure that the exchange would not be clinically
contraindicated, it is best to err on the side of caution.
105
Q
- In regard to psychotherapist-patient sex, which of the
following statements is true?
a. Although sex with a current patient is prohibited, sex with
a former patient is ethical.
b. Sex with a former patient is ethical, so long as at least two
years has passed since the termination of the therapeutic
relationship
c. Sex with a former patient may be acceptable so long as B
above is true and the therapist can demonstrate, in light of all
relevant factors, that the patient has not been harmed or
exploited.
d. Sex with a current or former patient is unethical regardless
of the circumstances.
A
- C
Even after the two year interval, psychologists cannot have
sex with a former client except in very rare instances when
the psychologist can demonstrate, in light of all releva
106
Q
- In most states, the legal criteria used in determining
whether or not a person can be involuntarily hospitalized
focuses on:
a. whether or not the person has a mental disorder
b. the person’s ability to regulate his or her own life
c. whether it is in the person’s best interests to stay in the
hospital
d. danger to self or others
A
- D
According to federal court rulings, a state cannot
involuntarily confine an individual merely because he or she
is suffering from a mental illness. Instead the mental illness
must pose a danger to self or others.
107
Q
- Job analysis refers to the process of
a. determining the specific skills and behaviors that are
required for doing a given job effectively
b. determining the job aptitudes of incumbents that
distinguish successful from unsuccessful people
c. screening job applicants for a given job based upon the
results of a job-related assessment measure.
d. presenting the job equities and inequities to the job
applicants.
A
- A
A job analysis describes, in specific terms, the precise nature
of the component tasks performed by workers on a particular
job. As part of the process, the analysis will identify the
skills, knowledge, and experience needed to perform the job
satisfactorily.
108
Q
- According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory of job
satisfaction,
a. hygiene factors are more related to worker dissatisfaction
than to worker satisfaction
b. motivators and hygiene factors vary from occupation to
occupation, with blue collar workers being more influenced
by hygiene factors than by motivators
c. motivators include job security and job pay
d. motivators include working conditions and recognition
A
- A
Herzberg’s two-factor theory divides factors influencing job
satisfaction and dissatisfaction into two types: hygiene and
motivators. Hygiene factors (i.e., lower level needs including
pay, safety, and benefits) produce dissatisfaction when they
are not present, but have no effect on satisfaction when they
are present. Motivators (i.e., meaningful work) produce
satisfaction when present, but have no effect on
dissatisfaction when absent.
109
Q
- In the selection of employees, a company uses a
particular test that has moderate predictive validity. The
company hires applicants scoring above the mean on the test,
but this cutoff score has resulted in an unacceptably high
percentage of “false positives” (i.e., employees who are
expected to succeed, but don’t). A useful strategy to obtain a
higher proportion of “true positives” using the same test
would be
a. raise the cutoff score
b. lower the cutoff score
c. change the criterion measure
d. increase the number of applicants
A
- A
Raising the predictor cutoff score is a useful way of reducing
the proportion of false positives. The people who succeed on
the more stringent measure are more likely to succeed on the
job.
110
Q
- Research carried out by McClelland and Atkinson
suggests that people who are high in need for achievement
(nAch) prefer tasks of
a. moderate difficulty with performance feedback
b. high difficulty without performance feedback
c. low difficulty without performance feedback
d. high difficulty with performance feedback
A
- A
People with a high need for achievement prefer tasks of
moderate difficulty (tasks that are too difficult may frustrate
them, tasks to easy may not provide a sense of
accomplishment).
111
Q
- A mechanical reasoning test has been shown to have
very high (.8) validity for male and lower (.4) validity for
female applicants for a position as a drill press operator. If
the company hs to ensure that the same proportion of
individuals from each gender who are hired will be
successful on the job, the company will have (assuming
legality is not an issue)
a. require a higher cutoff score for female applicants
b. give all women compensatory training
c. reasses the criterion measure
d. use a test of verbal aptitude for women
A
- A
If a predictor has only a moderate correlation with job
performance, it will not be accurate at predicting one’s status
on the criterion (i.e., job performance). In such a case,
choosing only those who score extremely high on the
predictor will increase the chance that scores on the criterion
(i.e., job performance) will be adequate.
