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Principles > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

how does the skin protect from infection 3

A

physical barrier - tight packed cells

low pH

secretion of hydrophobic oils, lysozymes, defensins via sebaceous glands

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2
Q

how does commensal bacteria fight infection

A

produce anti-microbial short chain fatty acids, these:
compete for nutrients
reduce pH of bowel
synthesise vitK/B12

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3
Q

cells involved in innate immune system, purpose of innate

A 
mast cells
NK cells
Phagocytes
(complement) 
responsible for acute inflammation and killing of pathogen
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4
Q

how does the cells involved in the innate response detect pathogens

A

Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) detect Pathogen-Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)

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5
Q

4 examples of phagocytes
function
source of what

A

neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages and dendritic cells
ingest and kill bacteria
source of cytokines

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6
Q

t/f NK cells are a type of lymphocytes

A

true

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7
Q

what is released in degranulation of mast cells, effect of each (2)

A

histamine - inc permeability, incr blood flow, vasodilation of vessels and constriction of smooth muscle
tryptase - mast cell activation

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8
Q

mast cells, basophils and eosinophils are al granular cells, how do they differ

A

mast cells found in tissue and protect mucosal surfaces

basophils and eosinophils circulate in blood

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9
Q

3 mechanisms used by neutrophils to attack pathogens

A

phagocytosis
antimicrobial peptide and degradative proteases released
generate extracellular traps

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10
Q

what 3 things makes up pus

A

dead/dying neutrophils + tissue cells microbial debris

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11
Q

monocytes

A

precursors of macrophages/ dendritic cells

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12
Q

dual responsibilities of monocytes and macrophages

A

limit inflammation

tissue repair/wound healing

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13
Q

what does active neutrophils produce, what does this do

A

TNF-alpha (cytokine)

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14
Q

other than killing pathogens, function of macrophages

A

clear debris
inflammation
tissue repair and wound healing

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15
Q

dendritic cells are immature cells in peripheral tissues, however what happens when they come in contact with a pathogen

A

mature and migrate to secondary lymphoid tissues, are antigen presenting cells and stimulate adaptive immune response

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16
Q

functions of macrophages 5

A 
ingest/kill extracellular pathogens 
clear debris from dead tissue cells 
inflammation 
tissue repair and wound healing 
antigen presentation
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17
Q

which cells specifically kill tumour and virally infected cells

A

NK cells

these also kill antibody-bound cells

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18
Q

CD8+, name and function

A

cytotoxic T cells
kill virally infected body cells
effector/memory

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19
Q

CD4+, name and function

A

helper T cells

regulators, activate other immune cells

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20
Q

primary site of leukocyte developement

A

(lymphoid tissue)
red bone marrow
thymus (until 12years)

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21
Q

3 examples of secondary lymphoid tissue, what is this the site of

A

lymph nodes
tonsils spleen
adaptive immune response initiated

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22
Q

how is direct communication carried out in the immune system

A

ligand interactions - receptors

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23
Q

how is indirect communication carried out in the immune system

A

production and secretion of cytokines

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24
Q

4 examples of types of cytokines

A

interferons
TNF
chemokines
interleukins

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25
Q

function of TNF

A

pro-inflammatory

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26
Q

which cytokine has anti-viral functions

A

interferons

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27
Q

which cells control and direct cell migration

A

chemokines

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28
Q

interleukin cells which is anti-inflammatory

A

IL-10

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29
Q

IL2 cells are said to be T cell proliferators, what does this mean

A

cause the increase in number of T cells

30
Q

local effects would be redness,heat, swelling, pain and loss of function. what would be the systemic effect

A

fever

31
Q

3 examples of pro-inflammatory cells

A

(remember cytokines)
IL-1
IL-6
TNF

32
Q

which organ produces the pro-inflammatory cytokines in acute phase

A

liver

33
Q

associated cells of innate immune system

A 
macrophages 
mast cells 
neutrophils 
NK cells 
basophils 
eosinophills 
dendritic cells 
(complement system)
34
Q

associated cells of adaptive immune system

A

T cells
B cells
dendritic cells
antibodies

35
Q

one of the functions of the complement is opsonisation, what is this

A

coating of microorganisms by immune proteins (opsonins)
- C3b, CRP, antibodies
to enhance phagocytosis

36
Q

what are antibodies

A

cells produced in the adaptive immune response which bind to pathogens to enhance phagocytosis (opsonisation)

37
Q

during complement mediated lysis, C5b binds to pathogen surface, and C6,C7,C8,C9,C5b make up the membrane attack complex, what is this, what activates it

A

MAC (also called terminal complement complex TCC)
forms transmembrane channels, leading to targeted cell lysis (wall degredation) and death
activated by either classical/lectin/alternative pathways

38
Q

other than mediated lysis and opsonisation, give 3 other functions of complement system

A

chemotaxis
clearance of immune complexes
inflammation

39
Q

how does the complement systemm mediate inflammation and chemotaxis

A

C3a and C5a bind to receptors on mast/basophils ect which releases histamine and chemokines

