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Microbiology & Immunology > Immunity & infection, packet #1 > Flashcards

Immunity & infection, packet #1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Bacteria that is beneficial and does no harm to humans are called?

A

Communal bacteria

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2
Q

Bacteria that can cause infections and disease are called?

A

Pathogenic bacteria

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3
Q

The immune system protects from _______ and also ________.

A

pathogens

cancer

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4
Q

The first line of the immune system defense are made up of?

A

Physical and chemicals barriers

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5
Q

What is the largest organ in the body?

A

Skin

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6
Q

All body cavities and passages that expose to the external environment are lined with _______ __________.

A

Mucous membranes

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7
Q

Where would you find mucous membranes?

A

Mouth, nostrils, eyelids, bronchioles, vagina, and other organs of the respiratory, digestive, and urogenital tracts.

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8
Q

What tissue makes up the skin and mocous membranes?

A

Epithelial tissue

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9
Q

What is the configuration of the layout for epithelial tissue in skin and mucous membranes?

A

One or more layers of closely packed cells with almost no space in-between the cells.

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10
Q

The fluids that cover the skin and the mucous membrane are filled with what?

A

Enzymes.

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11
Q

The respiratory tract has an added defense mechanism on the cells that are lined with mucous mombranes. This addition is called what?

A

Cilia

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12
Q

If particles make it past the cilia, into the respiratory organs, what defense mechanism will be used to expel it?

A

A cough

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13
Q

What two systems incorporate to make up the immune system?

A

The innate and adaptive immune systems.

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14
Q

Which immune system are you born with?

A

Innate immune system

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15
Q

How does the adaptive immune system aquire its ability to help the immune system?

A

Over time with exposure to microorganisms

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16
Q

Which immune system will launch a nonspecific defense, every time, all the time?

A

The innate immune system.

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17
Q

Which immune system will launch a very specific type of defense?

A

Adaptive immune system.

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18
Q

How does the specific mechanism of the adaptive immune system work?

A

Like a lock and key.

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19
Q

For the complete elimination of a pathogen, what must occur?

A

The coordinated activities of both the innate and adaptive immune systems

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20
Q

The immune system works through the actions of different types of?

A

WBC’s

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21
Q

WBC’s are continuously produced where?

A

In the bone marrow.

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22
Q

What is a key feature of a WBC?

A

It can distinguish foreign cells from host cells.

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23
Q

What can’t the cells of the innate immune system develop?

A

A memory of past pathogens.

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24
Q

What are the 5 cells of the innate immune system?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages, natural killer cells, and dendritic cells.

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25
Q

Which innate system cell travels to a site of infection via the blood stream to attack and ingest pathogens?

A

Neutrophils.

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26
Q

Which innate system cell occur in mucosal tissues and provide innate immunity to certain microbes?

A

Eosinophils

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27
Q

Which innate system cells act as scavengers, devouring pathogens and worn out cells?

A

Macrophages

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28
Q

Which innate system cell destroys virus infected host cells and host cells that have turned cancerous?

A

Natural killer cells

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29
Q

Which innate system cell resides in tissues, engulfs pathogens and activates lymphocytes?

A

Dendritic cells

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30
Q

What are the WBC’s of the adaptive immune system called?

A

Lymphocytes

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31
Q

The two main lymphocytes are called?

A

T cells and B cells

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32
Q

How do the T and B cells of the adaptive immune system differ from those of the innate immune system?

A

They are capable of exquisite specificity and of immunological memory.

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33
Q

Which markers trigger an immune response?

A

nonself markers

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34
Q

Nonself markers that cause an immune response are known as?

A

Antigens

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35
Q

What are specialized proteins that circulate in the bloodstream and are present in almost all body fluids?

A

Antibodies

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36
Q

Who produce antibodies?

A

WBC’s

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37
Q

Antibodies have complementary markers on their surfaces that work with antigen markers in what fashion?

A

Lock and key

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38
Q

Complementary markers allow antibodies to do what?

A

Recognize and neutralize specific microbes

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39
Q

When an antibody locks with a specific antigen, what two things can occur?

A

The antibody will either (1) neutraize it or (2) flag it for attack by the immune system.

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40
Q

When a T or B cell encounters an antigen for which it is specific to, what will occur?

A

The cell will proliferate, producing more lymphocytes “daughter cells” which are specific for that antigen.

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41
Q

When new lymphocyte “daughter cells” are created what will they do next?

A

They will differential into cells with specific immune functions and attack the invading pathogen for which it had the antigen made.

