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Cassandra's Advanced Pathophysiology > Immunity > Flashcards

Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

What is prevalence?

A

The number of people in the community who have the condition at or during a particular time.

Disease burden

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2
Q

What is incidence?

A

It refers to the number of new individuals who developed a disease during a particular time

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3
Q

How do you calculate incidence?

A

The number of new cases divided by persons at risk times 1000

of new cases/ persons at risk then multiply by 1000

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4
Q

What is morbidity?

A

The number of cases of a disease

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5
Q

What is mortality?

A

The number of deaths due to a disease

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6
Q

What are nosocomial diseases?

A

Diseases acquired in hospital settings

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7
Q

What is a zoonotic disease?

A

A disease that occurs when a pathogen is transferred from animal to human

Example is rabies

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8
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii Can cause what?

A

They can cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever, transmitted through the bite of ticks

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9
Q

Bordelaise burgdorferi Is a bacteria that causes what?

A

It can cause Lyme disease, transmitted to humans to a bite from an infected black legged or deer tick.

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10
Q

Legionella pneumophila Causes what

A

Legionnaires disease; a bacteria amoebae in moist location (like water cooling towers)

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11
Q

What are the five periods of a disease?

A

Incubation, prodromal, illness, decline, and convalescence period.

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12
Q

What happens in the prodromal stage of a disease?

A

This occurs after the incubation period, the host begins to experience signs and symptoms of illness.

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13
Q

What happens during the period of convalescence?

A

Patient generally returns to normal functions

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14
Q

What are latent disease examples?

A

Tuberculosis and chicken pox also called varicella zoster virus

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15
Q

What is an epidemic?

A

A disease that affects a large number of people within a community population or region

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16
Q

What is a pandemic?

A

An epidemic that has spread over multiple countries or continents

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17
Q

What is an endemic?

A

A disease constantly present in a specific location.

Example: malaria in Africa, hiv in US

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18
Q

Name a couple of gram-positive a aerobes

A

Staphylococcus aureus, staphylococcus Epidermidis, So streptococcus pneumonia, streptococcus pyogens, Enterococcus faecalis, Cornybacterium Diphtheriae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Asked what do all these have in common: need oxygen because of aerobes

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19
Q

What are some gram-positive anaerobes?

Mainly to look at for reviews

A

Clostridium perfringes, clostridium botulinum, actinomyces sp.

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20
Q

Name some of the Graham negative aerobes?

Mainly for review

A

Escherichia coil, Neisseria Gonorrhea, gardnerella vaginalis, harmophilus influenzae, bordetella pertussis, moraxella catatrhalis, Enterobacter sp, klebsiella sp, salmonella sp, brucellosis sp,
Chlamydia trichomatis

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21
Q

Review Graham negative anaerobes

A

Bactericides fragility, bacteroides sp, fusobacterium sp

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22
Q

What is the difference between a PAMP and a DAMP?

A

A pamp’s molecular pattern is associated with pathogenic microorganisms.

A damp’s molecular pattern is associated with injured or stressed host cells.

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23
Q

Describe innate immunity

A

Nonspecific

One cell defends against many different types of antigens

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24
Q

Describe adaptive immunity

A

Specific

One cell will defend Against only one particular antigen

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25
Q

What do opsonins do?

A

They mark antigens for destruction by innate immune cells

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26
Q

What is Suppurative exudate similar to

A

Purulent exudate

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27
Q

What is the normal range for a white blood cells?

A

5000 to 10,000

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28
Q

Immature neutrophils called bands are stabs may equal to how much of the total white blood cell count?

A

5%

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29
Q

What composes the absolute neutrophil count?

Usually 70% of the total wbc

A

Mature neutrophils plus the number of bands or stabs

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30
Q

What is shift to the left referred to us?

A

A rise in neutrophil count, the absolute neutrophil count is greater than 70% of the white blood cell count.

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31
Q

What is neutropenia?

A

When the absolute neutrophil count is less than 2000

Mild neutropenia: 1000-2000

Moderate neutropenia: 500-1000

Severe neutropenia: 500 cells less than —Agranulocytosis

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32
Q

What drugs can lower the white blood cell count?

