ID Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five most common causes of fever in a returning traveler?

A

Malaria, dengue, typhoid fever, Mono, rickettsia

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2
Q

A blood culture with which organism should never be considered a contaminant?

A

Candida

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3
Q

Patients who have internuclear Or intracytoplasmic inclusions on a urinalysis, increasing creatinine level, and status post transplant on tacrolimus are likely to have what condition?

A

Human polyomavirus (Bk) nephropathy.

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4
Q

Bacillus anthracis TX?

A

Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, doxycycline

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5
Q

Gram pos aerobic organism, appears as sporulating rod on microscopy. Mediastinal widening from hemorrhagic lymphadenitis is classic, Dx?

A

Bacillus anthracis

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6
Q

Gram neg coccobacilli w/bipolar staining “safety pin” Dx?

A

Yersinia pestis

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7
Q

Yersinia Tx?

A

Streptomycin or Gentamicin

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8
Q

What two antibiotics are most commonly used for the treatment of diverticulitis?

A

Ciprofloxacin and Metronidazole

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9
Q

Adrenal hemorrhage, hypotension, DIC Dx?

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (meningococcemia)

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10
Q

Black eschar on face of patient with diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Mucor or Rhizopus fungal infection

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11
Q

Back pain, fever, night sweats Dx?

A

Pott disease (vertebral TB)

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12
Q

With terminal complement deficiency, to which organism are patients most susceptible?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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13
Q

Which HIV medication requires you to check HLA B-5701 to prevent hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Abacavir

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14
Q

Which HIV medication is known to cause an asymptomatic elevation in MCV?

A

Zidovudine

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15
Q

Painless erythematous lesions on palms and soles

A

Janeway lesions (infective endocarditis, septic emboli/microabscesses)

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16
Q

Painful, raised red lesions on pads of fingers/toes

A

Osler nodes (infective endocarditis, immune complex deposition)

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17
Q

Chancroid TX?

A

Azithromycin, ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, erythromycin

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18
Q

Indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

Nonpainful: chancre (primary syphilis, Treponema pallidum) Painful with exudate: chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)

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19
Q

Large rash with bulls-eye appearance

A

Erythema chronicum migrans from

Ixodes tick bite (Lyme disease: Borrelia) Tx: doxycycline

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20
Q

What reflexes (increased/decreased) would you expect with someone who is diagnosed with West Nile Virus meningitis?

A

Decreased

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21
Q

What organism is known to cause Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetti

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22
Q

What organism is known as the”great mimicker” of appendicitis?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

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23
Q

What is the number of dermatomes over which a patient with Herpes Zoster virus requires both contact and airborne precautions?

A

Two dermatomes

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24
Q

What organism can cause febrile, hemolytic anemia esp in pts who visited Nantucket or Long Island area?

A

Babesia microti

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25
Q

What is the most likely organism that causes post partum endometritis?

A

Group B Streptococcus(Streptococcus agalactiae)

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26
Q

Retinal hemorrhages with pale centers

A

Roth spots (bacterial endocarditis)

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27
Q

Red “currant jelly” sputum in alcoholic or diabetic patients

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae pneumonia

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28
Q

Strawberry tongue”

A

Scarlet fever, Kawasaki disease (only time to give children aspirin)

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29
Q

Splinter hemorrhages in fingernails

A

Bacterial endocarditis

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30
Q

Smooth, moist, painless, wart-like white lesions on genitals

A

Condylomata lata (2º syphilis)

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31
Q

Small, irregular red spots on buccal/lingual mucosa with blue-white centers

A

Koplik spots (measles [rubeola] virus)

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32
Q

Rash on palms and soles. 3 DX.

A

Coxsackie A, 2º syphilis, Rocky Mountain spotted fever

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33
Q

What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in individuals greater than 40 years of age?

A

Staph aureus

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34
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in HIV patients?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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35
Q

What is the MOST common cause of aseptic meningitis?

A

Enterovirus (more than echovirus)

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36
Q

What is the main vector of Lyme Disease in North America?

A

Ixodes scapularis

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37
Q

Empiric treatment for non complicated UTI in female?.

A

Nitrofurantoin

38
Q

What is the best treatment for penicillin-allergic, pregnant female with UTI?

A

Nitrofurantoin

39
Q

Rapid fire assoc: Enlarged cells with intranuclear inclusion bodies

A

“Owl eye” appearance of CMV

40
Q

Rapid fire assoc: Branching gram (+) rods with sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces israelii

41
Q

What enteropathic organism is most often associated with Guillain-Barre Syndrome

A

Campylobacter jejuni

42
Q

What condition is often associated with pigeon or bat droppings?

A

Histoplasmosis

43
Q

What condition is known as “spotless Rocky Mountain spotted fever”?

A

Ehrlichiosis

44
Q

What is a very common organism for UTIs in young, pregnant women?

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

45
Q

Fever, chills, headache, myalgia following antibiotic treatment for syphilis

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction (rapid lysis of spirochetes results in endotoxin release)

46
Q

Dog or cat bite resulting in infection, caused by what organism?