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42
Q

B cell “daughter cells” become what specific cells and what is their immune function?

A

They become plasma cells and secrete antibodies verse a specific antigen or they can also become memory B cells which retain response ability for months or years later.

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43
Q

T cell “daughter cells” become what specific cells?

A

They can become 4 kinds of cells

1) T cells
2) Killer T cells
3) Suppressor T cells (regulatory)
4) Memory T cells

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44
Q

The body is injured or infected, specialized cells in the area will release what substance?

A

Histamine.

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45
Q

Histamine will have what effect in the area of infection or injury?

A

It will cause inflammation, blood vessels will dilate and the fluid in them will flow out of the capillaries and into the interstitial spaces and infected/injured tissue.

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46
Q

The effect of histamine will cause what kind of reaction in the areas of infection/injury?

A

Increased heat, swelling, and redness in the area.

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47
Q

The heat/swelling and redness reactoin caused by histamine will attract what to the infection/injury?

A

WBC’s

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48
Q

The WBC’s that attack an infection will cause what to be created?

A

Pus

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49
Q

What is pus composed of?

A

Dead WBC’s and debris resulting from the immune response to the infectious invader.

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50
Q

Name the phases of the immune response.

A

Recognition, proliferation, elimination, and slowdown.

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51
Q

What cells are drawn to the site of injury and consume the foreign cells?

A

Dendritic cells

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52
Q

During the recognition phase, what do the dendritic cells do during this phase?

A

They go to the site of the injury and consume foreign cells. Then they migrate to the nearby lymphoid tissue to turn on T cells by showing the antigen markers of the foreign cells. Then the natural killer cells and other early responders will destroy infected cells.

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53
Q

Which cell is the main player in the start of the proliferation stage?

A

Helper T cells

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54
Q

During the proliferation phase, what do the helper T cells do?

A

Helper T cells rapidly stimulate the proliferation of T and B cells.

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55
Q

What are cytokines, where do they come from and what do they do?

A

They are chemical messengers that are secreted by lymphocytes and other cells within the immune system. Their role is to regulate and coordinate the immune response.

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56
Q

During the elimination phase, what do killer T cells do?

A

They strike at foreign cells and infected body cells. They identify them by placing antigen markers on their surfaces, punturing cell membrane, sacrificing host cells in order to destroy the foreign organism inside.

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57
Q

What type of immune response is it when killer T cells are activated?

A

Cell-mediated immune response.

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58
Q

When a cell-mediated immune response occurs, what can you expect?

A

An amplified inflammatory response for which many more macrophages are recruited to infection site.

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59
Q

During elimination phase, what do B cells do?

A

They produce large quantities of antibody molecules and distribute into the bloostream and tissues. These antibodies will then bind to the correct antigens, marking them for destruction.

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60
Q

What type of immune response is it when B cells flood the blood and tissue with antibodies?

A

Antibody-mediated immune response.

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61
Q

What does the antibody-mediated immune response work against and how do they assist in elimination?

A

They work against bacteria, viruses and other substances outside of the cell and they allow cells of the innate immune system to eliminate the pathogens they just marked.

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62
Q

What is occuring during slowdown?

A

Regulatory molecules and suppressor T cells inhibit lymphocyte proliferation and induce lymphocyte cell death, causing a slowdown which bring the levels of T and B cells back to “resting” levels.

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63
Q

How does future immunity towards pathogens occur?

A

During slowdowm, some T and B cells remain in the body, providing memory, where they can initiate a rapid response verses same pathogen in the future.

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64
Q

What must occur for a person to gain immunity to an infection?

A

They must get infected and survive that infection.

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65
Q

What phase will begin the process of a person gaining immunity towards a specific pathogen?

A

The elimination phase, when lymphocytes are created, producing memory T and B cells.

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66
Q

What is the immunity term called for a person who just created T or B cells from an infection?

A

Acquired immunity

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67
Q

How does aquired immunity prevent future illness?

A

The memory T and B cells recognize the pathogen and initiate an immune response before illness occurs.

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68
Q

The ability of memory lymphocytes to remember previous infections is known as what?

A

Acquired immunity.

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69
Q

What does the lymphatic system consist of?

A

The spleen, lymph nodes, and a network of vessels that carry a clear fluid called lymph.

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70
Q

What do lymph nodes do?

A

The lymph passes through the lymph nodes where a concentration of macrophages and dendritic cells clear the lymph of debris and pathogens.

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71
Q

Which site of the lymphatic system cause activation of T and B cells?