40
Q

outline structure of T and B cell antigen receptors

A

T cell - membrane-bound protein heterodimer
has alpha and beta chain

B cell - membrane bound antibody
has light and heavy chains
disulphide bridges

41
Q

how are pathogens detected by t and b cells

A

secondary lymphoid tissues

42
Q

MHC proteins display peptide antigens to T cells, allowing activation. (HLA other name) what is the difference in class 1 and 2

A

class 1 - expressed on all nucleated cells, present peptide antigens to cytotoxic T cells

class 2 - expressed only on dendritic cells, macrophages and b cells, present peptide antigens to helper T cells

43
Q

which is the first immunoglobulin produced in an immune response

A

IgM

44
Q

which immunoglobulin is produced in an allergic response

A

IgE

45
Q

immunoglobulins have dual biological functions, what are these

A

recognition - binds to antigen mediated by variable region sites

effector - clearance mechanisms mediated interaction of constant region with effector molecules

46
Q

purpose of IFN-gamma 2

A 
activates macrophages 
induces MHC class II expression
47
Q

which 3 proteins expressed in the acute phase prevent infection spread, and can also be diagnostic markers

A

C reactive protein (CRP)
Serum Amyloid Protein (SAP)
Complement proteins (C3,4,5 ect)

48
Q

serum CRP which would indicate either an active inflammation or a bacterial infection

A

40-200mg/L

10-40 = mild inflammation, viral infection

49
Q

other than a severe bacterial infection, >200mg/L serum CRP levels indicates

A

burns

50
Q

t/f transendothelial migration can occur in both arterioles and venules

A

false

bp too high in arterioles

51
Q

once endotheliall cells become activation during acute inflammation, what is expressed which allows the adhesion of immune cells

A

sellectins

ICAM

52
Q

another name for neutrophils

A

polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs)

53
Q

give 4 examples of opsonins

A

C3b
C-reactive protein
IgG
IgM

54
Q

explain how dendritic cells initiate the adaptive immune response

A

inflammatory cytokines stimulate immature dendritic cells express co-stimulatory molecules

dendritic cells recognise and phagocytose pathogens (PRR-PAMP)

dendrites display small peptides of antigen on surface in complex with MHC

migrates to secondary lymphoid tissue, meeting t nd b

55
Q

name of protein which presents peptide antigens to helper T cells

A

MHC Class II

56
Q

T cell activation requires 2 signals, what are these

A

signal 1 - MHC class I

co-stimulatory molecule B7 (on dendrite) - CD28 (on T)

57
Q

t/f B cells do not need dendrites to recognise antigens

A

true

do not need MHC to present antigen

58
Q

most abundant antibody

A

IgG - actively transported across placenta

59
Q

which antibodies are given by the mother to the child

A

IgG and dimeric IgA

60
Q

other than the dual biological functions of antibodies (Recognition and effector) what other functions can they carry out 5

A 
agglutination 
opsonisation 
stimulate NK cells 
trigger allergic responses 
undergo class switching (heavy chain switched = different antibody)
61
Q

associated functions of IgM when in membrane-bound form/in plasma and secretory fluids as a pentamer

A

membrane - antigen receptor, activates B cells

plasma - agglutination, activates complement system

62
Q

define agglutination

A

cross-linking of antigens producing clumps by an antibody

63
Q

other than IgM, which antibody mediates agglutination

A

IgG

64
Q

how does agglutination benefit the immune system

A

clumps all pathogens together, increases efficacy of phagocytosis

65
Q

which antibody is dominant during secondary immune response

A

IgG

66
Q

other than agglutination, name 5 other associated functions of IgG

A 
complement system activation 
foetal immune protection 
neutralisation 
opsonisation 
NK cell activation
67
Q

when in monomeric form, IgA activates B cell (as found in serum), what is its function when in dimeric form

A

neonatal defence
neutralisation (at mucosal sites)
is dimeric when present in secretory fluids (sIgA)

68
Q

how do effector Th cells help T cell response

A

secretion of IL-2 - stimulates proliferation and differentiation of antigen-activated T cells (antigen-activated B cells too)

69
Q

how are macrophages ability to kill pathogens improved

A

expression of co-stimulatory molecules (IFN-y) by effector Th1 cells

these hyper-activate macrophages

NK cells do the same thing

70
Q

how do effector T- FH cells help B cells

A

effector T - FH cells re-activate in B cell zone in lymph and stimulate clonal proliferation of antigen stimulated B cells through co-stimulatory molecules

also secretes cytokines

71
Q

how does cytotoxic T cells kill infected host cellls

A

recognises and binds, programs DNA fragmentation, inducing death by apoptosis

72
Q

cytotoxic T cells released perforin, granzymes and granulysin, what does each do

A

perforin - forms pore
granzymes - activates apoptosis
granulysin - induces apoptosis

Principles (9 decks)

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