112
Q
- An industrial corporation has developed five new rules
in an effort to increase worker safety. Probably the most
effective method for transmission of the rules would be to
a. include the rules with the workers paychecks
b. prepare the workers for an important announcement, then
post the rules on numerous bulletin boards
c. have the foreman pass out the rules and discuss them at a
regularly scheduled meeting
d. use the “grapevine” to arouse interest and speculation;
then have supervisors announce the rules one week later.
A
- C
Safety experts generally agree that training is the single most
effective technique for bringing about safe work behaviors.
A discussion of the rules at a regularly scheduled meeting is
the best way to ensure that all the workers will be aware of
and understand those rules.
113
Q
- As a junior college counselor, your first choice of a
vocational interest test to administer to a very bright 20-year
old woman would be
a. Strong Interest Inventory
b. General Aptitude Test Battery
c. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey
d. Kuder Vocational Preference Record
A
- A
The Strong Interest Inventory is the appropriate interest
inventory to administer to individuals interested in business
and professional occupations.
114
Q
- Tests of psychomotor abilities for job selection
procedures
a. have not been reliably constructed
b. can be easily substituted for each other because of a
common factor
c. are useful as predictors in a wide range of jobs and
environments
d. must be very specific to the jobs being selected for.
A
- D
When using a psychomotor test to predict job performance,
one must ensure that the abilities assessed by the test are the
exact abilities required to perform the job.
115
Q
- For personnel hiring programs, a test with low validity
(e. g., 30) is considered adequate as long as
a. selection ratios are high
b. selection ratios are low
c. reliability figures are high
d. drop-out ratios are low
A
- B
Utility of a job selection test refers to the benefit an
organization accrues from using the test as compared to not
using the test. A low selection ratio (i.e., ratio of job
openings to job applicants) is one factor that increases the
utility of a job selection measure. A low selection ratio then
can compensate for a low validity coefficient and the test
may still be considered adequate.
116
Q
- For effective administration of a six scientist laboratory
that is oriented toward new product development, which of
the following types of communication networks (structures)
should the administrator prefer?
a. centralized
b. decentralized
c. moderately centralized
d. moderately decentralized
A
- B
Decentralized communication networks, or those in which
communication does not flow through only one person, are
more effective than centralized networks for accomplishing
complex tasks in an organization.
117
Q
- The quality and quantity of work produced by a group
tends to be lowest with which of the following styles of
leadership?
a. democratic
b. autocratic
c. employee-centered
d. laissez-faire
A
- D
Under laissez-faire leadership, subordinates make their own
decisions with little or now guidance from the leader. Under
this type of leadership, satisfaction and productivity are
lower than under autocratic or democratic leadership.
118
Q
- Interest inventories are least useful in predicting
a. job performance
b. job choice
c. job satisfaction
d. job persistence
A
- A
Interest inventories have moderate validity for predicting
variables related to job satisfaction and job choice. They
have little to no validity in predicting job performance or job
success.
119
Q
- Research on applicability of Maslow’s hierarchy theory
to the workplace suggests that
a. the theory seems to apply very well to industrial settings
b. the theory seems to apply well only for lower level
workers.
c. the theory seems to apply well only at higher levels of the
hierarchy
d. the theory does not apply very well to workplace settings
A
- D
Overall, research suggests that Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
does not apply all that well to the workplace. For instance,
research has refuted Maslow’s notion that needs lose
motivating value after they have been fulfilled.
120
Q
- Which of the following is not true of the force-choice
(FC) method of employee evaluation?
a. FC inventories are very costly to develop
b. FC inventories may increase dissatisfaction among raters
because the prevent raters from deciding for themselves who
is a “good” employee and who is a “bad” one
c. As compared to other methods of worker evaluation, FC
method has low validity
d. FC decreases the probability that criterion contamination
will occur.