A

Lymph nodes

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72
Q

When activated, lymph nodes become?

A

Swollen

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73
Q

Checking for swollen lymph nodes gives clues to a patients medical staff about what?

A

Possible infection’s location and cause.

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74
Q

What is the basis of immunization?

A

The ability of the immune system to remember previously encountered organisms and retain its strength against them in the future.

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75
Q

How is a person given immunity?

A

The immune system is primed with an antigen similar to the pathogen, but not as dangerous. The body responds by creating antibodies, which will prevent infection to the undesired pathogen if ever exposed.

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76
Q

When a patient is primed with an antigen, this is normally referred as?

A

A vaccine

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77
Q

How are vaccines made?

A

They are either cultured and attenuated or dead pathogens that still have surface markers.

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78
Q

Vaccines give a patient what kind of immunity?

A

Active immunity.

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79
Q

What is active immunity?

A

When a patient produces their own antibodies verses a specific pathogen.

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80
Q

When a vaccine already has the antibodies in it, this gives a patient what kind of defense?

A

Passive immunity

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81
Q

What is a negative of using passive immunity vaccines?

A

They are short term and they do not illicit acquired memory for the patient.

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82
Q

What are the concerns people have with vaccines?

A

Potential shortages and safety. Some wonder if they are worth getting.

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83
Q

What contributes to factors of insufficient vaccine supplies?

A

Insufficient stockpiles, manufacturing and production problems, and limited number of companies making vaccine. They are expensive to develop and produce and have a low profitability. The flu vaccine changes from year to year thus changing supply problems.

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84
Q

What are the possible side effects of vaccines?

A

Mild soreness at injection site and possible allergic reation.

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85
Q

Why is universal or near-universal immunization important?

A

It is necessary to reduce both individual and community risk of communicable diseases.

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86
Q

Why is it not essential that every member in a community be vaccinated?

A

Because immunizations reduce the prevalence and spread of a disease throughout a community, thus lowering the risk that a disease will get a foothold. This is known as herd immunity.

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87
Q

Why is it bad if parents don’t want to vaccinate their children and would rather rely on herd immunity?

A

If a large number of people do this it would allow for the foothold, prevalence and spread of a disease in a community. They are undermining the herd immunization.

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88
Q

Can vaccines cause autism?

A

No

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89
Q

Allergies are a result of?

A

A hypersensitive and overactive immune system.

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90
Q

What is the substance that provokes allergies?

A

Allergens

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91
Q

Name the common allergens.

A

Pollen, animal dander, dust mites, cockroaches, mold mildew, and insect venom.

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92
Q

What are some less common allergens?

A

Medications, plants, latex, metals and compounds in cosmetics.

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93
Q

Most allergic reactions are due to the production of a special type of antibody known as?

A

Immunoglobulin E (IgE)

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94
Q

The initial exposure to an allergen causes what chain of events?

A

A small or little response, followed by the production of allergen specific IgE, which then binds to mast cells.

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95
Q

What is the role of mast cells?

A

They are part of the immune system, healing process and allergic reations

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96
Q

When IgE binds to a mast cell, what occurs next?

A

The mast cells release large amounts of histamine and other components into local tissues.

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97
Q

What are the effects of histamine?

A

Increasing the inflammatory response and stimulating mucus production.

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98
Q

What does histamine do in the nose?

A

Causes congestion and sneezing.

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99
Q

What does histamine do to the eyes?

A

Itchiness and tearing.

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100
Q

What does histamine do to the skin?

A

Redness, itchiness and swelling.

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101
Q

What does histamine do to the intestines?

A

Bloating and cramping.

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102
Q

What does histamine do to the lungs?

A

Coughing, wheezing and SOB.

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103
Q

Pertaining to the lungs, in some people, an allergen can trigger what?

A

Asthma attack

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104
Q

The most serious and rare kind of allergic reaction is?

A

Anaphylaxis.

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105
Q

What is released that causes anaphylaxis?

A

Histamine is released thoughout the body.

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106
Q

Why is anaphylaxis life threatening?

A

It can cause swelling of the throat, extremely low blood pressure, fainting, heart arrhythmia, and seizures

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107
Q

What is the required treatment to stop anaphylaxis?

A

Epinephrine shot.

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108
Q

What are the 3 general strategies for dealing with allergies?

A

Avoidance, medication, immunotherapy

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109
Q

Pertaining to dealing with allergies, what does avoidance mean?

A

Changing ones behavior and/or environment to minimize exposure to allergens.

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110
Q

What medications are there to help deal with allergens and what do they do?

