I CAME TO WIN Flashcards

Final review

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1
Q

Cg / Commerce Clause

Commerce Clause (general defintion)

Con Law

A

Cg can regulate commerce

  1. channels of interstate commerce
  2. instrumentalities of interstate commerce
  3. any behavior that has a substantial effect on interstate commerce (can be aggregated)

Cg only needs a rational basis to conclude that the total incidence of the activity substantially affects interstate commerce

most robust power
if behavior is economic in nature, presumed to have substantial effect on interstate commerce

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2
Q

federalism / Dormant Commerce Clause

Dormant Commerce Clause

Con Law

A
  • limits power of states to legislate in ways that impact interstate commerce
  • arises when (1) states are acting in ways that disadvantage each other + (2) Cg is silent

If Cg has not enacted legislation on a particular area of interstate commerce, then states can regulate as long as they do not
1. discriminate against out of state commerce
2. unduly burden interstate commerce OR
3. purposely regulate wholly out of state activity

DUP

discriminates against interstate commerce –> strict scrutiny
nondiscriminatory on its face –> burden-benefit analysis

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3
Q

federalism / Dormant Commerce Clause

what does it mean to “discriminate against out of state commerce”?

Con Law

A

includes state or local laws that protect local economic interests at expense of out of state competitors

exceptions (discriminatory state law will survive):

  • necessary to serve an important state interest
  • state is acting as a market participant (buying or selling stuff)
  • Cg authorizes a state regulation of commerce (no longer dormant)
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4
Q

procedural due process / process due

factors court will weight to decide what process is due (Mathews v. Eldridge)

Con Law

A
  • individual interest at stake
  • value of procedure that is protecting the interest AND
  • government’s interest in efficiency (cost to provide the process)
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5
Q

establishment of religion clause (1st)

what it the test for challenges to the establishment clause?

Con Law

A

considers the country’s historical practices and understanding about role of religion in everyday life

establishment clause (1st)

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6
Q

freedom of expression (1st) / content-neutral restrictions

what are the requirements for the govt to restrict protected speech in a public forum?

Con Law

A

govt may restrict protected speech in a public forum if the restriction IS:

  1. neutral on its face + as applied
  2. leaves open alternative channels of communication AND
  3. narrowly serves a significant state interest
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7
Q

freedom of expression (1st) / content-neutral restrictions

what are the requirements for govt to restrict protected speech in a non-public forum?

Con Law

A
  1. viewpoint neutral AND
  2. reasonably related to a legitimate governmental interest
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8
Q

freedom of expression (1st) / content-neutral restrictions

can the govt regulate expressive conduct? what’s the test?

Con Law

A

govt CAN regulate expressive conduct as long as
1. regulation in question furthers important interest
2. interest is unrelated to the expression AND
3. burden on expression is no greater than necessary

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9
Q

takings clause (5th)

what is a regulatory taking? what factors does a court consider?

Con Law

A

govt rule adversely affects a person’s property to such an extent that it rises to the level of a taking

factors:

  • gravity of economic impact
  • extent to which regulation interferes with owner’s reasonable investment-based expectations
  • character of regulation (how much it will benefit society)
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10
Q

what is an exaction (type of Taking)? what is the rule?

Con Law

A
  • local govt conditions issuance of a building or development permit on landowner’s promise to dedicate part of the property for public use
  • taking UNLESS govt establishes
    1. essential nexus - imposed condition substantially advances a legitimate govt interest AND
    2. rough proportionality b/t proposed impact on community and impact on landowner
    govt has to make individualized determination that conditions are related in nature and extent to the impact
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11
Q

relevance / character evidence

in a criminal case, can the defendant intro evidence of their character? if so, what can the prosecution do next?

Evidence

A

defendant can intro evidence of their good character that is pertinent to the crime

defendant is limited to witnesses who will testify about opinion or reputation

this opens the door for the prosecution to rebut the defendants claims by attacking the defendant’s character

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12
Q

relevance / character evidence

can evidence of the defendant’s past crimes or bad acts be introduced?

Evidence

A

only when the evidence is used for some other purpose (like establishing a pattern of operation), not the propensity argument

MIMIC evidence
Motive
Intent
Absence of Mistake
Modus Operandi / Identity
Common plan or scheme

MIMIC are the relevant, non-character purposes

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13
Q

witnesses / impeachment

what are the basic ways to impeach a witness?

Evidence

A
  1. show that the witness is dishonest, has a bad character for truthfulness
  2. bias
  3. sensory competence
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14
Q

witnesses / impeachment

how do you show that a witness has a character for truthfulness or untruthfulness?

Evidence

A
  • character witness testimony - may be attacked through reputation or opinion, not prior specific incidents
  • specific acts - may cross examine the witness about specific acts of dishonesty if there’s a reasonable basis for asking the question, must be probative of untruthfulness, only permitted to ask, have to take the answer
  • criminal convictions
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15
Q

tangible evidence / Best Evidence Rule

what is the Best Evidence Rule? (most basic version)

Evidence

A

you can’t describe the documents (witness testimony) instead of showing them unless you really need to

limits the ability to present other evidence of the contents of a document, film, recording, etc. when the contents are an issue

“just show us the real doc instead of talking around it”

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16
Q

privileges / spousal

what are confidential marital communications?

Evidence

A

protects communications made b/t spouses in confidence in reliance on the sanctity of marriage
held by both spouses
survives after marriage

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17
Q

privileges / spousal

what is spousal immunity?

Evidence

A

gives a spouse the right to refuse to testify in a criminal case against their spouse
only applies to currently married spouses not exes
covers testimony about anything, but only applies when currently married
witness spouse holds the privilege

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18
Q

hearsay / non-hearsay

what are the two big categories that are excluded from the definition of hearsay?

Evidence

A
  1. certain prior statements of testifying witnesses
  2. admissions of a party opponent
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19
Q

hearsay / non-hearsay / certain prior statements of testifying witness

what is the threshold question for these statements?

Evidence

A

declarant (1) must testify as a witness and (2) be subject to cross-examination for these exclusions to apply to (3) their earlier statements

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20
Q

hearsay / non-hearsay / certain prior statements of testifying witness

what is the rule for prior inconsistent statements? how can they be used?

Evidence

A

only prior inconsistent statements that were (1) made under oath (2) at a trial, hearing, or deposition

are admissible as substantive evidence

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21
Q

hearsay / non-hearsay / certain prior statements of testifying witness

what is the rule for prior consistent statements? how can they be used?

Evidence

A

can be used to rehabilitate a witness when accused of recent fabrication or improper motive

can be used as substantive evidence

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22
Q

hearsay / non-hearsay / admissions of a party opponent

what is the general rule?

Evidence

A

if the statement that is being introduced against a party is the party’s own prior statement, then it is NOT hearsay

applies to anything a party said

must be offered by the opposing party

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23
Q

hearsay / exceptions / declarant unavailable

what is the list of exceptions?

Evidence

A

FADDS

  1. former testimony
  2. dying declarations
  3. statements against interest
  4. statements of personal or family history
  5. forfeiture by misconduct / declarant unavailable due to party’s wrongdoing
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24
Q

hearsay / exceptions / declarant unavailable

what is required for the dying declarations exception?

Evidence

A
  1. individual believes they’re dying
  2. individual believes death is imminent AND
  3. statement relates to the cause or circumstances of death

admissible in homicide or civil case

declarant doesn’t actually have to die

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25
Q

hearsay / exceptions / declarant unavailable

what is required for the statements against interest exception?

Evidence

A

(1) at the time it was made, statement was against the (2) declarant’s pecuniary, proprietary, civil, or penal interest (3) such that a reasonable person would not have made the statement (4) UNLESS it were true

statements that would subject the declarant to CRIMINAL liability are NOT admissible UNLESS corroborating circumstances clearly indicate the trustworthiness of the statement

applies to civil + criminal cases

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26
Q

hearsay / exceptions / declarant’s availability immaterial

what is the full list of exceptions where the declarant’s availability is immaterial?

Evidence

A

BUMPERS

  • present sense impression
  • excited utterance
  • state of mind
  • statements made for the purposes of medical diagnosis or treatment
  • past recollection recorded
  • business records
  • public records
  • learned treatises
  • judgment of previous conviction
  • records of vital stats
  • statements in ancient docs
  • market reports and commercial publications
  • marriage and baptism certificates
    etc.
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27
Q

hearsay / exceptions / declarant’s availability immaterial

what is Present Sense Impression?

Evidence

A

statement made while declarant was perceiving the event or immediately after, describes or explains the event

NOT excluded as hearsay

like narrating what’s happening in real time to someone on the phone

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28
Q

hearsay / exceptions / declarant’s availability immaterial

what is Excited Utterance?

Evidence

A

statement relating to a startling event or condition while the declarant is still under the stress of excitement caused by the event or condition

NOT excluded as hearsay

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29
Q

hearsay / exceptions / declarant’s availability immaterial

what is the State of Mind (mental, emotional, physical condition) exception?

Evidence

A

statement of a declarant’s then-existing physical, mental, emotional condition is ADMISSIBLE to prove the existence of that condition

statement of intent can be used to prove action in conformity with that intent

NOT excluded as hearsay

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30
Q

hearsay / exceptions / declarant’s availability immaterial

what is the rule for public records? (general)

Evidence

A

ADMISSIBLE if relate to
1. activities
2. observations AND
3. factual findings and conclusions

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31
Q

hearsay / Constitutional limits

what is the Confrontation Clause (6th Amendment)?

Evidence

A
  • criminal defendants have the right to be confronted with the witnesses against them
  • witnesses must testify in front of the accused (face-to-face preferred)
  • out of court statements that are testimonial give rise to Confrontation Clause problems

remember that testimonial means if declarant would reasonably expect it to be used in a prosecution

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32
Q

hearsay / Constitutional limits

when can testimonial statements be admitted under Confrontation Clause (6th)?

