Heme Flashcards

1
Q

Along with homocysteine, what levels can be elevated with vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

Methylmalonic acid levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Besides elevated MCV, what else can be elevated with folate deficiency?

A

Homocysteine levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Blister cells or bite cells on peripheral smear are most often seen with what condition?

A

Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bleeding disorder with GpIb deficiency?

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome (defect in platelet adhesion to von Willebrand factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name the four main causes of microcytic anemia.

A

Thalassemia, Iron deficiency, Anemia of chronic disease, Sideroblastic anemia (mnemonic TICS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the most common vitamin K dependent clotting factors?

A

Factors II, VII, IX, and X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Patient is found to have a Pelger-Huet anomaly and hyposegmented neutrophils. What condition does this patient likely have?

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What condition is often associated with hypersegmented neutrophils?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What hematologic condition is often associated with restless leg syndrome?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What hematological condition is caused by a membrane defect of spectrin deficiency?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the earliest lab value to increase after repleting iron in patients with iron deficiency anemia?

A

Reticulocyte count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Rapid fire assoc:Stacks of RBCs

A

Rouleaux formation (high ESR, multiple myeloma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Anaphylaxis following blood transfusion Dx?

A

IgA deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Autosplenectomy (fibrosis and shrinkage) associated w/what dz?

A

Sickle cell disease (hemoglobin SS dz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rapid fire txt: Heparin reversal

A

Protamine sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Rapid fire assoc:Monoclonal antibody spike. 3 things.

A

-Multiple myeloma (usually IgG or IgA)
-Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS consequence of aging)
Waldenström (M protein= IgM) macroglobulinemia
-Primary amyloidosis

17
Q

dabigatran bleeding reversal agent?

A

Idracizumab or prothrombin complex concentrate

18
Q

Painful blue fingers/toes, hemolytic anemia

A

Cold agglutination disease (autoimmune hemolytic anemia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, infectious mononucleosis, CLL)

19
Q

Rapid fire assoc: Hypochromic, microcytic anemia

A

Iron deficiency anemia, lead poisoning, thalassemia (fetal hemoglobin sometimes present)

20
Q

Mucosal bleeding and prolonged bleeding time

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia (defect in platelet aggregation due to lack of GpIIb/IIIa)

21
Q

Rapid fire assoc:Basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs

A

Howell-Jolly bodies (due to splenectomy or nonfunctional spleen)

22
Q

Rapid fire assoc:Hair on end” (“Crew cut”) appearance on x-ray

A

β-thalassemia, sickle cell disease (marrow expansion)

23
Q

Rapid fire assoc: basophilic stippling on RBCs

A

Lead poisoning or sideroblastic anemia

24
Q

Rapid fire assoc: Antiplatelet antibodies

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

25
Q

What is the simplest test to differentiate anemia of chronic disease from iron deficiency?

A

Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)

26
Q

What mutation is often associated with polycythemia vera?

A

JAK2 mutation

27
Q

Athlete with polycythemia Dx?

A

Secondary to erythropoietin injection (blood doping)

28
Q

Which antibody is associated with cold agglutinin hemolytic anemia?

A

IgM

29
Q

If mixing study corrects PT or PTT, what would this indicate?

A

Indicates a factor deficiency.

30
Q

Myelodysplasia w/5q and w/out 5q txt?

A

Lenalidomide, azacitidine

31
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of spherocytosis?

A

Auto immune hemolytic anaemia & hereditary spherocytosis

32
Q

How do you differentiate

Auto immune hemolytic anaemia & hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Direct anti globulin test (coombs). DAT is negative in HS patients

33
Q

How do you confirm the diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Eosin 5 maleimide binding (flow cytometry) or acidified glycerol lysis test

34
Q

How do you treat hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Rbc transfusion for symptomatic anemia, folic acid supplementation, splenectomy for severe cases

35
Q

What are the 3 main diseases that patients with polycythemia Vera are at risk of developing?

A

Thrombotic events, post polycythemia myelofibrosis, acute myeloid leukaemia/Myelodysplastic syndrome

36
Q

Abdominal pain, constipation, dark urine, hyponatraemia, peripheral neuropathy, neuropsychiatric manifestations suggest what diagnosis?

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

37
Q

What is the dx test and treatment for Acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Elevated urinary porphobilinogen (PBG) during attack. Glucose loading and intravenous hemin

38
Q

What is the most common long term adverse effect of external beam radiation for prostate cancer?

A

Sexual dysfunction