A

OTC antihistamines (they control symptoms, such as blocked nasal, sinus, or middle ear passages) and

RX corticosteroids via aerosol (which reduce allergy symptoms, increase effectiveness, and help limit systemic absorption and side effects)

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111
Q

What is immunotherapy?

A

It is a series of slightly increasing dose shots called “allergy shots” that over time help a person become desensitized to a particular allergen.

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112
Q

What is the physical cause of asthma?

A

Chronic inflammation of the airways and the spasm of the muscles surrounding the airways. The spasm causes constriction and the inflammation causes the airways to secrete extra mucus.

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113
Q

What are the symptoms of asthma?

A

Wheezing, tightness in chest, SOB, and coughing.

114
Q

What are the two kinds of stimulus that can cause asthma attacks?

A

Inhaled stimulus and/or non-allergen stimulus.

115
Q

What factors contribute to the development of asthma?

A

Environmental and genetic factors.

116
Q

What race has a 4 x’s higher rate of asthma and are 5 x’s more likely to die from it?

A

African Americans

117
Q

What socioeconomic factor has an affect on asthma rates?

A

Low income

118
Q

The immune system is operating at what level?

A

Cellular

119
Q

What is the first phase of infection?

A

Incubation

120
Q

What is incubation?

A

When viruses or bacteria are actively multiplying before the immune system has caught on, thus no symptoms but you can be contagious.

121
Q

Symptoms will finally appear during what phase?

A

Prodromal period.

122
Q

Many illnesses and symptoms are directly due to?

A

The body’s own immune response, not from the actual invading organism.

(Ex. The release of cytokines that travel to the brain and cause the brains thermostat to reset to a higher temperature).

123
Q

If your body is continuously releasing infectious microbes, you are considered?

A

Contagious

124
Q

What is the chain of infection?

A

Pathogen -> reservoir -> portal of exit-> means of transmission -> portal of entry-> new host.

125
Q

What is the definition of the pathogen link?

A

Beginning of the infectious disease cycle that starts with the introduction of the pathogen by invading host cells or the production of toxins that harm tissues

126
Q

What is the definition of the reservoir link?

A

The pathogen has a natural, favorable, environment, which it typically lives.

127
Q

What is the deifnition of the portal of exit link?

A

When the pathogen leaves the reservoir through a portal of exit. In humans, this includes sailva, mucous membranes, blood, feces, and nose and throat discharges.

128
Q

What is the definition of the means of transmission link?

A

Transmission that can be direct or indirect transmission.

129
Q

What is direct transmission?

A

When a pathogen is passed from touching an infected person.

130
Q

What is indirect transmission?

A

When a pathogen is passed by touching a contaminated surface.

131
Q

To infect the new host what must the pathogen have to access the body?

A

Portal of entry

132
Q

What are the portals of entry for pathogens?

A

Direct contact, penetration of the skin or mucous membrane, inhalation or ingestion.

133
Q

If the pathogen enters via a skin or mucous membrane, what could occur to the location of tissue that they entered in?

A

The pathogen can cause a local infection of the tissue.

134
Q

If the pathogen enters the bloodstream or lymphatic system what could it cause?

A

Systemic infection.

135
Q

How do STD’s usually enter the body?

A

Musous membrane linings of urethra or cervix.

136
Q

If an organism is transmitted via respiratory secretions, what could this cause in a person?

A

Respiratory infections, or pneumonia. They can cause systemic infections.

137
Q

These organisms will enter the body, and will locate and travel to the tissue that will best support their reproduction needs.

A

Foodborne or waterborne organisms.

138
Q

What are the factors that determine whether a pathogen will be able to establish itself in a new host?

A

This depends on the host. People with a strong immune system or resistance to that pathogen won’t become ill while people with poor immune systems will. In a weak host the pathogen will multiply, producing disease, and possibly will become new reservoir for which the chain of infection can be started.

139
Q

Interrupting the chain of infection at any point can do what?

A

Prevent disease

140
Q

What are some of the strategies for breaking the chain of events in the public health measures?

A

Quarantine the ill, killing insects or animals that carry pathogens, public sanitary practices, handwashing, facemasks, immunizations and the treatment of affected host.

141
Q

If there was a rapid spread of disease or health condition what would this be called?

A

Epidemic

142
Q

When is an outbreak defined as epidemic?

A

When there is an outbreak of infectious diseases and/or health conditions not caused by infectious organisms (obesity, diabetes) that are not widespread.

143
Q

What is the most important underlying premise of an epidemic?