Evidence

A

only be admitted against a criminal defendant IF
1. declarant is now unavailable AND
2. declarant had a prior oppy to cross examine that declarant

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33
Q

when is a prior inconsistent statement admissible nonhearsay?

Evidence

A

substantively
(1) it was given under penalty of perjury at a trial, hearing, deposition, or other proceeding AND
(2) the declarant testifies and is subject to cross-examination

impeachment
extrinsically for impeachment purposes if the witness has the opportunity to explain or deny, and the adverse party can examine the witness about, the statement

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34
Q

hearsay / non hearsay

rule for using prior inconsistent statement for impeachment

Evidence

A
  • intrinsic evidence - examining witness about the statement OR
  • extrinsic evidence IF (1) witness has oppy to explain or deny AND opposing party can question witness about it
    OR
    (2) justice so requires
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35
Q

internal affairs / duty of loyalty

what must partners NOT do under duty of loyalty?

Partnerships

A
  • compete with partnership business
  • advance an interest that is adverse to the partnership
  • usurp a partnership oppy
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36
Q

internal affairs / duty of care

what must partners NOT do under the duty of care?

Partnerships

A
  • engage in grossly negligent or reckless conduct
  • engage in intentional misconduct
  • engage in a knowing violation of law

partnership agreement may not unreasonably reduce the duty of care

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37
Q

internal affairs / dividing control

give examples of situations of involuntary dissociation

Partnerships

A
  • event triggered in partnership agreement
  • expelled pursuant to partnership agreement
  • unlawful to continue to do business with that partner
  • court may order that they disassociate
  • partner goes bankrupt
  • partner dies
  • partner becomes incapacitated
  • one of the entities dissolves (if entity not human)
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38
Q

internal affairs / dividing control

what are the consequences of dissociation?

Partnerships

A

if partnership dissociates –> former parter has no right to participate in management of the partnership + partner no longer has any duties

if partnership continues –> must buy out the dissociated partner’s interest

all partners (including any properly dissociated partners) must agree to waive the right to terminate the partnership (Essay 4982)

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39
Q

what is a partnership at will?

Partnerships

A

open-ended partnership with no fixed term

dissolved when any partner chooses to dissociate

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40
Q

what is a partnership for a term or undertaking?

Partnerships

A

partnership may be dissolve when the term expires or when the undertaking is complete

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41
Q

What is the parol evidence rule for a sale of goods?

Contracts

A

Evidence of an additional promise made before the written contract was entered into that does not contradict the contract may be considered unless the parties would certainly have included the term in the contract.

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42
Q

what is the parol evidence rule?

Contracts

A

prevents a party to a written contract from presenting extrinsic evidence of a prior or contemporaneous agreement that contradicts the terms of the contract as written

whether any of the earlier oral or written terms are part of the parties’ contract, even though they are absent from the parties’ written agreement

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43
Q

irrevocable offers

what are the requirements for a firm offer?

Contracts

A

firm offer must be (1) written (2) signed by the offeror (a merchant) and (3) contain an explicit promise not to revoke

firm offer can include a condition

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44
Q

what is the rule for counteroffers under the common law?

Contracts

A

mirror image rule

terms in the acceptance must match the offer exactly or it is a counteroffer (not acceptance)

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45
Q

UCC / Counteroffers

what is the rule for counteroffers under the UCC?

A

(1) definite and seasonable expression of acceptance (2) sent within reasonable time is an acceptance (3) even though additional or different terms (4) unless acceptance is expressly made conditional on the additional/different terms

more forgiving of accpetnaces that don’t match exactly
doens’t matter whether parties are merchants

UCC 2-207

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46
Q

UCC / Counteroffers

when does an additional term in a counteroffer control?

A

only if
1. both parties are merchants
2. new term doesn’t materially alter the deal
3. initial offer didn’t expressly limit acceptance to its terms AND
4. offeror doesn’t reject/object the new term within a reasonable time

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47
Q

UCC / Counteroffers

when does a different term in a counteroffer control?
(accpetance has a different term from the initial offer)

A

knock-out rule (majority) - neither term governs, UCC gap-filling rules apply

minority states - intial offer controls

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48
Q

what are the requirements for confirming memos under UCC?

A

(1) written confirmation (2) sent within reasonable time (3) operates as an acceptance

Under the UCC, an exception to the SOF applies when
(1) both parties are merchants
(2) a memorandum sufficient against one party is sent to the other party who has reason to know of its contents, and
(3) the receiving party does not object in writing within 10 days of receipt of the memorandum.

In that case, the contract is enforceable against the receiving party even though he has not signed it.

think of early agreement + later writing with additional terms

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49
Q

does contract modification require new consideration under common law?

A

preexisting duty rule - promise to do something that you are already legally obligated to do is NOT consideration

but exceptions

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50
Q

common law / contract modification

what are the exceptions to the preexisting duty rule?

A
  • change in performance
  • 3p promising to pay
  • unforseen difficuties that would excuse performance
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51
Q

common law / contract modification

is a modification binding that promises partial payment for release from a debt obligation?

A

ask whether the debt is currenlty due and undisputed
if so, modification is NOT binding

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52
Q

what is the rule for contract modification under the UCC?

A

ask whether the modification is made in good faith
if so, is it IS binding even without new consideartion

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53
Q

consideration substitute

what are the elements of promissory estoppel / reliance?

A

PDI - promise made, deterimental reliance, injustice

  1. promise is made that would be reasonably expected to induce reliance
  2. promsie does indeed take detrminental action in reliance on the promise AND
  3. injustice can only be avoided by enforcement of the promise

don’t need to prove #2 for charitable gift promise

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54
Q

consideration substitute

what are the elements of a quasi-contract?

A
  1. plaintiff confers a measurable benefit on the defendant
  2. plaintiff reasonably expected to get paid AND
  3. it woud be unfair to let the defendant keep the benefit without paying
    look for oppy to decline or a good reason why there wasn’t an oppy to decline
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55
Q

defenses to contract formation

what are the elements of a mutual mistake?

Contracts

A

allows the adversly affected party to rescind if
1. there is a mistake of fact at the time the deal was made
2. mistake relates to a basic assumption of the contract + has material impact on the deal
3. impacted party didn’t bear the risk of mistake

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56
Q

statute of frauds

how do you satisify the SOF for a writing signed by the party against whom the contract is asserted?

Contracts

A

both signatures are NOT required
the writing does NOT have to be a formal contract
must cover the fundamental facts
1. contract has been made
2. ID the parties
3. contain the essential elements of the deal

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57
Q

statute of frauds

how do you satisify the SOF for goods?

Contracts

A

UCC world!

  • signed writing satisifes - need quantity, price not required
  • part performance satisifies but only for the quantity delivered and accepted
  • custom-made goods are EXEMPTED from SOF, can satisify SOF as soon as maker makes a substnatial beginning towards manufacturing
  • judicial admission (incl. statement during testimony or a pleading) satisifies
  • confirming memo - failure to object to a confirming memo within 10 days will satisify SOF if both parties are merchants

The UCC requires a contract for the sale of goods for $500 or more be evidenced by a writing that
(1) identifies the subject matter of the agreement,
(2) identifies the parties,
(3) contains a quantity term, and
(4) is signed by the party against whom enforcement is sought—i.e., the “party to be charged.”

A signature includes any authentication that identifies the party to be charged (not just a handwritten signature), such as a letterhead on the memorandum.

The writing need not be an actual contract. Even a series of correspondence between the parties may suffice as a writing.

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58
Q

parol evidence rule

does the PER apply to later written or verbal statements about the deal?

Contracts

A

nope

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59
Q

parol evidence rule

what steps should I follow for PER?

Contracts

A
  1. look at what the agreement entails - have the parties reduced their contract to a comprehensive writing? if so, earlier statemetns are not part of the deal
  2. have the parties created an integrated writing?
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60
Q

parol evidence rule

what are exceptions to the PER? situations where the PER doesn’t bar earlier evidence

Contracts

A
  1. will not bar evidence relevant to a defense against contract formation
  2. even if a writing is completely integrated, a party can intro evidence of a second separate deal
  3. even if a writing is completly integrated, party might be able to intro evidence of a prior comm that is designed to interpret an ambiguous term in the final agreement
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61
Q

warranties

what are the three types of warranties?

Contracts

A
  1. express warranty
  2. implied warranty of merchantability
  3. implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose
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62
Q

warranties

what is an express warranty (incl the test)?

Contracts

A

promise that affirms or describes goods + is part of the basis of the bargain unless it is merely the seller’s opinion
use of a sample or model creates an express warranty

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63
Q

warranties

what is an implied warranty of merchantability?

Contracts

A

triggered only when the seller is a merchant dealing in the goods at issue
warrants that the goods are fit for ordinary commercial purposes
can be disclaimed by using “as if” if (1) disclaimer uses the term “merchantability” and (2) must be conspicuous if in writing
can be disclaimed orally

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64
Q

warranties

what is an implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose?

Contracts

A

triggered when buyer relies on a seller’s expertise to select a special type of good that will be used for a special purpose
warrants that the goods will satisfy this special purpose
can be disclaimed if (1) conspicuous and (2) disclaimer is in writing
non merchant can extend this warranty if the buyer relies on any seller’s expertise

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65
Q

conditions

what is the standard for implied conditions in the UCC? / constructive condition of exchange

Contracts

A

perfect tender: (1) perfect goods and (2) perfect delivery

exceptions: contract explicitly changes default rule, installment contracts

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66
Q

conditions

what is the standard for implied conditions in the common law? / constructive condition of exchange

Contracts

A

substantial performance if there is not a material breach

only satisfied constructive condition of exchange if failure is not willful

divisible contracts

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67
Q

implied conditions / UCC

who bears the risk of loss? (give the full test)

Contracts

A
  1. does the contract already deal wtih this problem? if so, that controls.
  2. has either party breached? (typically part of contract)
    if so, breaching party bears risk (even if breach is totally unrelated to delivery damage)
  3. if no breach and goods are being shipped, what type of delivery contract is it?
    shipment - buyer bears risk
    destination - seller
  4. all other cases: is the seller a merchant?
    yes, risk of loss is with seller until buyer receives the goods
    no, risk of loss moves to the buyer when seller tenders the goods
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68
Q

remedies for breach / money damages

what are the 3 major limits on the calc of expectation damages?