A
- C
Contrary to choice C, FC is a relatively valid method of
evaluation since it prevents raters from injecting their own
biases into the process. The other choices are true.
121
Q
- Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales include ______
as items.
a. critical incidents
b. negative job behaviors, but not positive ones
c. positive job behaviors, but not negative ones
d. Likert scale type questions
A
- A
On BARS, each item is a series of critical incidents with
each incident tied to a a numerical point on a scale.
122
Q
122. One advantage of biodata as a selection tool is that it is particularly useful for: a. predicting job satisfaction b. predicting job interest c. predicting job turnover d. predicting job nepotism
A
- C
Biodata is particularly useful in predicting job turnover.
123
Q
- Which of the following would be an example of
vestibule training?
a. interest inventory testing
b. giving someone a training manual
c. in-basket, out-basket
d. having new employees attend a series of informative
lectures
A
- C
Vestibule training involves training in a physical replication
of simulation of the actual work environment and conditions.
124
Q
- Fiedler’s Contingency Theory or LPC proposes
a. that a leader’s effectiveness is determined by a
combination of the leader’s style and the characteristics of
the situation.
b. subordinate’s motivation is maximized when they perceive
that the leader is helping them achieve their goals.
c. leaders are described in terms of task and relationship
orientation.
d. a distinction between transformational and transactional
leaders.
A
- A
Fiedler believed a leader’s effectiveness could be determined
by his style and the situation in which he found himself.
125
Q
125. Which of the following is not one of Holland's personality types? a. Artistic b. Investigative c. Scientific d. Realistic
A
- C
Holland’s 6 personality types include:realistic, investigative,
artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional (RIASEC).
126
Q
- Super’s theory of career development is based on the
assumption that
a. career development can be described in terms of a
predictable sequence of stages.
b. personality variables and occupational environments are
of interest
c. vocational choice is linked to children’s experience with
their parents
d. there is a hierarchy of needs that impacts our vocational
choice
A
- A
Super discussed a series of stages in career development.
127
Q
- Adverse impact, a selection procedure that produces a
substantially different rate of selection for different groups
that are defined on the basis of gender, race, age, etc., can be
determined mathematically using the
a. 30% rule
b. 60% rule
c. 80% rule
d. 90% rule
A
- C
Adverse impact is determined mathematically using the 30%
rule. Adverse impact occurs when the selection rate for a
minority group is less than 80% of the selection rate of the
majority group.
128
Q
- Chin and Benne divide planned change in organizations
into three types:
a. autocratic, consultative, group decision
b. instrumental, supportive, participative
c. empirical-rational, normative-reeducative, power-coercive
d. decision making, career path, responsibility
A
- C
Chin and Benn’s three types of organizational change are:
empirical-rational (people are rational if given pertinent
information they will act in their self interest),
normative-reeducative (social norms underlie patterns of
behavior), and power-coercive (strategies involving the use
of rewards)
129
Q
- You are hired by a large corporation with many branch
offices and are asked to develop a program to help
employees in all branches quit smoking. As a psychologist
familiar with the literature in this area, you are most likely to
a. institute a competition between branches and meet with
employees regularly to help them develop and monitor
stepwise treatment plans
b. reimburse employees for tx at a smoking reduction clinic
c. provide employees with information about the negative
effects of smoking
d. have the personnel manager inform employees that
salaries will be reduced for those who do not quit smoking
A
129.A
Choice A includes many empirically supported components:
competition (increased motivation), clinical intervention, and
extended contact. Contest with specific incentives have
generally been found to be more effective than other
methods designed to induce employees to reach specific
goals.
130
Q
- To identify “critical incidents” you would
a. have employees identify what they like most about their
work
b. have supervisors identify work-related behaviors that are
associated with outstanding and inferior performance
c. have supervisors identify “critical points” in each worker’s
tenure on the job
d. have personnel managers identify what characteristics of
job applicants they consider in making their hiring decisions.
A
- B
Ask supervisors to observe employees and identify specific
behaviors associated with particularly effective and
ineffective job performance.