A

Occurence of the disease is greater than what is normally expected.

144
Q

What type of highly reoccurring and finacially ruining “disease” would not be considered an epidemic?

A

The common cold.

145
Q

Name one “epidemic” that was named as an epidemic even though it should not have been… And why shouldn’t it have been?

A

Ebola virus… Shouldn’t be termed an epidemic becaue it’s never been widespread.

146
Q

If an epidemic becomes widespread what is it now called?

A

Pandemic

147
Q

Can a pandemic be caused by infectious disease and/or a health condition brought on by a non-infectious organism?

A

No, a pandemic can only be caused exclusively by an infectious disease.

148
Q

In history, name a few pandemics that have occurred worldwide.

A

Bubonic plague, smallpox, 1918-1919 influenza

149
Q

Are all widespreasd diseases pandemics?

A

No, an infectious disease that is maintained in the human population or particular area in the absence of introduction of internal infectious agents is said to be an endemic.

150
Q

What is H1N1 influenza A aslo known as?

A

Swine flu

151
Q

Why did the H1N1 influenza A virus become deadly?

A

It was a new strain and most people had no immunity to it. This strain was a combination of 4 different viruses (2 from swine flu viruses, 1 from avian flu virus, and 1 from human flu virus.

152
Q

Did the H1N1 influenza A virus become a pandemic, epidemic, or endemic?

A

The WHO reported that the H1N1 virus became a pandemic.

153
Q

What is H5N1 influenza virus also known as?

A

Avian bird flu

154
Q

Whom does the H5N1 strain infect?

A

Humans, chickens, ducks, and geese as well as wild birds… But it doesn’t pass easliy from human to human.

155
Q

Worldwide, infectious diseases account for how many deaths each year?

A

11 million per year

156
Q

What are the pathogens that are included in infectious diseases that kill people worldwide?

A

Bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, parasitic worms, and prions.

157
Q

What is the most abundant living thing that lives on this planet?

A

Bacteria

158
Q

This organism reproduces by splitting into a pair of two identical cells.

A

Bacteria

159
Q

What shapes are bacteria normally classified by?

A

Bacilli, cocci, vibrio, and spirochete

160
Q

Are there more bacteria that are pathogenic or beneficial to humans on this planet?

A

There are more beneficial bacteria on this planet

161
Q

Why is it that a pathogenic bacteria has a hard time getting a hold in a person’s gastro-intestinal tract?

A

Beneficial bacteria, known as normal flora, reside in the tract which give no foothold to the pathogenic bacteria. Once there is no beneficial bacteria in the tract then a foothold is available for pathogenic bacteria to grow.

162
Q

What are ways that a pathogenic bacteria can get into the body and crowd out helpful bacteria?

A

They can enter the body through a cut in the skin, via an insect bite, from contaminated food or drink, or sexual activity.

163
Q

How can one classify pneumonia?

A

Pneumonia can be called inflammation of the lungs that is caused by infection with bacteria, viruses, fungi, or by contact with chemical toxins or irritants.

164
Q

If your air sacs become clogged with fluid and prevent oxygen from reaching the bloodstream, what disease are we talking about?

A

Pneumonia, it can cause alveoli to become clogged with fluid

165
Q

Typically in what disease state will an individual normally contract pneumonia?

A

Pneumonia often follows another illness, such as a cold, flu, or any immunocompromising disease.

166
Q

What is the demographic of people who typically contract pneumonia?

A

Under the age of 2 or over the age of 75, and those with chronic health problems such as heart disease, asthma, or HIV

167
Q

What is the leaading cause of death worldwide for children under the age of 5?

A

Pneumonia

168
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae or pneumococcus

169
Q

What other bacterias can cause pneumonia?

A

Haemophilus influenza, chlamydia pneumoniae, and mycoplasma pneumoniae.

170
Q

What bacteria causes walking pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

171
Q

m. pneumoniae outbreaks are normally associated with what demographics?

A

Young adults in crowded settings.

172
Q

In meningitis, what happens to the protective covering of the brain?

A

Inflammation of the meninges

173
Q

What can cause an infection of meningitis?

A

Bacteria, virus, fungus, or parasite

174
Q

What is the most common type of meningitis?

A

Viral

175
Q

Which type of meningitis is considered life-threatening?

A

Bacterial

176
Q

If you suspect that a patient might have meningitis, what must you do?

A

Treat first, then confirm (empirical treatment)

177
Q

If you suspect your patient has meningitis, what was their presenting symptoms for which you made this assumption?