Contracts

A
  1. expectation damages must be proven with reasonable certainty
  2. unforeseeable consequential damages
  3. mitigation
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69
Q

3p beneficiary contracts

when will a 3p NOT lose enforcement rights? / when the rights of beneficiary vests

Contracts

A

if any one of the following is true
1. beneficiary determinately relies on the rights
2. beneficiary manifests assent to the contract
3. beneficiary filed a lawsuit to enforce the contract

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70
Q

is a delegatee liable for breach (in general)?

Contracts

A

not liable unless they receive consideration from the delegating party

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71
Q

UCC / auction

can a good sold at auction be withdrawn once the auctioneer calls for bids?

Contracts

A

depends on type of auction

reserve auction - may withdraw goods prior to completion of sale

no-reserve auction - goods cannot be withdrawn after auctioneer calls for bids

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72
Q

in an auction, when can a bidder withdraw their bid?

Contracts

A

bidder has right to withdraw a bid until the auctioneer announces completion of the sale

under reserve OR no-reserve auction

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73
Q

is consideration required for assignment? what happens if there is consideration vs. no consideration?

Contracts

A

not required to have consideration

without consideration –> revocable by signer unless (1) obligor already performed (2) doc symbolizing the assigned right has been delivered to the assignee, (3) written assigns signed by the assignor has been delivered to the assignee OR (4) the assignee has determinately relied on the assignment

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74
Q

Parol Evidence Rule

what type of evidence is allowed under this Rule?

Contracts / Evidence

A

allows evidence that might add to the terms
but EXCLUDES evidence that would contradict the terms of the agreement

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75
Q

UCC

how can a seller accept a purchase order (an offer)?

Contracts

A
  1. shipping the goods
    terms of the offer are the contract terms
    effective when shipment is made
    OR
  2. promising to ship the goods
    if merchants: contract terms are terms of the offer + battle of the forms
    if not merchants: terms of offer, new terms are proposals
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76
Q

major difference between implied in fact vs. implied in law contract

Contracts

A

implied-in-fact contract is created ONLY when conduct indicates assent or agreement

implied-in-law = quasi-contract

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77
Q

factors that allow a party to cancel when there is temporary impracticability by the other side

Contracts

A

degree of uncertainty relating to the
nature and duration of situation
extent to which a delay in making substitute arrangements would have prevented the entire contract

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78
Q

when are goods in a contract identified?

Contracts

A
  1. if goods already exist + identified - when contract is made
    OR
  2. (future goods) - earliest of when goods are shipped, marked, or otherwise designated by the seller
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79
Q

when is a contract NOT assignable?

Contracts

A

if assignment would
1. materially change duty of obligor
2. materially inc burden or risk on obligor
3. materially impair obligor’s chance of obtaining return performance OR materially reduce value of that return promise
4. forbidden by statute or precluded by PBPL
5. validly precluded by contract

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80
Q

rule statement queen!

whether the contract is subject to the Statute of Frauds

Contracts

A

Contracts that fall within the Statute of Frauds are unenforceable unless evidenced in writing and signed by the party to be charged.

A contract for the sale of goods for a price of $500 or more is subject to the SOF.

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81
Q

what are accord and satisfaction?

A

parties to an earlier contract agree that performance will be satisfied instead by the completion of a different performance
the new performance is the accord
excusal of the initial performance obligation is the satsification

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82
Q

UCC installment contracts

Contracts

A

each installment
buyer MAY REJECT nonconforming goods that can’t be cured OR substantially impairs the value of the installment
buyer MUST ACCEPT conforming shipment OR nonconforming shipment with seller’s promise to cure

whole contract
buyer can cancel future installments if nonconforming goods substantially impair value

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83
Q

formation of agency relationship

when is an agency relationship created? (what are the components)

Agency

A
  1. principal manifests assent to the agent and agent manifests assent or otherwise consents
  2. agent acts on principal’s behalf AND
  3. agent’s actions are subject to principal’s control

ABC ; make sure to list these in an exam answer

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84
Q

actual express authority

what is required for actual express authority?

Agency

A

can be created via

  • oral or written words
  • clear, direct, and definite language OR
  • specific detailed terms and instructions

agent must believe they are doing what the principal wanted them to do (subjective standard) + agent’s belief must be reasonable (objective standard)

look at communication b/t agent and principal

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85
Q

actual implied authority

what is required for actual implied authority?

Agency

A

agent can take whatever actions (designated or implied) are properly necessary to achieve principal’s objectives based on agent’s reasonable understanding of the manifestations and objectives of the principal

implied authority act within accepted business customs or general trade usage w/in an industry (agent must be aware of these before they act)

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86
Q

apparent authority

what is apparent authority?

Agency

A

derives from a reasonable reliance of a 3p on that party’s perception of the level of authority granted to the agent by the principal

perception is based on principal’s behavior

does not require 3p to establish that they acted in reliance of principal’s manifestations or suffered a determined

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87
Q

what is required for estoppel?

Agency

A

principal is liable for the appearance of authority arising solely from the principal’s failure to take reasonable steps and use ordinary care

  1. 3p is justifiably induced
  2. to make a detrimental change in position b/c
  3. that 3p believed the transaction was entered into for the principal AND
  4. the principal (a) intentionally or carelessly caused the belief or (b) failed to take reasonable steps to notify them of the facts
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88
Q

tip

  • if deciding whether principal is bound by actions of agent, think about this
  • if deciding whether agent is bound, think about this

Agency

A
  • principal - actual vs. apparent authority
  • agent - undisclosed vs. disclosed principal
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89
Q

veil piercing

what factors does a court consider when deciding to pierce the veil?

Corporations

A
  1. alter ego - investor/SH treated corporation just like itself
  2. undercapitalization
  3. fraud / fraud-like behavior
  4. failure to follow corporate formalities (doesn’t apply to LLC)
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90
Q

sale of securities / federal causes of action

what is required for 10b-5 action from a private plaintiff?

Corporations

A
  1. plaintiff purchased or sold the security
  2. transaction involves interstate commerce
  3. defendant engaged in fraudulent or deceptive conduct - making an untrue statement of a material fact (does not include opinions or predictions)
  4. conduct related to material info
  5. defendant acted with scienter - intentionally or recklessly
  6. plaintiff relied on D’s conduct
  7. P suffered harm
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91
Q

sale of securities / insider trading

what are the elements of insider trading (section 16(b))?

Corporations

A
  1. applicable companies –> traded on national securities exchange OR assets over $10mm and over 500 SH
  2. corporate insiders - BOD, officers, SH with 10+%
  3. generally only transactions during or after becoming an insider (not before)
  4. during any 6 month period, corporate insider who buys and sells the stock is liable to corporation for any profits

reason of buying/selling and having non-public info is irrelevant

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92
Q

shareholder meetings

proxy - what is required to be legally effective?

Corporations

A
  1. must be in writing
  2. signed by SH as of record date
  3. sent to secretary of corporation
  4. state that it authorizes someone else to vote SH’s shares AND
  5. cannot be valid for more than 11 month unless otherwise specified
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93
Q

SH litigation

derivative lawsuits

Corporations

A
  • SH is suing on behalf of the corp for injury caused to the corporation
  • must be SH at time of harm and hold shares throughout the litigation (standing)
  • must fairly and adequately represent the interests of corporation
  • plaintiff SH has to first file a written demand BOD bring the lawsuit before SH can bring the suit (but demand futility defense in some states)
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94
Q

Duty of Care

Corporations

A
  • act with care that a person in a like position would reasonably believe appropriate under similar circumstances
  • D/O owe this to corporation
  • Business Judgment Rule
  • use your special skills (accounting, law)
  • reliance defense - D/O is entitled to rely on expertise of officers, other employees, outside experts, committees
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95
Q

Business Judgment Rule

Corporations

A

In making a business decision, there is a rebuttable presumption that the directors acted on an informed basis, in good faith, and their actions were in the best interest of the company, in the absence of fraud, illegality, or self-dealing.

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96
Q

Duty of Loyalty

Corporations

A
  • may not receive an unfair benefit to the detriment of the corporation w/o effective disclosure and ratification
  • self-dealing transitions
  • corporation opportunity doctrine - usurping or stealing a corp oppy

ways to cleanse
1. disclosed and ratified by vote of majority of disinterested directors
2. “” disinterred SH
3. demonstrate that the transaction was fair (best defense)

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97
Q

director’s DOL in usurping a corporate opportunity instead of first offering it to corporation –> what test applies

Corporations

A

trying to determine whether the oppy is the type where it must first be offered to the corp

  1. interest or expectancy test
    whether the corporation has an existing interest or an expectancy arising from an existing right in the opportunity

expectancy can also exist when the corporation is actively seeking a similar opportunity

  1. line of business test
    whether the opportunity is within the corporation’s current or prospective line of business
    key is how expansively the corporation’s line of business is characterized
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98
Q

piercing the corporate veil - mere instrumentality test

Corporations

A
  1. members dominated the entity in such a way that the LLC had no will of its own
  2. members used that domination to commit a fraud or wrong
  3. control and wrongful action proximately caused the injury
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99
Q

piercing the corporate veil - unity of interest and ownership test

Corporations

A

petitioner must demonstrate that there was
such a unity of interest and ownership b/t entity and members that, in fact, the LLC did not have an existence independent of the members and
that failure to pierce the veil through to the members would be unjust or inequitable

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100
Q

contracting out of duty of loyalty

Corporations

A

operating agreement can amend the duty of loyalty as long as it is not manifestly unreasonable

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101
Q

conflict of interest - define it!