131
Q
- Which of the following schedules of reinforcement
produces a fairly even rate of performance during acquisition
and would also be fairly resistant to extinction?
a. rewarding every 5th response
b. rewarding a response every 5-minutes
c. rewarding responses randomly
d. rewarding every response
A
- C
A variable ratio schedule produces behavior that is more
resistant to extinction.
132
Q
- One of the distinguishing marks of latent learning is that
a. it never affects the organism’s overt behavior patterns
b. it occurs only in man, being dependent on language
c. behavioral consequences appear only at a later time
d. it depends on secondary, rather than primary,
reinforcement
A
- C
Edward Tolman, rats allowed to roam maze, but they did not
display the ability to solve the maze until food was placed at
the end of the path. Learning was latent in that it did not
immediately manifest in behavior until there was incentive to
do so.
133
Q
- If a well designed and properly executed experiment
found that 30-min of exercise made it more difficult to
memorize an 8-line poem afterwards, then it could be said
that the effects of exercise on memorization demonstrates
a. retroactive inhibition
b. negative chaining
c. proactive inhibition
d. unintended forgetting
A
- C
Proactive inhibition occurs when memory for stimuli (the 8
line poem) is interfered with by a previous task or activity.
134
Q
- Regarding the process of modeling and observational
learning, which statement is true?
a. introducing a positive incentive has little or no effect upon
the probability that an observed behavior will be performed
b. Models who are consumers of reinforcement are imitated
more often by children than models who dispense
reinforcement
c. Regardless of whether or not a model is punished
immediately after he performs a given behavior, the behavior
is just as likely to be imitated.
d. It is possible for learning to occur without reinforcement
or behavioral practice.
A
- D
According to social learning theory, it is possible to learn a
behavior simply by watching a model perform it.
135
Q
- The distinction between punishment and negative
reinforcement is:
a. with punishment, a stimulus presented following a
response decreases the response’s frequency, while negative
reinforcement involves removing a stimulus to decrease the
response frequency.
b. with punishment, a stimulus is presented following a
response to decrease the response’s frequency, while
negative reinforcemet involves removing a stimulus to
increase the response’s freq.
c. both involve removing a stimulus following a response,
which decreases the freq of the responses.
d. both involve presenting a stimulus following a response,
which decreases the frequency of the response.
A
- B
Neg Reinf = removing a stimulus (usually aversive)
following a behavior in order to increase future freq of the
behavior
Punishment = adding a stimulus (usually aversive) following
a response to decrease the future freq of the behavior
136
Q
- Satiation, as practiced by behavior therapists, is most
similar to which of the following techniques practiced by
family therapists?
a. prescribing the symptom
b. reframing
c. doubling
d. family sculpture
A
- A
Satiation involves having someone engage in the problem
behavior until that behavior loses its reinforcing properties.
Prescribing the symptom asks family members to engage in
the problem behavior in order to weaken their resistance to
treatment.
137
Q
137. Scalloped responding occurs with which type of reinforcement schedule? a. variable ratio b. variable interval c. fixed ratio d. fixed interval
A
- D
The scallop on fixed interval schedules refers to the low rate
of responding seen right after delivery of the reinforcement
and the escalation of responding near the time of the next
reinforcement delivery.
138
Q
- A dog is repeatedly exposed to a light paired with food.
Then, the dog is exposed to repeated pairings of that light
with a tone. Eventually, presentation of the tone alone elicits
salivation in the dog. This illustrates the process of:
a. stimulus generalization
b. the method of successive approximations
c. the Premack Principle
d. higher-order conditioning
A
- D
In higher order conditioning, a stimulus that had previously
been a CS is paired with another neutral stimulus (NS) until
that NS also comes to elicit the conditioned response.
139
Q
139. Which of the following techniques involves the lost opportunity for reinforcement? a. response cost b. time-out c. overcorrection d. punishment
A
- B
The purpose of time-out is to deny the person access to an
environment that offers the opportunity for reinforcement.