A

Fever, severe headache, stiff neck, sensitivity to light, and confusion

178
Q

Before 1990, what bacteria was the main cause of bacterial meningitis?

A

Heamophilus influenzae

(Hib vaccine developed)

179
Q

Today, what are the leading causes of bacterial meningitis, particularly in adolescents and young adults?

A

Neisseria meningitidis and streptococcus pneumoniae

180
Q

Which gram (+) bacteria is spherical-shaped, often growns in chains, causes a red sore throat with white exudate on the tonsils, swollen lymph nodes, fever and headache?

A

Streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat)

181
Q

How is strep throat spread?

A

Through close contact with an infected person via respiratory droplets

182
Q

If strep throat is left untreated, what could happen?

A

It can develop into serious rheumatic fever

183
Q

What other diseases can streptococcus cause?

A

Scarletina (scarlet fever), impetigo, and erysipelas. It can also cause necrotizing fascitis and pneumonia endocarditis.

184
Q

Which gram (+) bacteria is sperical-shaped, often grows in small clusters and is typically found on the skin and nasal passages of healthy people?

A

Staphylococcus.

185
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is typically responsible for this kind of disease via the release of a toxin that is responsible for the massive proliferation of T cells that cause a cytotoxic storm.

A

Toxic shock syndrome

186
Q

What is a cytotoxic storm?

A

Massive proliferation of T cells that cause tissue damage, widespread coagulation of blood in the blood vessels, and organ failure.

187
Q

Staphylococcus has a very serious antibiotic resistant infection that is known as what?

A

MRSA —> Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

188
Q

Where does MRSA typically occur?

A

nosocomial infection in hospital

189
Q

What does a typical MRSA infection on the skin look like?

A

A painful lesion that resembles a spider bite

190
Q

Other than the hospital, where else are common sites for people to contract MRSA?

A

Close contact areas such as locker rooms and playing fields

191
Q

What is the best way to control the spread of MRSA?

A

Good hygiene and hand washing

192
Q

What bacterial infection is a chronic lung infection that spreads through the respiratory tract and usually affects the lungs causing the symptoms of coughing, fatigue, night sweats, weight loss, and fever? Name the bacteria.

A

Tuberculosis caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis

193
Q

TB is typically found in what people?

A

Patients with HIV, recent immigrants from countries where TB is an endemic, and those who live in inner cities.

194
Q

How many drugs do we have to fight TB?

A

There are 4 drugs to treat patients with TB

195
Q

What makes XDR TB special?

A

It is extremely resistant to TB drugs as well as second line drugs

196
Q

Who is a vector in the transmission of Lyme disease?

A

Tick

197
Q

The bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi will cause what disease and how is it transmitted?

A

Lyme disease and tick vector

198
Q

A patient presents with chronic recurring arhtritis, impaired coordination, partial facial paralysis, heart rhythm abnormalities and a bulls-eye rash. What do you suspect the patient has?

A

Lyme disease

199
Q

What does the third stage of Lyme disease typically present with?

A

Chronic recurring arhtritis.

200
Q

What bacterium causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever and typhus?

A

Rickettsia

201
Q

Chronic use of NSAIDS will contribute to the development of 10% of all these.

A

Ulcers

202
Q

90% of uclers are known to be caused by what?

A

Infection of the bacterium Helicobacter pylori

203
Q

If a patient who takes NSAIDs develops an ulcer, what would you test for?

A

Test for Helicobacter pylori because withdrawing NSAIDs alone will not cure them.

204
Q

This bacterium works with urease to break down urea, allowing it to live in an area of higher pH.

A

Helicobacter pylori

205
Q

Lockjaw is cause by what bacterium?

A

Clostridium tetani

206
Q

A couple just had a newborn baby girl. They live a holistic, natural-only type of life and don’t believe in the use of preservatives or chemicals in any aspect of their lives. What must you warn them about when it comes to their lifestyle and its effects on their newborn?

A

Raw, natural honey will have Clostridium botulinum which can cause lockjaw and possible death in the baby

207
Q

If there is a toxin in a patient that causes muscular stiffness and spasms, it can be fatal in 30% of cases, what is this disease?

A

Tetanus

208
Q

How do newborns typically contract tetanus?

A

From unsterile cutting of the umbilical cord.

209
Q

Worldwide 200,000 people die each year from what disease?

A

Tetanus

210
Q

Other than MRSA, what is the other major nosocomial bacterial infection?

A

Clostridium difficile

211
Q

Why does the nosocomial infection C. diff occur?