Corporations

A
  • self-dealing
  • any transaction b/t director and corp that would normally require approval of the board of directors AND that is of such financial significance to the director that it would reasonably be expected to influence the director’s vote on the transaction
  • can be direct or indirect
  • must be financial and material
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102
Q

tip

MPT section

A
  • make sure to include lots of analysis in each part
  • if no structure given, see if one of the cases gives a structure
  • write numbers in blue pen to correspond to issue then cross out numbers
  • make sure to include a conclusion section
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103
Q

choice of law / limits

constitutional limits

Conflict of Laws

A
  1. Due Process Clause (14th) - forum state may apply to its own law to a particular case only if it has significant contact or aggregation of contacts so that it’s neither arbitrary nor fundamentally unfair
  2. Full Faith and Credit - forum state to apply law of another state when forum state has no contacts or interest in the controversy

state may apply its own substantive law to an issue
ONLY IF state has a significant contact or aggregation of contacts with the issue
such that application of its own law is neither arbitrary nor fundamentally unfair

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104
Q

choice of law / contract clause

courts will enforce a contractual choice of law provision IF (give the test)

Conflict of Laws

A
  1. valid agreement with effective choice of law clause
  2. applicable to the lawsuit under terms of contract
  3. reasonably related to the lawsuit AND
  4. not in violation of pbpl of forum state or another interested state

choice of law provisions are generally enforceable

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105
Q

choice of law / approaches

list the approaches

Conflict of Laws

A
  1. traditional approach / vested rights approach / 1st Restatement
  2. governmental interest analysis
  3. most significant relationship / 2nd Restatement
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106
Q

choice of law / approaches

traditional / vested rights approach (R1st)

Conflict of Laws

A

law that controls is the law of the jurisdiction where the parties’ rights were vested
(act or relationship that gave rise to the cause of action occurred or was created)
court only needs to determine where legal right vested + apply law of that place

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107
Q

choice of law / approaches

governmental interest approach

Conflict of Laws

A

presumed that forum state will apply its own law, but another state may have a greater interest

state has interest in applying conduct-regulating law when wrongful conduct occurs w/in its territory or domiciliary is injury
state has interest in applying loss-shifting law when it would benefit a state domiciliary

conduct-regulating laws - designed to regulate conduct, label conduct as wrongful
loss-shifting laws - determine who can/can’t be liable

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108
Q

choice of law / approaches

most significant relationship analysis (R2d)

Conflict of Laws

A

court must determine which state has the most significant relationship to the issue in question
apply guiding principles (key ones below)

  1. promote relevant policies of the forum and other interested states
  2. protect systemic interests like certainty, uniformity, predictability, and simplicity
  3. protect justified expectations of the parties for planned transactions

additional factors for certain areas of law (torts, contracts, etc.)

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109
Q

recognition of foreign judgments

what laws apply if a federal court is exercising federal question jurisdiction

Conflict of Laws

A

federal law always

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110
Q

what laws apply if federal court has diversity jurisdiction

Conflict of Laws

A

federal district court in diversity case must apply choice of law rules of the state in which it sits

Klaxon Rule

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111
Q

recognition of foreign judgments

federal court with state judgment

Conflict of Laws

A

federal courts must give full faith and credit to state court judgments

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112
Q

recognition of foreign judgments

state court with federal judgment

Conflict of Laws

A

if federal court had diversity jurisdiction over an action issues a judgment, then state court must give that judgment the same res judicata effect that judgment would have been given by courts of state where federal court was located

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113
Q

recognition of foreign judgments / Erie

Erie doctrine (generally)

Conflict of Laws

A

federal courts exercising diversity jurisdiction must apply the
* substantive law of the states in which they sit as the law has been interpreted by the highest state court
* federal procedural

it is substantive if it is outcome determinative in a direct and certain enough way that it encourages forum shopping between state and federal court

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114
Q

MEE

A
  • could write issue statements in yes/no + because format
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115
Q

mens rea / common law

malice

common law

A

D acts in reckless disregard of a high degree of harm, D realizes the risk and acts anyway

Arson and Murder

“I AM certain there are two malice crimes”

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116
Q

mens rea / MPC

purposely

MPC

A

D’s conscious objective is to engage in the conduct or to cause a certain result

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117
Q

mens rea / MPC

knowingly (or willfully)

MPC

A

D is aware that
1. their conduct is of the nature required to commit the crime
AND
2. the result is practically certain to occur from this conduct

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118
Q

mens rea / MPC

recklessly

MPC

A

D acts with a conscious disregard of a substantial and unjustifiable risk that
constitutes a gross deviation from the standard of conduct of a law-abiding person

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119
Q

mens rea / MPC

negligently

MPC

A

D should be aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk
and acts in a way that grossly deviates from the standard of care of a reasonable person in the same situation

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120
Q

principals, accomplices, aiders, abettors

what is an accomplice liable for?

A

both the planned crime + any other foreseeable crimes that occur in the course of the criminal act

crimes that are the natural and probable consequnece of their conduct

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121
Q

principals, accomplices, aiders, abettors

mental state of accomplices

A

majority + MPC approach
accomplice (1) must act with the purpose of promoting or facilitating the commission of the offense
AND
(2) must intend that their acts will assist or encourage the criminal conduct

minority
accomplice is liable IF they intentionally or knowingly aids or causes another person to commit an offense

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122
Q

negating mens rea / mistake

mistake of fact

A

general intent crimes
defense ONLY IF mistake is reasonable + goes to criminal intent

specific intent crimes
are a defense whether the mistake is reasonable or unreasonable
question is whether the D held the mistaken belief

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123
Q

negating mens rea / insanity

tests for insanity

A

D has the burden of proving insanity either by a preponderance of the evidence OR clear and convincing evidence

  1. M’Naghten test
    D either did not know the nature of the act OR did not know the act was wrong B/C OF mental disease or defect
  2. Irresistible impulse test
    D has a mental disease or defect that prevents D from controlling themself
  3. Durham rule
    D would not have committed the crime BUT FOR having a mental disease or defect
  4. MPC
    due to a mental disease or defect, D did not have substantial capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of their actions OR to confirm their conduct to the law
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124
Q

inchoate crimes / conspiracy

elements of conspiracy under federal law, MPC, majority states

MPC

A
  1. agreement
  2. b/t 2+ people
  3. to commit an unlawful act
  4. performance of an overt act (lawful or unlawful) in furtherance of the conspiracy

MPC doesn’t require overt act if conspiratorial crime is felony 1st or 2nd

#4 is difference from common law

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125
Q

inchoate crimes / conspiracy

how do you withdraw from a conspiracy?

A

MPC / federal law
conspirator can withdraw prior to the commission of any overt act by communicating her intention to withdraw to all other conspirators OR by informing law enforcement

after an overt act, conspirator can withdraw only by helping to thwart the success of a conspiracy

common law
impossible to withdraw b/c crime is complete the moment the agreement is made

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126
Q

homicide

what causation is needed for homicide?

A

must be a causal relationship b/t D’s actions and what happened to victim

actual causation - victim wouldn’t have died but for what D did
AND
proximate causation - D’s act is a foreseeable cause of victim’s death / death is the natural and probable result of the conduct

independent actions by 3p are not a foreseeable cause

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127
Q

homicide / first degree murder

what is required for first degree murder?

A
  • specific intent crime
  • deliberate and premeditated murder OR
  • a killing that results during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony

felony murder is frequently classified as M1

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128
Q

homicide / common law murder

definition of common law murder

A

unlawful killing of another human being committed with malice aforethought
lawful killing of another is not murder (ex. state execution)

  1. intent to kill - D acted with desire that the victim end up dead, intent need not be premeditated
  2. intent to inflict serious bodily harm - D intended to hurt the victim badly and victim died
  3. abandoned or malignant heart or depraved heart - D acted with cavalier disregard for human life and death resulted
    D must realize their conduct is really risky, but doesn’t need intent regarding outcome of actions
    majority + MPC: D must actually realize there is danger
    minority: reasonable person would have recognized the danger
  4. felony - death occurred during the commission or attempted commission of a dangerous felony (BARRK felonies)
    dangerous felony must be independent of killing itself
    can involve someone who resists the felony
    includes when bystander is killed during a felony
    can include 3p killed by resistor or police (majority uses agency theory - D is only responsible for crimes of D’s agents)
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129
Q

homicide / manslaughter

voluntary manslaughter

A
  • occurs when a D intends to kill the victim, but mens rea is less blameworthy than murder
  • acted in heat of passion or under extreme emotional disturbance
  • test: is this situation one in which most people would act w/o thinking and w/o time to cool off?

ex. walking in to your spouse in bed with someone else (not hearing about it)

