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BPT Written > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Anakinra MOA

A

IL-1 receptor antagonist

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2
Q

Abatacept MOA

A

Functions as CTLA4, binds to CD80/86 to co-stimulate and down-regulate T-cells

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3
Q

Top 3 food allergens

A

Egg, peanut, milk

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4
Q

Type A drug rxns are…

A

Pharmacologic i.e. related to the action of the drug e.g. diarrhoea

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5
Q

Type B drug hypersensitivities are…

A

Immunologic

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6
Q

Type 1 Hypersensitivity is

A

IgE mediated

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7
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity is…

A

IgG to specific antigen

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8
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity is…

A

IgG immune complex deposition

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9
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivity is

A

T cell mediated

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10
Q

Three MOAs of delayed hypersensitivity reactions

A
  1. Drug is a hapten
  2. Drug is a prohapten
  3. Direct p-i
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11
Q

Anaphylaxis 3 definitions

A
  1. Skin OR angioedema + breathing OR circulation issues
  2. Suspected allergen PLUS 2 organ systems involved
  3. Known allergen and ANY organ
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12
Q

Three mechanisms of anaphylaxis

A
  1. IgE dependent
  2. IgE independent immunologic
  3. Non-immunologic direct mast cell activation e.g. physical, ETOH, opioids
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13
Q

Most specific test of anaphylaxis

A

Mast cell tryptase

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14
Q

HAE MOA

A

C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency

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15
Q

HAE inheritance/ mutation:

A

AD, SERPING1 mutation

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16
Q

GATA2 def

A

MonoMAC: monocytopaenia, B and NK cell lymphopaenia; MDS/AML, MAC/viral infections

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17
Q

Complement activating isotypes

A

IgM>IgG3>IgG1>IgG2

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18
Q

C3b, what is it

A

Opsonin, all phagocytes have a receptor

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19
Q

C3a and 5a

A

chemokines, all mast cells have receptors -> degranulate

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20
Q

C5b ->

A

MAC

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21
Q

What bacteria are most susceptible to MAC?

A

gram -ves as don’t have thick cell wall

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22
Q

C3 convertase inhibitors:

A

DAF (CD55) and MCP

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23
Q

MAC inhibitors:

A

CD59 (MAC-IP) and HRF

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24
Q

4 mechanisms for NK cells to recognise invaders:

A

Lack of MHC I; Increased activating factors; loss of inhibitory factors; ADCC via Fcgamma receptors

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25
Q

NK cells kill via

A

Fas-L:Fas; perforin and granzymes

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26
Q

Receptors expressed by mature dendritic cell

A

CD80/86 and MHCII

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27
Q

On what chromosomes are HLA molecules?

A

Chromosome 6p

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28
Q

What cytokines induce Th1?

A

IFN-gamma and IL-12

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29
Q

What cytokines do Th1s produce?

A

TNF-alpha and IFN-gamma

30
Q

Th1 gene

A

Tbet

31
Q

Cytokine that induces Th2

A

IL-4

32
Q

Cytokines produced by Th2

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

33
Q

Genes for Th2, there are 2!

A

GATA3/STAT6

34
Q

Th17 cytokine inducers:

A

IL-1, IL-6, IL-23, TGF-beta

35
Q

Treg cytokine inducers

A

TGF-beta, IL-10

36
Q

Treg gene

A

FOXP3

37
Q

Tregs express 3 markers on their cell surface, what are they?

A

CD4, CD25, CTLA4

38
Q

Cytotoxic T cells won’t become strong memory Cytotoxic T cells unless what is present?

A

Th1

39
Q

B cell signal 1:

A

MHC:TCR

40
Q

B cell signal 2:

A

CD40:CD40L

41
Q

Deficiency of CD40/CD40L =

A

Hyper IgM syndrome, unable to class switch

42
Q

T regs help B cells to..

A

class switch by expressing CD40L

43
Q

What part of the Ab determines the isotype?

A

heavy chain

44
Q

Where does IgA2 live?

A

mucous membranes

45
Q

Quantities of each Immunoglobulin:

A

IgG>IgA>IgM>IgD>IgE

46
Q

Is IgM high or low affinity/avidity?

A

Low affinity; but high avidity because has 10 binding sites- pentamer

47
Q

Which immunoglobulins are high affinity?

A

IgG, IgA, IgE (all but IgM)

48
Q

IgG does what with higher affinity?

A

opsonises, neutralises, activates complement and ADCC

49
Q

SCID causing mutations

A

ADA, Common cytokine Gamma-R, RAG

50
Q

Main abnormality in Di-George

A

no thymus

51
Q

Difference between CVID and XLA

A

XLA won’t have mature B cells on subsets

52
Q

Rx of CGD

A

bactrim + antifungals + IFN-gamma + Anakinra -> SCT

53
Q

2 tests for phagocyte function

A

NBT + DHR

54
Q

Two CTLA4 assoc. genetic conditions

A

CHAI and LATAI
CHAI- CTLA4 happloinsufficiency w. autoimmune infiltration.
LATAI- LRBA deficiency w. Auto-ab, Treg defects, Autoimmunity

55
Q

CGD most common infections

A

lymphadenitis, pneumonia, abscesses of skin/viscera

56
Q

CGD is from an deficiency of what enzyme?

A

NADPH oxidase

57
Q

ALPS inheritance/findings

A

Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome; AD; increased double -ve alpha-beta T cells in peripheral blood on flow; Defect in FAS

58
Q

IPEX inheritance/ findings

A

Immune dysreg polyendocrinopathy X-linked; FOX-P3 defect so no Tregs

59
Q

Autoimmune Polyglandular syndrome Type 1 defect/hallmarks:

A

AIRE gene; candida, Addison’s hypoparathyroid

60
Q

Complement activating factors

A

Properdin, B and C from monocytes

61
Q

HAE rx options

A

FFP, plasma derived C1-inhibitor, Icatibant

62
Q

Icatibant MOA

A

Bradykinin B2 receptor antagonist

63
Q

Loss of which inhibitors gives aHUS?

A

Factor H, I and MCP

64
Q

Inflammasome 2 signals for initiation

A
  1. TLR -> NFkappaBEta -> pro-IL-1 beta

2. DAMPs/PAMPs -> caspases to activate Il-1

65
Q

CAPS defect/ inheritance/ syndromes

A

Defect in NLRP3/ AD/ Muckle-wells, NOMID, FCAS

66
Q

CAPS mechanism

A

persistently activated DAMPL signalling pathways

67
Q

Schnitzler’s syndrome

A

IgM kappa paraprotein; neutrophilic urticaria rash; rx w. anakinra

68
Q

Opsonins that augment microbial phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages; and one that isn’t

A

C3b, CRP, IgG, MBL; NOT C5a

69
Q

What innate cell expresses the most varied number of TLR and cytoplasmic receptors?

A

dendritic cells

70
Q

Most common gene affected in XL CGD

A

CYBB

71
Q

Most common genes in CVID

A

NFKB1 or 2

72
Q

When testing for Ab response to vaccine what type of vaccination should be used?

A

Unconjugated polysaccharide

BPT Written (21 decks)

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