A

Dilantin, Tegretol, chemotherapy drugs for cancer, immuno suppressive agents for organ anti- rejection, phenytoin

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33
Q

What is aplastic anemia?

Aplastic=All

A

Reduces the production of all blood cell types

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34
Q

Basophils are also called what kind of cells?

A

Mast cells

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35
Q

Basophils can secrete what chemicals involved in inflammation ?

A

Heparin, bradykinin, histamine

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36
Q

What immunoglobulin is attached to mast cells?

A

IgE

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37
Q

What are the two functions of eosinophils?

A
  1. ) respond to parasitic infections

2. ) neutralize mast cell reaction of histamine to prevent damage of healthy tissue

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38
Q

What are the two types of T cells? Associated with cellular immunity

A

Helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells

CD4+ helper

CD8+ cytotoxic

39
Q

B cells provide what type of immunity?

A

It provides humoral immunity; B cells are memory cells (think humoral is memory because it has an M in it)

40
Q

T cells provide what type of immunity?

A

Cellular mediated immunity

41
Q

B cells or plasma cells make what?

A

Antibodies

42
Q

How many immunoglobulins are there?

A

Five

43
Q

What do natural killer cells do?

A

They can stimulate Apoptosis A.k.a. programmed Cell death, it can activate without an antigen. Helps limit the spread of viruses within the body tissues

44
Q

What type of cell is a natural killer cell?

A

A lymphocyte

45
Q

Monocytes can become what type of cells?

A

Macrophages

46
Q

What Is the function of macrophages?

A

They can Ingest or digest and process foreign antigens

47
Q

Macrophages secrete what chemical mediator?

A

Cytokines (chemical mediator of inflammation )

48
Q

Interleukin six is a chemical mediator That causes what

A

Fatigue and malaise when a person experiences an infection

49
Q

What is lymphocytosis? What does this indicate?

A

Elevated lymphocyte count;

It indicates an infection is to be more of a viral infection versus bacterial.

50
Q

What is lymphopenia?

A

Low lymphocyte count

51
Q

Lymphocytes are the white cells that are the heart of what type of immunity?

A

Adaptive immunity

52
Q

Where are gamma and Delta cells found?

A

Found in the skin and G.I. mucosa

53
Q

Dendritic cells are what type of cells?

A

Antigen presenting cells

54
Q

What does pamps stand for?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns

55
Q

Dendritic cells have surface receptors that recognize what?

A

Pamps

56
Q

What are pamps?

A

They are surface molecules that help the dendritic cells distinguish pathogens from host cells

57
Q

Dendritic cells are critical to initiating what type of immunity?

A

Innate immunity also nonspecific immunity

58
Q

What are the three cells of innate immunity

A

Macrophages
Dendritic cells
Neutrophils (granulocytes)

59
Q

What are the signs of inflammation, there are five

A

Heat, redness, pain, swelling or edema, And loss of function

60
Q

What is adaptive immunity?

A

It is the immunity a person acquires and response from specific antigen throughout life, it is acquired, specific immunity.

61
Q

What are the cells involved in adaptive immunity? There are mainly two but also another one

A

B lymphocytes And T
lymphocytes

Also antigen presenting cells

62
Q

What is an epitope?

A

It is a functional Structure on an antibody that recognizes a specific antigen.
They help identify and tag a particular antigen for Destruction

63
Q

What is opsin function in antibodies?

A

Antibody coating, It enhances the ability of Phagocytes to bind to the antigen to eat or ingest it

64
Q

What is the complement system?

A

Proteins that coat microbes in damaged cells, Marking them for destruction and clearance by phagocytic cells

65
Q

What is the alternative pathway?

A

Protects Against pathogens that are unfamiliar to the host which can’t evoke specific antibodies

66
Q

What is the classical pathway?

A

It requires the host to have her prior exposure to specific organism to develop specific antibodies to initiate the process

67
Q

What are the five Immunoglobulins?

A 
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE 
IgD
68
Q

What is important to know about

IgM?

A

It is the largest of the Immunoglobulins—macroglobulin.

It is the first antibody That is produced in response to an antigen.