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130
Q

homicide / manslaughter

involuntary manslaughter

A
  • criminally negligent killing OR killing someone while committing someone other than those covered by felony murder (BARRK)
  • D who engages in a criminally negligent conduct and causes a death
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131
Q

property crimes / robbery

elements of robbery

common law

A

robbery = larceny + assault

  1. taking
  2. another person’s property
  3. without their consent
  4. with intent to deprive them of it permanently
  5. taking occurs from victim’s person or in their presence
  6. either by violence or putting victim in fear of imminent physical harm
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132
Q

battery

elements of battery

Crim

A
  1. unlawful (consent is a complete defense)
  2. application of force
  3. to another person
  4. that causes bodily harm OR an offensive touching

general intent crime
doesn’t require actual physical contact b/t D and victim

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133
Q

arrests + seizures

what is a seizure

A
  • occurs when an officer, by means of physical force or show or authority, intentionally terminates or restrains a person’s freedom of movement
  • whether a reasonable person would feel free to disregard the officer
  • stop and frisk / Terry stop
  • traffic stops
  • arrests
  • warrants
  • warrantless arrests
  • searches incident to arrest
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134
Q

arrests + seizures

stop and frisk / Terry stop

A
  • officer stops an individual when officer has reasonable suspicion based on articulable facts to believe suspect is or about to be engaged in criminal behavior
  • officer’s reasonable mistake of law can give rise to reasonable suspicion
  • can pat down for only weapons, not evidence
  • if pat down reveals objects whose shape makes their identity obvious, officer can seize
  • if probable cause develops during a Terry stop, officer can make an arrest
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135
Q

arrests + seizures

arrests

A
  • must be probable cause to believe that the idv has committed a crime
  • can be w/ or w/o arrest warrant
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136
Q

arrests + seizures

traffic stops

A
  • officers must have reasonable suspicion to stop a car
  • once lawful stop, officers may pat down an occupant for weapons IF they have reasonable suspicion that person has a weapon
  • do not need reasonable suspicion at a checkpoint (stop everyone)
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137
Q

arrests + seizures

arrest warrants

A

authorizes an officer to arrest a particular person

  1. must be issued by a neutral and detached magistrate
  2. must be based on finding of probable case to believe that they committed a particular crime AND
  3. name the person and ID the offense
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138
Q

searches

requirements for search warrant

A
  1. must be issued by neutral magistrate
  2. must be based on probable cause to believe that the items sought are fruits, instrumentalities, or evidence of crime
  3. must describe the property and place to be searched with particularity

generally govt needs search warrant to conduct a search if there is a reasonable expectation of privacy

ex. bank robbery –> loot is fruit of the crime, gun is instrumentality, bloody shirt robber wore is evidence

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139
Q

arrests + seizures

in a search incident to arrest that occurs in a car, where can officer search?

A

passenger compartment of vehicle as long as suspect still has access to vehicle at the time
can’t start searching the car once suspect is in the back of the squad car b/c no longer a threat to officers and no longer risk of destruction of evidence
(but can search car if it is reasonable that evidence of the offense of arrest might be found in the vehicle)

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140
Q

searches

elements of a search

A

when (1) govt conduct violates a (2) reasonable expectation of privacy

govt conduct
* physical intrusion upon private property
* can occur without a physical intrusion
* using some types of technology (ex. thermal imaging device) can constitute a search

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141
Q

searches / warrant exceptions

list major exceptions to warrant requirement

A

ESCAPES from the warrant requirement

Exigent circumstances
Search incident to arrest
Consent
Automobiles
Plain view (if officer is legally present)
Evidence obtained from administrative searches
Stop and frisk

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142
Q

searches / warrant exceptions

exigent circumstances

A
  • if officers are in hot pursuit or there is an immediate danger, may conduct a search w/o a warrant
  • officers are entitled to secure premises while they obtain a warrant, but sometimes not sufficient
  • does not apply if police created the exigency
  • need warrant for DUI blood draw absent exigent circumstances
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143
Q

searches / warrant exceptions

automobiles

A

if police have probable cause to believe car contains contraband, can search those parts of the vehicle that might contain contraband even without an arrest

ex. can’t search the money holder for a machine gun (obvi too small to hold the gun)

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144
Q

interrogations / 5th Amend

what is a custodial interrogation?

A

Miranda warnings are required before custodial interrogations

custodial
person being questioned has been arrested or is otherwise not free to leave
if not in custody, no warning is required

interrogation
official asking questions or engaging or words or conduct that police know/should know will elicit a response
does not include volunteered statements or routine booking questions

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145
Q

5th Miranda vs. 6th Right to Counsel

how do you invoke each?

A

how to invoke
5th: must be affirmatively invoked by D

6th: auto attaches once there has been an indictment, info, or other formal charges
exists unless D knowingly and intelligently waives

charges it applies to
5th: applies to custodial interrogation for ANY charge, but not to non-custodial interrogation

6th: ONLY applies to offense for which D has actually been charged (including any lesser-included offenses)
doesn’t apply to unrelated charges - D can be questioned still
applies whether you’re in custody or not
applies to all felony prosecutions + any misdemeanor prosecutors for which jail time or suspended jail sentence is imposed
all critical stages

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146
Q

6th Amend / identification procedures

is lineup evidence at trial admissible?

A

If D moves to suppress evidence that a witness picked the D out of lineup, court will consider whether the lineup was impermissibly suggestive
if so, court can exclude the testimony

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147
Q

exclusionary rule

what is the exclusionary rule (in general)?

A

illegally obtained evidence (physical evidence obtained by illegal search OR statement from illegal interrogation) is inadmissible at criminal trial of person whose rights were violated to prove their guilt
applies at trial, not pretrial proceedings (like grand jury)
evidence obtained in violation of 4th, 5th, or 6th

applies to states through 14th

exceptions
* knock and announce
* inevitable discovery
* independent source
* attenuation in causal chain
* good faith
* negligence (half exception)

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148
Q

pretrial procedures

what’s needed for guilty plea to be valid?

A

D must knowingly and intelligently waive these rights through plea allouction where judge asks questions

  • informs D of his rights and ensures that D understands
  • informs D of possible sentences
  • informs D of immigration consquences (but judge isn’t required to inform of other collateral consequences)
  • determines that plea didn’t come from force, coercion, threats, or promises
  • makes sure there is a factual basis for the plea
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149
Q

trial process / speedy and public trial

factors court looks at for Speedy Trial Clause under 6th claim

A
  1. length of delay
  2. reason for delay
  3. whether D asserted their right to a speedy trial AND
  4. risk of prejudice to D
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150
Q

6th / Confrontation Clause

what does the Confrontation Clause guarantee D?

A
  1. right to confront witnesses against them (Crawford Doctrine)
    if statement is testimonial, 6th bars admission IF
    declarant is unavailable AND
    D had no prior oppy to cross-examine the witness

if non-testimonal statement, look at rules of evidence

  1. right to compulsory process to produce their own witnesses (Bruton Doctrine)
    D’s own statements are always admissible against him even if the D doesn’t testify at trial
    if co-D, a non-testifing co-D’s statemetns are NOT admissible against the other D
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151
Q

defense counsel

effecitve assistance test

A

Strickland test - assesses whether D was denied effective assistance
1. performance - did defense counsel’s performance fall below wide range of reasonable conduct that lawyers might engage in
2. prejudice - reasonable probability that the result would have been different if counsel performed effectively

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152
Q

sentencing / Apprendi Doctrine (6th)

what is the Apprendi Doctrine under 6th?

A

6th right to jury trial prohibits judges from enhancing sentences beyond statutory maximums based on facts other than those decided by jury beyond a resonable doubt
BUT this doesn’t apply to sentence enhancement based on prior criminal convictions (don’t need to be found by a jury)

ALSO judge is allowed to determine whether offenses are consecutive or concurrent (MBE Practice Exam #4)

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153
Q

how to determine if a confession was voluntary

Crim Pro MEE 282

A
  • voluntary confessions are not protected by Miranda
  • involuntary ONLY IF police coerced D into making it
  • based on totality of circumstances - conduct of police, characteristics of D, time of the statement
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154
Q

use / derivative use immunity + transactional immunity

Crim

A

use and derivative-use immunity (grant the woman immunity from any future use against her of her grand jury testimony or any evidence derived from it)
prevents govt from using self-incriminating testimonial communications + any evidence derived from them against the suspect in any way that could lead to a criminal prosecution

not if transactional immunity (grant the woman immunity from any future prosecution for any crime she might disclose in the course of her testimony)
protects the suspect from being prosecuted for any crimes associated with self-incriminating testimonial communications

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155
Q

rule statements for 4th, 5th, 6th

A

remember to write “as applied to states through the 14th”

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156
Q

jurisdiction / intro

what are the types of jurisdiction?

A
  1. SMJ - power of ct to decide this type of case
  2. PJ - power of ct to decide the rights and liabilities of this D
  3. Venue - which districts have proper venue (among cts with SMJ + PJ)
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157
Q

SMJ / Diversity Jurisdiction / citizenship

what is the general rule for Complete Diversity?

A
  • complete diversity is required
  • every citizenship represented on P’s side must be different from every citizenship represented on D’s side
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158
Q

SMJ / Diversity Jurisdiction / amount in controversy

can you aggregate claims if there is (1) one P and one D, (2) one P + multiple D, and (3) multiple P + one D?

A

one P + one D
yep, P can aggregate all of her claims regardless of whether the claims are related

one P + multiple D
P may not aggregate claims

claims against each D must meet $75k

multiple P + one D
P may not aggregate claims

each P must seek $75k+ from D

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159
Q

SMJ / Removal Jurisdiction

what is the general rule for removal?

A

removal is proper ONLY if the case originally could have been brought in federal court

if the P chose to sue in federal court in the first place, would the fed ct had SMJ?

only D can remove

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160
Q

SMJ / Removal Jurisdiction / Diversity Cases

when is removal based on diversity jurisdiction allowed?

A

only if
1. complete diversity
2. amount in controversy
AND
3. action is brought in a state of which no defendant is a citizen

must remove within one year of the commencement of action in state court UNLESS P acted in bad faith

if in D’s home state court, D can’t remove

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161
Q

SMJ / Supplemental Jurisdiction

what is the basic rule for supplemental jurisdiction?

A

allows a federal court with SMJ over a case to hear additional claims over which the ct would not independently have jurisdiction if ALL the claims constitute the same case or controversy

same case or controversy if arise out of same common nucleus of operative fact, same transaction or occurrence

not required to expand its jurisdiction

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162
Q

SMJ / Supplemental Jurisdiction in Federal Question

how does supplemental jurisdiction apply to federal question cases?

