In Flight Trivia

Question 1

What is meant by optimum speed?

Answer 1

The FMGC minimises cost by optimising the speed throughout different flight phases:
Takeoff V2 +10
Climb, cruise & descent ECON SPD
Approach Vapp

Optimum speeds use CO, FL, GW, Wind, Temp, Perf factor

Question 2

Turbulence penetration speeds?

Answer 2

Below FL200 - 250kts (260 NEO)
FL200-330 - 275 (280 NEO)
Above FL330 - 0.76

Question 3

What is RVSM and what equipment is required?

Answer 3

FL290-410 separation 1000ft instead of 2000ft

2 ADRs + 2 DMCs
1 transponder
1 autopilot
1 FCU channel
2 PFD
1 FWC

Question 4

What are the threats of V/S mode?

Answer 4

Possibility of overspeed/slow as aircraft targets V/S at the expense of speed

Question 5

Heavy rain considerations?

Answer 5

Vent extract to override when taxi/parked to close skin air inlets and prevent water entering the avionics system. Set back to AUTO after takeoff.
Consider IGN/START to initiate igniters incase of flameout

Question 6

Explain actions in the event of Engine Tailpipe fire and how might it be noticed?

Answer 6

Notices by ground crew or EGT failing to decrease after engine shutdown. Do NOT push fire p/b as this will remove FADEC power and prevent dry cranking. Basically want to dry crank to remove any excess fuel/vapours

Question 7

ALT CRZ different to ALT?

Answer 7

Engages when altitude deviation becomes less than 20ft. SOFT mode allows +/-50ft from CRZ FL to enhance fuel efficiency and minimise thrust changes.

Question 8

What do the performance codes RWY0 and RWY1 mean?

Answer 8

RWY0 - Takeoff limited by TOD 2 engines
RWY1 - Takeoff limited by TOD 1 engine

Question 9

Explain SRS mode target for take off with
-2 engines
-1 engine

Answer 9

On the ground V2 is target speed

In flight
2 engines - V2 +10 target speed
1 engine - Current speed is the target limited to V2 minimum and V2 +15 maximum

Question 10

Explain VMCG & VMCA

Answer 10

VMCG - minimum control speed on ground at which the aircraft can be directionally controlled using only primary flight controls (rudder) in the event of engine loss. V1 must be above VMCG.

VMCA - minimum control speed in air at which it is possible to maintain directional control of aircraft with maximum bank angle of 5 degrees. V2 must be greater than VMCA

Question 11

Explain VMCG limited

Answer 11

To increase TO weight use higher flex, reduces torque from loss of engine and therefore easier to control which = reduced vmcg

Question 12

Explain V2 speed?

Answer 12

Take off safety speed
Speed the aircraft reaches at latest 35ft with OEI & maintains during the second climb segment
VMCA must be less than V2

Question 13

What is the Screen Height?

Answer 13

35ft (15ft wet runway) used for calculation of takeoff flight path

Question 14

What are the 4 take-off segments?

Answer 14

Segment 1
Start - 35ft (screen height)
End - Gear up

Segment 2 (2.4% gross)
Start - Gear up
End - Acceleration altitude

Segment 3
Start - Acceleration altitude
End - Flaps retracted

Segment 4 (1.2% gross)
Start - Flaps retracted
End - 1500ft

Question 15

What is the Net take-off flight path?

Answer 15

The actual (gross) take off flight path reduced by 0.8% for 2 engine aeroplanes

Question 16

What are the required climb gradients for take-off?

Answer 16

Second segment (gear up to acceleration alt) 2.4% gross

Final segment (clean to 1500ft) 1.2% gross

Question 17

Explain Mach tuck

Answer 17

Nose down pitch as airflow over wing becomes supersonic and centre of pressure shifts backwards causing nose down pitch

Question 18

Explain regulated landing/take off weights

Answer 18

Regulated weights may be below max structural weights due to elevation, temp, runway slope, obstacles in take-off path etc

Question 19

Explain departing with portable oxygen missing

Answer 19

Look in MEL, there is a restriction for number of passengers based on oxygen levels or you can depart with 0 bottles with a FL restriction (25000ft), FL and MORA 8000ft flight plan restriction or pax limitation

Question 20

What is the MAP OEI required climb gradient?

Answer 20

2.5% but can be higher if specified on particular approach LIDO chart.

Can adjust GA gradient level on EFB perf ‘modify runway’

Question 21

IRS drift tolerances?

Answer 21

Complete alignment first flight of day and crew change
Fast alignment if IRS position and FMGC position >5nm

Question 22

Cockpit Oxygen limits, where to check?

Answer 22

Check in FCOM oxygen limitations

Question 23

Classification of disruptive passengers, 4 levels?

Answer 23

Level 1 - Verbal abuse
Level 2 - Physical abuse to property/others
Level 3 - Weapon
Level 4 - Attack aimed at FD door

Question 24

TCAS on approach actions?
When are RAs inhibited?

Answer 24

Avoid then go-around. RA inhibited below 1100ft AGL in climb and 900ft AGL in descent

Question 25

Circling approach, when can you descend below MDA?

Answer 25

When in sight of threshold

Question 26

TCAS RA why do you switch FDs off?

Answer 26

Because if you didn’t thrust would still be following FDs rather than in speed mode

Question 27

When is a security search completed?

Answer 27

Cold Aircraft
In UK prior to all departures unless aircraft arrived from UK, JER or IOM

Turnaround outside UK = Tidy

Question 28

Describe different types of airspace?