69
Q

What kind of test detects immunoglobulin M?

A

Torch testing

Just extra info: Can detect antibodies to toxoplasmosis, rubella, herpes, cytomegalovirus

70
Q

Describe immunoglobulin G

A

Crosses the placenta to provide passive immunity to the fetus

Activates the classic pathway of the complement cascade

Hi responsibility for neutralizing bacteria and promoting phagocytosis

71
Q

Describe immunoglobulin A

A

Has antibodies in external body cavities
(Ask for examples: mucous, sweat, tears, bile, colostrum, intestinal tract, eyes)

Helps provide passive immunity to nursing infants Through breastmilk

72
Q

Describe immunoglobulin D

A

Unclear function, associated with B lymphocytes.

Maybe involved in differentiating B lymphocytes into mature plasma and memory cells

Think BD

73
Q

Describe Immunoglobulin E

A

Associated with mast cells or basophils

Responsible for Allergic or anaphylactic reactions

74
Q

What 2 immunoglobulins or involved in the primary and secondary immune response

What happens specifically with these two in the 2nd immune response

A

Immunoglobulin M and immunoglobulin G

In the 2nd immune response, the igG will overtake IgM

75
Q

Describe active immunity

A

A person is exposed to an antigen or get sick. They make their own immunoglobulins

76
Q

Antibodies made after exposure to an infection is an example of what type of immunity active or passive?

A

Active immunity (natural)

77
Q

Antibodies are made after getting a Vaccination,

Is this active or passive immunity?

A

(Artificially) active immunity

78
Q

Descry passive immunity

A

People cannot make their own antibodies, they don’t have time to mount a full immune response

79
Q

Antibodies receive from mom through breastmilk, is this an example of active or passive immunity

A

Passive immunity (natural)

80
Q

Antibodies received from a medicine such as gamma globulin or an antibody infusion, Is an example of what type of immunity, active or passive?

A

Passive immunity (Artificial)

81
Q

What is virulence

A

How easily the pathogen can cause disease

82
Q

What is an example of a retrovirus

A

HIV

83
Q

What is alloimmunity

A

A hypersensitivity reaction to tissues of another individual within the same specie.

Example would be immune reaction seen and liver kidney transplants

84
Q

What type of immunoglobulin is involved in type one hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Immunoglobulin E

85
Q

What are some examples of type one hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Anaphylaxis, can include allergic rhinitis, asthma eczema in hives

86
Q

What is the timeframe for a type one hypersensitivity reaction

A

Begins within about 20 minutes peaks about half an hour

87
Q

Hypersensitivity type on reactions may be treated with what type of medications?

A

Anti-histamine and mast cell stabilizers

88
Q

Describe important facts about type 2 hypersensitivity reactions.

What are the two immunoglobulins involved in this reaction and give an example of This reaction

A

Cytotoxic hypersensitivity or tissue specific reactions.

The two antibodies included in this reaction are immunoglobulins M and G.

This will occur during a blood transfusion reaction.

This involves the classical pathway

Usually hours to a day for this reaction to occur

89
Q

Describe type three hypersensitivity reactions

A

Referred to as immune complex mediated reactions

Immunoglobulins G & M form complexes to activate the compliment system

Occurs in serum sickness(tetanus antitoxin) and Arthus reactions

90
Q

Describe type 4 hypersensitivity reactions

A

This is cell mediated response (delayed)

Driven by T lymphocytes (Cd4 and cd8)
May take two or three days to develop

Examples of type 4 for reactions: Skin test for Tb,
Contact allergic reactions like poison ivy, some auto immune diseases, autograph rejections

91
Q

What is the cranial nerve that is associated with otitis media?

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve, cranial nerve 8

92
Q

What causes this disease?

A

H. Influenzae, moraxella catarrholis, strep pneumonae, staphylococcus aureus, respiratory viruses,

93
Q

What are predisposing risk factors for otitis media?

A

Allergies, adenoid hypertrophy, sinusitis, cleft palate, day care, exposure to smoke, immune deficiency

94
Q

Otitis media is what type of infection

A

Acute infection

Cassandra's Advanced Pathophysiology (9 decks)

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