A

focus on the anchor claim (the federal question claim not the state law claim)

if both claims are out of the same common nucleus of operative fact, fed ct may exercise supp jurisdiction over state law claim

doesn’t matter whether those claims involve joinder

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163
Q

SMJ / Supplemental Jurisdiction in Diversity Jurisdiction

what is the basic rule for supplemental jurisdiction in diversity jurisdiction cases?

A

state law claims must still be part of the same case or controversy / common nucleus of operative fact

CAN’T exercise supp juris over

  • claims by P against persons made a party under Rules 14, 19, 20, 24 (if only one D, then it’s okay)
  • claims by parties seeking to intervene as P under Rule 24
  • claims by parties proposed to be joined a P under Rule 19

these claims need to independently satisfy the div juris requirements

164
Q

what are the two types of counterclaims?

A
  • compulsory - same transaction or occurrence as the opposing party’s claim
  • permissive - does NOT arise out of same transaction or occurrence
165
Q

SMJ / Supplemental Jurisdiction in Diversity Jurisdiction

can supplemental jurisdiction apply to compulsory counterclaims?

A

if counterclaim is compulsory + brought by D, doesn’t have to meet $75k

166
Q

SMJ / Supplemental Jurisdiction in Diversity Jurisdiction

can supplemental jurisdiction apply to permissive counterclaims?

A

can only be heard by federal div court IF it independently satisfies diversity jurisdiction

167
Q

SMJ / Supplemental Jurisdiction in Diversity Jurisdiction

what is required for a cross claim to qualify for supplemental jurisdiction?

A
  1. arise out of the same t/o as anchor claim
  2. must NOT be asserted by P against a person made a party under Rules 14, 19, 20, 24
168
Q

personal jurisdiction

what are the types of personal jurisdiction?

A
  1. in personam - against the person (further divided into general or specific)
  2. in rem - against the thing
  3. quais in rem - kinda against the thing
169
Q

personal jurisdiction / in personam

what are the constitutional requirements for In Personam Jurisdiction?

A

are there sufficient contacts b/t the D and forum state so that it would be consistent with traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice to sue the D here?

Due Process

minimum contacts –> whether there is Purposeful Availement by D

170
Q

personal jurisdiction / in personam / general

what is general in personam jurisdiction? basic rule

A

P can assert any claims against D, even if unrelated to D’s contacts with the forum state

whether a corporation’s affiliations with the forum state are so “continuous and systematic” as to render the corporation essentially “at home” in the forum state

additional from Essay 4983

171
Q

personal jurisdiction / in personam / general

what are the bases for general in personam jurisdiction?

A
  1. physical presence within the state
  2. domicile
  3. consent
  4. corporations
172
Q

personal jurisdiction / in personam / general

how do you establish general in personam jurisdiction for physical presence?

A

service of process on D while they are physically present in the state –> knowingly and voluntarily in the state

EXCEPTIONS
only in the state because of summons
force
fraud

173
Q

personal jurisdiction / in personam / general

how do you establish general in personam jurisdiction through consent?

A
  1. expressly
  2. implicitly (by not raising the issue)
  3. appointment of an agent for receiving process
  4. contract
174
Q

personal jurisdiction / in personam / specific

what is the general rule for specific in personam jurisdiction?

A

P’s claim must arise out of D’s forum contacts OR be directly related to those contacts

D must have sufficient minimum contacts with forum such that exercise of juris is fair

state long arm statutes authorize specific jurisdiction based on some minor contacts

175
Q

personal jurisdiction / in personam / specific

what are the exceptions for when a federal rule gives federal courts in personam juris beyond state boundaries?

A
  1. Federal Interpleader Act - nationwide service of process
  2. Bulge Provision of Federal Rules - allows service anywhere within 100 miles of federal court for (1) impleading 3p D under Rule 14 + (2) joining necessary parties under Rule 19
  3. Unusual Provision Rule 4k2 - if D is not subj to PJ in any state + suing under federal law –> federal ct can exercise jurisdiction as long as D has minimum contacts with US as a whole
176
Q

personal jurisdiction / in rem

what is in rem jurisdiction (basic rule)?

A

suit can be brought against a piece of property if (1) property is in the state where you are suing and (2) suit will settle all rights and everyone’s claims to the property

any property - real or personal

form of specific jurisdiction

177
Q

service of process

what is the default rule for service of process in federal courts?

A

okay as long as it follows the law of the state in which the federal court is based

178
Q

injunctions

TRO requirements

A

moving party has to establish under oath
1. immediate and irreparable injury if there is a delay
2. moving party’s atty has to certify any efforts that have been made to give notice and why notice is not required

179
Q

venue / federal rule

when is federal venue proper in a district? (what is the test)

A
  1. where any D resides (as long as ALL D reside in the same state) OR
  2. where the claim arose (substantial part)
  3. if neither 1 or 2, any district where D is subject to PJ has venue
180
Q

venue / federal rule

if a case begins in state court and is removed to federal court, what happens with venue?

A

venue is automatically proper in federal district where state court sits

even if it would not have been proper originally

181
Q

choice of law (Erie)

What are the twin aims of Erie?

A
  1. avoid forum shopping
  2. avoid inequitable administration of justice
182
Q

pleadings / amendments

what is the rule to make an amendment to add or change a party?

A
  1. must concern same conduct, transaction, or occurrence as OG pleading AND
  2. new party must have known or had reason to know that the action should have been brought against it but for a mistake
183
Q

parties

what is the rule for permissible joinder?

A

P or D can join IF
1. claims are out of the same t/o (or series) AND
2. common question of law or fact

FRCP 20

184
Q

parties

what is the rule for permissive joinder with jurisdiction?

A
  • all joinder rules assume there is SMJ
  • diversity jurisdiction: no party can join whose presence would destroy complete diversity
185
Q

parties

what is the analysis for compulsory joinder of parties?

A

focus is on what D can compel P to do

  1. Is bringing in this party necessary for a just adjudication? if yes, they’re necessary
    risk of inconsistent liability, prejudice to existing parties, complete relief can’t be granted without them
  2. Is it feasible to add the new party?
    feasible if (a) won’t deprive the court of SMJ and (b) court can exercise PJ over necessary party
  3. If not, court decides to proceed without the necessary party OR dismiss the whole suit b/c they’re indispensable

a person is a required party to a federal action and must be joined (if joinder is feasible) IF any of the following is true:
(A) in that person’s absence, the court cannot accord complete relief among existing
parties; OR
(B) that person claims an interest relating to the subject of the action and is so situated that disposing of the action in the person’s absence may:
(i) as a practical matter impair or impede the person’s ability to protect the interest; or
(ii) leave an existing party subject to a substantial risk of incurring double, multiple, or otherwise inconsistent obligations because of the interest.

FRCP 19

186
Q

counterclaims

what type of counterclaims are lost if not pleaded in the current action?

A

compulsory counterclaim if lost if not pleaded now
permissible counterclaims can be raised now or later

187
Q

counterclaims

is there SMJ for compulsory counterclaims?

A

supplemental jurisdiction is generally available

if SMJ over main claim, there’s SMJ over compulsory counterclaim

diversity case: if counterclaim is raised by D, okay
amount of the claim usually doesn’t matter

188
Q

counterclaims

what is a permissive counterclaim?

A

does NOT arise out of same t/o
may be pleaded now or later
has to be timely (statute of limitations)

requires an independent jurisdictional basis –> federal question or diversity juris requirements

189
Q

what is required for a cross claim?

A

must arise out of the same t/o as original claim or counterclaim

190
Q

what is the standard for summary judgment?

A

no genuine dispute as to any material fact and moving party is entitled to judgment as a matter of law

no genuine dispute –> no reasonable juror could find for the moving party

materials in the record must generally be sworn

look at facts in light most favorable to nonmoving party

191
Q

juries

when does the right to jury trial apply?

A

federal right to trial by jury (7th Amendment)

no right to jury trial for equity issues (injunctions, specific performance, admiralty issues)

192
Q

what is a Motion for Judgment as a Matter of Law (JMOL)?

formerly Motion for Directed Verdict

A

viewing the evidence in the light most favorable to the opposing party, evidence can’t support a verdict for that party, and moving party is entitled to judgment as a matter of law

ct must find that there is legally insufficient evidence for a jury to reasonably find for nonmoving party

kinda like motion for summary judgment after trial started

FRCP 50

193
Q

what is the standard applied for a new trial with the appellate court?

A

if reason for new trial is question of law –> de novo

otherwise, abuse of discretion

194
Q

preclusion

claim preclusion (res judicata)

A
  1. final judgment on the merits in the first suit (includes default judgment, summary judgment, dismissal w/ prejudice)
  2. second suit must be b/t same parties or their successors in interest (both parties)
    AND
  3. second suit must involve the same claim or cause of action

final judgment on the merits of a claim bars re-litigation of that claim by the same parties or their successors in interest
precludes re-litigation of every claim that was raised or should have been raised in the first suit

195
Q

preclusion

issue preclusion (collateral estoppel)

A
  1. same issue of fact in both suits (even if different claims)
  2. issue must have been actually and necessarily decided in first suit by a valid and binding judgment (only actually litigated claims)
    AND
  3. party to be precluded must have been a party in the first suit (party invoking preclusion doesn’t need to be involved in first suit)
196
Q

tip

what should I think of if there’s a fact pattern with state law in a federal court case?

A

Erie

197
Q

Erie / Choice of Law

what law should a federal court apply when a claim arises under diversity jurisdiction?

PQs Set 1

A

federal procedural law + state substantive law

198
Q

Erie / Choice of Law

what law should a federal court apply for a federal question case?