140
Q
140. The technique of sensate focus is based on the behavioral principle of: a. counterconditioning b. flooding c. extinction d. mutual pleasure-giving
A
- A
Counterconditioning involves pairing a response targeted
for elimination with an incompatible, adaptive response, so
that the former is eliminated.
141
Q
- A group of sales people is told that they will be paid on
an irregular basis. In reality, they are paid after every 5th
sale. This illustrates which type of reinforcement schedule?
a. fixed interval
b. fixed ratio
c. variable interval
d. variable ratio
A
- B
Fixed ratio schedules reinforcement an organism after a set
number of responses.
142
Q
142. The paradigm of insight learning is associated with which of the following theorists? a. Wolpe b. Meichenbaum c. Tolman d. Kohler
A
- D
Kohler’s experiment: good outside a chimps cage, two short
sticks inside cage, chimp has “aha” idea of fitting the two
sticks together to reach food.
143
Q
- Which of the following statements is true of implosive
therapy, but not true of flooding?
a. it involves exposing the patient to a feared stimulus
b. it is at least partially based on the principles of classical
extinction.
c. It is based on the principle of repeated presentation of a
conditioned stimulus outside the presence of an
unconditioned stimulus resulting in elimination of the
conditioned response.
d. It is based, at least to some degree, on the principles of
psychoanalytic theory
A
- D
Implosive therapy, but not flooding, involves exposure to the
aspects of the feared stimulus that are believed to be related
to unconscious conflicts.
144
Q
- Theoretically, in order for counterconditioning
treatment to be successful, which statement is true?
a. The anxiety-provoking stimulus should be sufficiently
strong to overcome the subject’s reaction to the
anxiety-neutralizing stimulus.
b. The anxiety-neutralizing stimulus is usually presented
immediately after the anxiety-evoking stimulus is presented
c. The anxiety-evoking stimulus should be presented initially
in attenuated forms, so that the stimulus value is less
powerful than the anxiety-neutralizing stimulus
d. Immediate in-vivo exposure to anxiety-evoking stimuli at
the highest level of intensity is much more effective than
graded exposure.
A
- C
Counterconditioning involves pairing a maladaptive response
(usually anxiety) with an adaptive response (usually
relaxation) that is incompatible with the maladaptive
response. Important to expose the person gradually to the
anxiety-evoking stimuli so that the anxiety will not
overwhelm the emerging relaxation response.
145
Q
- Primary memory is equivalent to:
a. secondary memory
b. long-term memory
c. short-term memory
d. autobiographical memory
A
- C
Primary memory is most often referred to as short-term
memory (remembered less than a few minutes).
146
Q
146. An event that increases a behavior in either a positive or negative fashion is a(n): a. reinforcer b. punisher c. enforcer d. operant
A
- A
Reinforcers increase the probability of a behavior occurring
again in the future.
147
Q
- An example of the Premack Principle is:
a. “Go to your room. That is an order.”
b. “Let me explain the rules.”
c. Physically guiding a child to pick up toys.
d. “First, pick up your room, then you can go outside and
play. “
A
- D
Premack = using a high probability behavior to reinforce a
low probability behavior.
148
Q
- “Thinking about thinking” is the definition of:
a. a cognitive map
b. feature integration
c. selective attention
d. metacognition
A
- D
Metacognition, thinking about thinking, refers to an
individual’s awareness about her own cognitive state and
process.
149
Q
- Four groups of subjects study the same list of nonsense
syllables. Afterwards, group 1 study a list of similar
syllables. Group 2 studies a list of dissimilar syllables. Group
3 reads a novel. Group 4 goes to sleep. On a subsequent test
of recall, subjects in which group are most likely to display
the best memory.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
A
- D
Interference theory would suggest that individuals who sleep
would forget fewer syllables than those who remain awake
since there would be less retroactive interference or
subsequent learning to interfere with the learning of the
syllables.
150
Q
- Declarative memory is to procedural memory as:
a. fact is to skill
b. short-term is to long-term memory
c. implicit is to explicit memory
d. echoic is to iconic
A
- A
Choice A correctly associates declaritive memory to facts
and procedural memory to skills. In choice C, the terms are
reversed.