A

Pasteurella multocida (cellulitis at inoculation site)

47
Q

Rapid fire assoc: Intranuclear eosinophilic droplet-like bodies

A

Cowdry type A bodies (HSV or VZV)

48
Q

Rapid fire assoc:Stippled vaginal epithelial cells

A

“Clue cells” (Gardnerella vaginalis)

49
Q

Rapid fire txt: Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole (patient and partner)

50
Q

Rapid fire assoc:”Steeple” sign on frontal CXR

A

Croup (parainfluenza virus)

51
Q

Rapid fire txt: Treponema pallidum

A

Penicillin

52
Q

Rapid fire txt: toxoplasma gondii

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

53
Q

Rapid fire txt: Streptococcus bovis

A

Penicillin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer if linked to endocarditis

54
Q

Rapid fire txt: Staphylococcus aureus

A

MSSA: nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin (antistaphylococcal penicillins); MRSA: vancomycin, daptomycin, linezolid, ceftaroline

55
Q

Rapid fire txt: Sporothrix schenckii

A

Itraconazole, oral potassium iodide

56
Q

Rapid fire txt: Rickettsia ricketsii

A

Doxycycline, chloramphenicol

57
Q

Rapid fire txt: Neisseria meningitidis

A

3rd gen cephalosporin; ceftriaxone, rifampin (prophylaxis)

58
Q

Rapid fire txt: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Ceftriaxone + azithromycin or doxycycline

59
Q

Rapid fire txt: Legionella pneumophila

A

Macrolides (eg, azithromycin)

60
Q

Rapid fire txt: Enterococci

A

Vancomycin, aminopenicillins/cephalosporins

61
Q

Rapid fire txt: Candida albicans

A

Topical azoles (vaginitis); nystatin, fluconazole, caspofungin (oral/esophageal); fluconazole, caspofungin, amphotericin B (systemic)

62
Q

Which organism is the most common cause of diabetic foot ulcers?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

63
Q

Rapid fire assoc:Streptococcus bovis bacteremia

A

Colon cancer

64
Q

Which organism is notoriously known to cause hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?

A

Escherichia coli O157:H7

65
Q

Which organism is known to cause “desert rheumatism?”

A

Coccidioidomycosis

66
Q

Which organism is considered a contaminant in the blood if no central venous catheter is present?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

67
Q

Which organism commonly causes meningitis in infants and the elderly,requiring treatment with ampicillin?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

68
Q

Which organism causes Trench Fever? five-day fever of the relapsing type, rarely exhibiting a continuous course. The incubation period is relatively long, at about two weeks. The onset of symptoms is usually sudden, with high fever, severe headache, pain on moving the eyeballs, soreness of the muscles of the legs and back, and frequently hyperaesthesia of the shin

A

Bartonella quintana

69
Q

Which organism can be associated with Burkitt’s Lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)

70
Q

Patient develops a pneumonia soon after recovering from the flu. What organism is most often associated in this scenario?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

71
Q

Long-term use of which potent antibiotic requires performing regular eye exams?

A

Linezolid

72
Q

HSV how to Dx?

A

PCR or DFA Viral Culture previous gold standard useful for resistant or recalcitrant infections

73
Q

Rapid fire txt: Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Fluconazole (in AIDS patients)

74
Q

Rapid fire txt: Clostridium botulinum

A

Antitoxin

75
Q

Rapid fire txt: CMV

A

Ganciclovir, foscarnet, cidofovir

76
Q

Rapid fire txt: Clostridium tetani

A

Antitoxin

77
Q

Rapid fire txt: c diff recurrence

A

if after metro, vanc. If after vanc, fidaxomicin. Subsequent recurrence=longer vanc or vanc then rifaximin or fecal transplant

78
Q

Rapid fire txt: Clostridium difficile

A

Oral vanc or fidaxomicin

79
Q

Rapid fire txt: Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Doxycycline (+ ceftriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection), erythromycin eye drops (prophylaxis in infants)

80
Q

Rapid fire txt: actinomyces

A

Penicillin

81
Q

Severe odynophagia without thrush favours what diagnosis in a patient with HIV? These infections are commonly due to organisms?

A

ulcerative esophagitis; viruses

82
Q

Severe odynophagia, fevers, no classical candidal Esophagitis symptom should prompt what diagnostic modality?

A

Endoscopy with biopsy and culture

83
Q

What are the 3 signs of Candida esophagitis in immunosuppressed patients. They can be given an empiric trial of antifungals (oral fluconazole)

A

Moderate odynophagia, dysphagia, concurrent oral thrush

84
Q

If a patient is exposed w/in 90 d of primary, secondary or latent syphilis in a sex partner, what is the next step?

A

Penicillin treatment

85
Q

What diagnosis should be made in a patient that is treated for syphilis that involves an acute febrile illness with worsening rash?

A

jarisch herxheimer reaction

86
Q

What is the treatment for a jarisch herxheimer reaction

A

Iv fluid, acetaminophen or nsaids. Treatment supportive and illness is self limited within 48 hours of onset

87
Q

What are 3 main components of classic dengue fever?

A

Flu like febrile illness with marked myalgias & joint pains, retro orbital pain, rash (white islands in the sea of red)

88
Q

Increased vascular permeability, thrombocytopenia with platelets less than 100,000, spontaneous bleeding, positive tourniquet test which is petechiae after sphygmomanometer cuff inflation are signs of what diagnosis?

A

Dengue hemorrhagic fever

89
Q

What medicine should be given pyrimethamine to prevent bone marrow suppressio?

A

leucovorin

90
Q

When must you use a fluroquinolone for CAP treatment? otherwise treat with what?

A

When someone has comorbidities (DM, organ dysfxn, immunosuppression, ca) or recent abx in last 3 mo. Macrolide or doxy

91
Q

What antibiotic regimen should be used for infected necrotizing pancreatitis?

A

Carbapenem or fluoroquinolone + metronidazole