A

Patients present with conditions that require chronic antibiotics, allowing the bacterial spores found in the hospital setting to infect the patient

212
Q

As a PA (and other healthcare providers), how can you help reduce the risk of the spread of C. diff?

A

Wash your hands frequently, before and after each patient.

213
Q

Your patient presents with a complaint of rapid burst of coughing followed by long inhalations accompanied with a low pitch whoop. What do you suspect and what is it caused by?

A

Highly contagious respiratory illness know as pertussis, aka whooping cough, caused by Bordetella pertussis.

214
Q

Is there a vaccine for Bordetella pertussis?

A

Yes

215
Q

Besides STDs, what is another infection you should warn your sexually active female patient about?

A

UTI’s. Although they can occur in anyone, they are most common in sexually active females.

216
Q

What bacterium is responsible for 90% of all UTIs?

A

E. coli

217
Q

How does the bacterium E. coli get from a person’s digestive tract or lining of the skin to cause a UTI in a woman?

A

E. coli that is on the skin and anus region gets pushed towards the opening of the urethra during sexual intercourse.

218
Q

How might one determine if a female is more likely to get a UTI?

A

The length of her urethra. The shorter it is the more likely she is to get infected.

219
Q

Inflammation, caused by the gathering of WBCs may lead to what kind of damage?

A

Scarring and permanently damaged tissue.

220
Q

How do patients promote the occurance of antibiotic resistance?

A

By failing to take the full course of an antibiotic, inappropriately taking antibiotics for viral infections, as well as the use of antibiotics in agriculture

221
Q

What are the stages in the life cycle of a virus?

A

The virus penetrates the cell, protein coat is removed, viral genes replicated and proteins produced, new protein coats assembled which viral gene inserts, and the virus exits the cell

222
Q

What is a virus?

A

A microscopic organism consisting of genetic material covered by a protein coat.

223
Q

Can a virus reproduce on its own?

A

No, it requires a host cell.

224
Q

How does the immune system of a host respond to the presence of a virus?

A

By producing interferons which block the spread of a virus infection and kill infected cells.

225
Q

What are the most contagious diseases caused by?

A

Viruses

226
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of the common cold?

A

Rhinoviruses and coronaviruses

227
Q

How are viruses almost always transmitted?

A

Hand to hand contact

228
Q

The flu kills an average of about how many people a year?

A

~ 3,600

229
Q

What do most influenza symptoms include?

A

Low grade fever and extreme fatigue

230
Q

What can occur after recovering from influenza?

A

Some can develop life threatening complications such as pneumonia.

231
Q

What are the three childhood viral illnesses?

A

Measles, Mumps, and Rubella

232
Q

If a child has a rash and a fever what could he/she have?

A

Measles or Rubella

233
Q

Which of the childhood viral infection can be passed from mother to a fetus?

A

Rubella

234
Q

If a child has swelling of a parotid gland, what might you suspect he/she might have?

A

Mumps

235
Q

Which virus, if a host is infected, will they never be free of the virus?

A

Herpesvirus

236
Q

This virus will lay latent within patient’s cells and become active periodically.

A

Herpesvirus

237
Q

What does varicella-zoster cause?

A

Chicken pox and shingles

238
Q

After the varicella-zoster rash resolves where does the virus remain latent?

A

basal ganglia of the sensory nerves.

239
Q

Where might one find HSV 1 and 2?

A

Oral and genital areas

240
Q

What can prevent an outbreak of symptoms of HSV 1 and 2?

A

Antiviral meds –> acyclovir

241
Q

What does a Tzanck smear look for?

A

Multinucleated giant cells, testing for HSV

242
Q

WHat is infectious mononucleosis also known as?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)

243
Q

In HIV infected patients, what can EBV lead to?

A

Lymphoma

244
Q

What are the 2 herpesviruses that can cause severe infections in patients with AIDS?

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) –> infects lungs, brain, colon, and eyes

Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) –> linked to kaposi sarcoma, cancer of connective tissue

245
Q

What are the possible causes of viral encephalitis?

A

HSV type 1, HIV, and mosquitoborne viruses including japanese encephalitis, equine encephalitis and West Nile virus.

246
Q

Name the Hepatitis viruses and how they are transmitted.

A

Hepatitis A –> Oral

Hepatitis B, C, and D –> Body fluid

Hepatitis E –> Feces

247
Q

WHat is a major issue with HBV and HCV?

A

90% of all infected are chronic carriers capable of infecting others.

248
Q

What virus infection affects the nervous system, causing irreversible paralysis and sometimes death?