PQs Set 1

A

federal substantive + federal procedural law

199
Q

preliminary injunction requirements

Civ Pro

A

MIBB
1. the movant is likely to succeed on the merits
2. the movant is likely to suffer irreparable harm in the absence of relief
3. the balance of equities is in the movant’s favor
AND
4. the injunction is in the best interests of the public

200
Q

principles for imposing sanctions

Civ Pro

A

may be subject to sanctions for failing to take reasonable steps to preserve evidence that should have been preserved in the anticipation or conduct of litigation

Sanctions are authorized for spoliation of evidence only if the information cannot be restored or replaced by additional discovery

court should consider the prejudice to another party and the intent of the party that failed to preserve the evidence

201
Q

should a forum selection clause be followed?

Civ Pro

A
  • when transfer is sought on the basis of a forum selection clause in a contract, the clause is accorded respect
  • If the clause specifies a federal forum, most circuit courts treat the clause as prima facie valid, to be set aside only upon a strong showing that transfer would be unreasonable and unjust or that the clause was invalid for reasons such as fraud or overreaching.
  • SCOTUS held that a forum selection clause should be given “controlling weight in all but the most exceptional cases.”
202
Q

if there’s a federal court sitting in diversity and there’s a conflict between federal and state law, what happens under a federal-rule analysis?

Civ Pro

A

valid federal rule applies IF the rule (1) is arguably procedural AND (2) does not abridge, modify, or enlarge a substantive right

203
Q

standard of review for appeal of motion for summary judgment

Civ Pro

A

de novo

A trial judge’s decision to grant a summary judgment motion is a legal ruling. As a legal ruling, the appropriate standard of review by the appellate court is de novo.

204
Q

what must a temporary restraining order (TRO) contain?

UWorld

A
  • reasons why it was granted
  • reasonable description of prohibited/commanded acts without reference to complaint or another doc
    AND
  • specific terms (e.g., persons bound, penalties for noncompliance)
205
Q

sanctions

what is required for every paper filed with the court?

Essay 4844

A
  • must be signed by at least one attorney of record (or party if pro se)
  • certifies that to the best of their knowledge, info, and belief formed after a reasonable inquiry THAT
  • (1) paper is not presented for any improper purpose
  • (2) factual contentions have evidentiary support (or will likely have it after reasonably oppy for discovery)
  • (3) claims, defenses, etc. are warranted by existing law or non frivolous
  • (4) denials of factual contentions are warranted or specifically identified as reasonably based on belief or lack of info
206
Q

rule statement queen!

whether federal court may decline to exercise supplemental jurisdiction

Civ Pro

A

A district court has discretion to decline to exercise supplemental jurisdiction over a claim that would otherwise qualify for supplemental jurisdiction in each of the following circumstances:
(i) the supplemental claim raises a novel or complex issue of state law;
(ii) the supplemental claim substantially predominates over the claims within original federal jurisdiction;
(iii) all of the claims within the court’s original jurisdiction have been dismissed; or
(iv) in exceptional circumstances, if there are other compelling reasons for declining jurisdiction.

207
Q

rule statement queen!

whether nonparty has right to intervene as a matter of right

Civ Pro

A

Under the Federal Rules, a nonparty has the right to intervene in an action when, upon timely motion,
(1) the nonparty has an interest in the subject matter of the action;
(2) the disposition of the action may impair the nonparty’s interests; and
(3) the nonparty’s interest is not adequately represented by existing parties.
The burden is on the party seeking to intervene.

208
Q

factors court will consider in deciding whether to dismiss an action when joinder of a required party is not feasible

Civ Pro

A
  • extent of prejudice to the absent party or existing parties if the litigation proceeds
  • extent to which the court could mitigate that prejudice by shaping relief
  • adequacy of a judgment rendered in the absence of
    the missing party
  • whether the plaintiff would have an adequate remedy if the action were dismissed
209
Q

intentional torts

what is the intent requirement for intentional torts generally?

A

actor acts with the purpose of causing the consequence
OR
knows that the consequence is going to come about to a substantial certainty

includes children and mentally incompetent people if they act with the requisite intent

210
Q

intentional torts / battery

what are the elements of battery?

A
  1. defendant causes a harmful or offensive contact with the person of another AND
  2. acts with intent to cause the contact or apprehension of that contact
  3. Causation: act must result in contact of a harmful or offensive nature
211
Q

intentional torts / assault

what are the elements of assault?

A
  1. causes reasonable apprehension of imminent harmful or offensive bodily contact AND
  2. defendant intends to cause apprehension of such contact or to cause the contact itself

bodily contact is NOT required

212
Q

intentional torts / IIED

what is the definition (elements) of Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress (IIED)?

A

IEOD

defendant (1) intentionally or recklessly engages in (2) extreme and (3) outrageous conduct that (4) causes the plaintiff severe emotional distress (beyond what a reasonable person should endure)

Causation: D’s actions must be a cause in fact of P’s harm

don’t need to show physical injury

213
Q

intentional torts / IIED /3p

what is a related bystander?

Torts

A

(1) immediate family member of the victim (2) who is present at the time of the conduct and (3) contemporaneously perceives the conduct

may recover for IIED

regardless of whether that fam member suffers bodily injury as a result of the distress

ALSO if D wanted to cause emotional distress on 3p but harmed individual, 3p can recover w/o showing the above elements

214
Q

property torts / trespass to chattel

what is the definition of trespass to chattels?

A

an intentional interference with the plaintiff’s right to possess personal property by
1. dispossessing the plaintiff of the chattel
2. using or intermeddling with the plaintiff’s chattel OR
3. damaging the chattel

215
Q

property torts / conversion

what is conversion?

A

intentionally committing an act (1) depriving the P of possession of his chattel OR (2) interfering with the P’s chattel in a manner so serious as to deprive the P entirely of the use of the chattel

216
Q

property torts / conversion vs. trespass to chattel

what factors do courts consider when determining if something is trespass to chattel or conversion?

A
  • duration and extent of the interference
  • D’s intent to assert a right inconsistent with the rightful possessor
  • D’s good faith
  • expense or inconvenience to the P AND
  • extent of the harm

difference is more of a degree of seriousness rather than specific behavior

217
Q

negligence

what are the elements of negligence?

A
  1. duty - an obligation toward another party
  2. breach - failure to meet that obligation
  3. causation - cause in fact (actual cause) + proximate cause (legal cause)
  4. damages - the loss suffered
218
Q

negligence / duty / standard of care / possessors of land

under the traditional approach, what is the rule for invitees?

A

land possessor owes a duty of reasonable care to

  • inspect the property
  • discover unreasonably dangerous conditions AND
  • take reasonable steps to protect the invitee

can’t delegate this duty to independent contractor

invitee is someone who comes onto the land for a material or economic purpose
public invitee - land is held open to the pubic (ex. state fair)
business visitor

219
Q

negligence / duty / standard of care / possessors of land

under the traditional approach, what is the rule for licensees?

A

land possessor has a duty to (1) make the property reasonably safe OR (2) warn licensees of hidden dangers

no duty to inspect
must exercise reasonable care in conducting activities on the land

enters the land with express or implied permission (like a social guest)

220
Q

negligence / duty / standard of care / possessors of land

under the traditional approach, what is the rule for trespassers?

A

no duty to undiscovered trespassers
EXCEPTION: refrain from willful, wanton, intentional, or reckless misconduct

discovered or anticipated trespassers - duty to warn or protect from hidden dangers

attractive nuisance doctrine - may be liable

flagrant trespassers - even lesser duty of care

221
Q

negligence / duty / standard of care / possessors of land

what is the attractive nuisance doctrine (under traditional approach)?

A

land possessor may be able for injuries to children trespassing on the land if
1. artificial condition exists in a place where the owner knows or has reason to know that children are likely to trespass
2. knows or has reason to know that the artificial condition poses an unreasonable risk of death or serious bodily harm
3. children do not discover or can’t appreciate the danger (due to their age)
4. utility of maintaining the condition < risk of injury AND
5. fails to exercise reasonable care

222
Q

negligence / duty / standard of care / possessors of land

what must a landlord do?

A
  1. maintain safe common areas
  2. warn of hidden dangers AND
  3. repair hazardous conditions
223
Q

negligence / breach

what are the elements of negligence per se / statutory negligence?

A
  1. criminal law or regulatory statute imposes a particular duty for the protection or benefit of others
  2. defendant violated the statute
  3. P must be in the class of people intended to be protected by the statute
  4. accident must be the type of harm that the statute was intended to protect against AND
  5. harm was caused by a violation of the statute

violation of the law consists a breach, statute establishes the standard of care

224
Q

negligence / breach / res ipsa loquitur

what are the elements of res ipsa loquitur under the traditional approach?

A
  1. accident was of a kind that does not ordinarily occur in the absence of evidence
  2. it was caused by an agent or instrumentalist within the exclusive control of D AND
  3. not due to any action by P
225
Q

negligence / breach / res ipsa loquitur

what are the elements of res ipsa loquitur under the modern approach?

A
  1. accident is a type that ordinarily happens as a result of negligence of a class of actors AND
  2. D is a member of that class

more generous than traditional approach

226
Q

negligence / causation / proximate cause

what is the rule for proximate cause?

A
  • scope of liability
  • foreseeability of harm
227
Q

negligence

what is Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress (NIED)?

Torts

A

pure emotional harm

P can recover for NIED if
1. P was within zone of danger of the threatened physical impact AND
2. threat of physical impact caused emotional distress

need some physical manifestation of distress (nausea, insomnia, miscarriage)

228
Q

negligence

can a bystander recover for Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress?

Torts

A

if
1. closely related to person injured by D (relational proximity)
2. was present at the scene of the injury (geographic proximity) AND
3. personally observed the injury (temporal proximity)

229
Q

negligence / defenses

what is the defense for contributory negligence under the Last Clear Chance Doctrine?