151
Q
- After a tachistoscopic presentation of a number
sequence, the person reports she is still able to “see” the
image. This is an example of:
a. retroactive memory
b. retroactive inhibition
c. iconic memory
d. short-term visual memory
A
- C
Iconic memory consists of an image in the visual receptors
for a very short period of time.
152
Q
152. Inability to convert short-term into long-term memory is associated with damage to the: a. RAS b. hippocampus c. septum d. raphe nucleus
A
- B
The hippocampus is believed to be responsible for
transferring information from short-term to long-term
memory.
153
Q
- Following a stroke, a patient appears to understand
spoken speech, but has great difficulty speaking or writing.
He is especially troubled by prepositions and finds it difficult
to order his words. He has probably sustained a lesion in the:
a. frontal lobe
b. Broca’s area
c. Wernicke’s area
d. left parietal lobe
A
- B
Broca’s area, located in the frontal cortex of the left
hemisphere, is the area of the brain responsible for
expressive speech.
154
Q
- Which of the following brain structures serves as a relay
station for sensory information from all sensory modalities
except olfaction?
a. hypothalamus
b. corpus callosum
c. thalamus
d. hippocampus
A
- C
Sensory information (except smell) is sent to the thalamus
and then projected to the cerebral cortex. Olfactory
information is sent directly to the cortex.
155
Q
- In the depressed patient, which of the central nervous
system neurotransmitters listed below is most likely to be at
a below average level?
a. GABA
b. acetylcholine
c. endorphin
d. serotonin
A
- D
Low levels of serotonin (as well as norepinephrine) have
been associated with depression. Newer antidepressants
(e.g., Zoloft, Prozac) exert their effects on brain serotonin
levels.
156
Q
- Which of the following is true of the laws governing a
nerve cell or neuron?
a. The intensity of the neuron’s activity varies directly with
the electrical activity inside the neuron.
b. When a certain level of electrical activity is reached inside
the neuron, a neuron fires at its maximum intensity. If the
electrical activity is below that level, the neuron does not
fire.
c. When exposed to an intense stimulus, such as intense pain,
an individual neuron will send out a stronger signal than
when exposed to a weaker stimulus.
d. Electrical activity inside a neuron has nothing to do with
the neuron’s behavior.
A
- B
Neuron’s function on a “all or nothing” law. When electrical
activity reaches a certain threshold (action potential) the
neuron fires at maximum strength. Increasing the electrical
charge above the AP does not increase the magnitude of the
neuron’s signal.
157
Q
- Which of the following is concerned chiefly with the
preparation of smooth muscles and glands for emergency
situations?
a. autonomic nervous system
b. central nervous system
c. sympathetic nervous system
d. parasympathetic nervous system
A
- C
The autonomic nervous system consists of two branches:
sympathetic and parasympathetic. Sympathetic mobilizes the
body’s resources for “fight or flight”. Parasympathetic
deactivates the organ systems activated in the fight of flight
response.
158
Q
158. The neurotransmitter most associated with voluntary muscle movements is: a. norepinephrine b. serotonin c. acetylcholine d. dopamine
A
- C
Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter involved in neural
signals to voluntary muscles.
159
Q
- The ARAS (Ascending Reticular Activating System)
produces its effects on motivation by:
a. channeling sensory input to the proper region of the cortex
b. providing diffuse facilitation to the entire cortex
c. inhibiting irrelevant input from the receptors
d. providing generalized facilitation to all of the muscles
A
- B
The ARAS is involved in behavioral arousal. It screens input
to the brain and provides diffuse stimulation to the entire
cortex when important information must be processed.
160
Q
- If elderly patients are given chlorpromazine for an
extended period of time, the most likely side effect would be:
a. tardive dyskinesia
b. Parkinson’s Disease
c. Huntington’s Chorea
d. difficulties sleeping
A
- A
Tardive dyskinesia (involuntary rhythmic movements) is a
side effect of neuroleptics (antipsychotic medications).
Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a neuroleptic.