A

Poliomyelitis

249
Q

What virus attacks the brain and is potentially fatal due to it infecting the CNS?

A

Rhabdovirus (rabies)

250
Q

What does PEP stand for and what is it for?

A

Post-Exposure Prophylaxis –> Helps provide immunity following exposure of rabies. Consists of 1 dose of immunoglobilin and 5 doeses of rabies vaccine over 28-day period.

251
Q

What virus is known to cause cancer in humans?

A

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

252
Q

What vaccine is known to be 100% effective in preventing the abnormal proliferation of cervical cells which precede the development of cervical cancer?

A

HPV vaccine, known as Gardasil

253
Q

This organism reproduces by spores and feeds on organic matter.

A

Fungus

254
Q

What is the most common fungus found naturally in the vagina of most woman?

A

Candida albicans

255
Q

What is an overgrowth of Candida albicans in the oral area normally called?

A

Thrush

256
Q

Which fungal diseases can cause systemic life threatening conditions that are extremely difficult to treat?

A

Histoplasmosis and Coccidioidomycosis

257
Q

Which fungal infection is known as “Valley Fever” and is most common in the Mississippi and Ohio River Valleys?

A

Histoplasmosis

258
Q

Which fungal infection is known as “Valley Fever” and is most frequent in the San Ioaquin Valley of California?

A

Coccidioidomycosis

259
Q

What is Tinea Capitus?

A

Fungal infection of the head

260
Q

What is Tinea Corporis?

A

Fungal infection of the body

261
Q

What is Tinea Pedis?

A

Fungal infection of the feet

262
Q

What is Tinea Cruris also known as?

A

Jock Itch

263
Q

What are protozoa?

A

Single-celled organisms that can ause a range of diseases in humans.

264
Q

What is the most infective and widely known parasitic protozoan in the world?

A

Malaria

265
Q

What causes Malaria?

A

A parasitic protozoan of the genus Plasmodium

266
Q

What protozoan infection casues severe flulike symptoms such as fever, chills, headache, nausea, vomiting, and sometimes anemia?

A

Malaria

267
Q

What is the single-celled parasite that lives in the intestines of humans and animals?

A

Giardia lamblia

268
Q

What is the most common protozoan waterborne disease in the US and what are the symptoms?

A

Giardiasis –> Nausea, diarrhea, bloating, and abdominals cramps

269
Q

What can you contract by drinking mountain water and is also known as “beaver fever”?

A

Giardia

270
Q

What is a common protozoan vaginal infection that looks like a little fish on a slide under the microscope?

A

Trichomoniasis

271
Q

What protozoan is transmitted through the bite of a tsetse fly and causes extreme fatigue, fever, rash, severe headache, CNS damage, and possible death?

A

Trypanosomiasis, aka African sleeping sickness

272
Q

This protozoan causes bloody diarrhea, stomach pains, and fever.

A

Entamoeba histolytica, which causes amoebic dysentery

273
Q

What is the largest organism that can enter the body to cause infection?

A

Parasitic worms

274
Q

What is a prion?

A

A proteinaceous infectious particle that lacks DNA or RNA and consists only of protein.

275
Q

How do prions spread?

A

By triggering normal proteins to change their structure to the abnormal damaging form

276
Q

What disorder is characterized by spongelike holes in the brain and symptoms of loss of coordination, weakness, dementia, and death?

A

Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs), such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)–> in humans, Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) –> mad cow disease, and scrapies in sheep. vCJD is a variant of CJD which occurs in humans who are infected by eating beef from cows with BSE

277
Q

What are some emerging infectious diseases?

A

Ebola, west nile virus, SARS, rotavirus, E. coli H157:h7, and hantavirus

278
Q

What are some factors that contribute to emerging infections?

A

Drug resistance, poverty, breakdown of public health measures, travel and commerce, human behaviors, mass food production , and bioterrorism.

279
Q

Name some autoimmune diseases.

A

Hashimoto’s thryroiditis, Rheumatoid arthritis, SLE.

280
Q

WHen checking for cancer, what must you see to determine if it is a cancer cell?

A

Cytoplasmic nuclear ratio

281
Q

What is the first FDA approved vaccine for cancer?

A

Prostate cancer vaccine

282
Q

What ways can we help support our immune system?

A

Diet, healthy weight , sleep well, exercise, don’t smoke, don’t drink alcohol excessively, vit D, wash hands, avoid contact with ill people, clean water, never touch wild animals, safe sex, and no injectable drugs.

Microbiology & Immunology (13 decks)

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