Last Clear Chance Doctrine is EXCEPTION to Contributory Negligence

A

allows a negligent P to recover upon showing that D had the last clear chance to avoid injuring the P but failed to do so

230
Q

strict liability / abnormally dangerous activities

what is the general rule for abnormally dangerous activities? what factors are used?

Torts

A

D will be held strictly liable for personal injuries and property damage caused by the activity, regardless of any precautions

scope of liability - harm that flows from the risk that made the activity abnormally dangerous

  • whether it creates a foreseeable and highly significant risk of harm even when the actor takes due care
  • severity of the harm resulting from the activity
  • appropriateness of the location for the activity
  • whether it has great value to the community
231
Q

strict liability / products liability / defective product

what are the elements of a products liability claim?

Torts

A
  1. product was defective (manufacturing, design, failure to warn)
  2. defect existed when the product left the defendant’s control AND
  3. defect caused the P’s injury when the product was used in a foreseeable way
232
Q

strict liability / products liability / defective product

how do you establish a defect claim (element #1) for a manufacturing defect?

A
  1. product deviated from its intended design
  2. product does NOT conform to the manufacturer’s own specifications
233
Q

strict liability / products liability / defective product

how do you establish a defect claim (element #1) for a design defect?

A

test 1: consumer expectation test
if less safe than the ordinary consumer would expect

test 2: risk-utility test
if risks outweigh the benefits, must show there is a reasonable alternative design

234
Q

strict liability / products liability / defective products

what is required for defendants?

A

anyone who sells the product when it is defective

must be in the chain of distribution + business of selling

causal sellers are NOT SL, but maybe negligence

235
Q

strict liability / products liability / breach of warranty

what are the two types of implied warranties?

A
  1. merchantability - product is suitable for the ordinary purposes for which it is sold
  2. fitness for a particular purpose - seller knows the particular purpose and buyer relies on seller’s skill or judgment
236
Q

defamation

what are the basic elements of defamation?

A

P must prove that D

  1. made a defamatory statement
  2. that is of or concerning the P (the particular P) must be living
  3. statement was published to a 3p who understood the defamatory nature
    AND
  4. there is resulting damage to P’s reputation
237
Q

defamation / constitutional requirements

what does a P have to prove if they are a public official / public figure?

A

person who made the statement knew that it was false OR acted with reckless disregard for the truth

actual malice standard

238
Q

defamation / constitutional requirements

what does a P have to prove if they are a private individual + matter of public concern?

A
  1. statement is false
  2. person who made the statement was negligent (should have known the statement was false)
239
Q

defamation / constitutional requirements

what damages are available for slander?

A

P must prove special damages (show economic loss)

exceptions for slander per se (general damages available)

  • commission of a serious crime
  • unfitness for a trade or profession
  • having a loathsome disease
  • severe sexual misconduct
240
Q

defamation / defenses

what is required for absolute privilege?

A

the speaker is completely immune from liable for defamation

statements including:

  • in the course of judicial proceedings
  • course of legislative proceedings
  • b/t spouses
  • required publications by radio and TV
241
Q

defamation / defenses

what is required for conditional privilege (qualified)?

A

statement is made in good faith pursuant to some duty or responsibility

P must show a higher level of culpability

includes statements made
* in the interest of the D (defending your reputation)
* interest of the recipient of the statement
* affecting some important public interest

242
Q

privacy torts / cause of action

what is required for Intrusion upon Seclusion?

A

D intrudes upon P’s private affairs in a manner that would be highly offensive to a reasonable person

243
Q

privacy torts / cause of action

what is required for False Light?

A

D
(1) publication of facts about the P
(2) that place the P in a false light
(3) which would be highly offensive to a reasonable person

244
Q

privacy torts / cause of action

what is required for Appropriation of the Right to Publicity?

A

when someone (1) appropriates another’s name or likeness (2) for D’s advantage (3) w/o consent and (4) causes injury

appropriation must be exploitative, but not necessarily commercial

245
Q

privacy torts / cause of action

what is required for Public Disclosure of Private Facts?

A
  1. D publicizes a matter concerning the private life of another
  2. the matter publicized is highly offensive to a reasonable person AND
  3. the matter is not of legitimate concern to the public (hard to prove)
246
Q

intentional misrepresentation (fraud)

what are the elements of intentional misrepresentation (fraud)?

A
  1. false representation
  2. scienter
  3. intent
  4. causation
  5. justifiable reliance
  6. damages
247
Q

negligent misrepresentation

what are the elements of negligent misrepresentation?

A
  1. D provided false info to P
  2. as a result of D’s negligent in preparing the info
  3. during the course of a business or profession
  4. causing justifiable reliance and pecuniary loss AND
  5. P is either in a contractual relationship with D OR P is 3p known by D to be a member of the limited group for whose benefit the info is supplied

negligence misrepresentation is a different cause of action than tort of negligence

248
Q

what are the elements of trade libel?

A
  1. publication
  2. of a false or derogatory statement
  3. with malice
  4. relating to P’s title to their business, quality of their business, or quality of products AND
  5. causes special damages as a result of interference with or damage to business relationships
249
Q

what are the elements of slander of title?

Torts

A
  1. publication
  2. of a false statement
  3. derogatory to P’s title
  4. with malice
  5. causing special damages
    AND
  6. diminishes value in eyes of 3p
250
Q

what can a partially negligent P not recover in a modified comparative negligence regime?

Torts

A

P’s recovery is barred if their fault > 50%

some juris do >= 50%

251
Q

what is the minority approach to negligence per se?

Torts

A

defendant’s violation of a statute or ordinance creates a rebuttable presumption (as opposed to a conclusive presumption) that the defendant breached a duty of care

252
Q

damages available for trespass to chattel vs. conversion

Torts

A
  • conversion - full value of item
  • trespass to chattel - amount of the damages
253
Q

tip

how to start negligence essay

Torts

A

In any negligence action, a plaintiff must show that the defendant owed the plaintiff a duty to conform his conduct to a standard necessary to avoid an unreasonable risk of harm to others, that the defendant’s conduct fell below the applicable standard of care, and that the defendant’s conduct was both the cause in fact and the proximate cause of the plaintiff’s injuries.

254
Q

rights in grantor + 3p in future estates

Property

A
  • FS determinable - grantor has possibility of reverter; 3p has springing or shifting EI
  • FS CS - grantor has right of entry (have to exercise)
  • LE - grantor has reversion, 3p has remainder
255
Q

ownership / future interests

vested remainder vs. contingent remainder

A

interest that is
1. given to an ascertained grantee (you can ID them) AND
2. not subject to a condition precedent

if 1 + 2 met, vested remainder
if fails, contingent remainder

256
Q

ownership / future interests

Doctrine of Worthier Title

A

prevents remainders in a grantor’s heirs

A conveys “to B for life, remainder to A’s heirs.”
With Doctrine: B has life estate, A has reversion (unless contrary intent is established)
W/o Doctrine: B has life estate, A’s heirs have contingent remainder

257
Q

ownership / future interests

Rule of Shelley’s Case

A

prevents reminders in a grantee’s heirs
uses doctrine of merger to create a fee simple
changes the remainder of heirs from fee simple absolute to contingent remainder

A conveys “to B for life, remainder to B’s heirs.”
With Shelley’s Case: B has life estate, heirs have FSA
Without: B has life estate, heirs have contingent remainder

258
Q

RAP

what is the special rule for RAP and class gifts?

A

if gift to any member of the class is void under RAP, THEN the gift is void to all members of the class

all or nothing rule

259
Q

concurrent estates / joint tenancy

how do you create a joint tenancy?

A
  1. grantor must make clear expression of intent AND
  2. must be survivorship language (“as joint tenants with a right of survivorship”)
  3. four unities
260
Q

discrimination / FHA

what intent is required?

A

disparate treatment (intent) + disparate impact (effect)

261
Q

conflict of laws

what are the exceptions to the baseline rule (law of situs)?

A
  • choice of law provision
  • cases involving marriage, especially classifying property as marital or separate –> domicile of party may override law of the situs
  • mortgages: mortgage docs may require repayment to be made in another state
262
Q

landlord + tenant / tenancies

what are the four tenancies that govern the landlord-tenant relationship?

A
  1. tenancy for years
  2. periodic tenancy
  3. tenancy at will
  4. tenancy at sufferance

how is each created? how is each terminated?

263
Q

landlord + tenant / tenancies

tenancy in years

A
  • measured by a fixed and ascertainable amount of time
  • created by agreement by landlord and tenant
  • need to demonstrate intent to create the leasehold
  • if longer than 1 year, needs to be in writing (SOF)
  • automatically ends at expiration of term (no notice require)
  • can end early if tenant surrenders the lease OR if tenant or landlord commits a material breach
264
Q

landlord + tenant / tenancies

periodic tenancy

A
  • estate that is repetitive and ongoing for a set period of time
  • renews automatically at end of each period until one party gives proper notice of termination
  • must intend to create this
  • intent can be express (signed lease) or implied (payment of rent)
  • old approach to termination: must give 6 month notice for year-to-year lease
  • new approach to termination: shorter notice requirements
  • proper notice = gives notice before start of last term (generally written)
265
Q

landlord + tenant / tenancies

tenancy at will

A
  • may be terminated by either landlord or tenant at any time for any reason
  • created by express agreement or implication
  • can be terminated by either party without notice
  • if agreement gives ONLY landlord right to terminate at will, tenant gets right too by implication
  • if agreement gives ONLY tenant right to terminate, landlord does NOT get the right too
  • terminates at death of landlord or tenant
266
Q

landlord + tenant / tenancies

tenancy at sufferance

A
  • created when tenant holds over after lease ends
  • temporary tenancy exists before landlord evicts the prior tenant OR re-rents the property to the tenant (creates a new tenancy with holdover tenant)
  • tenant owes landlord reasonable value of their daily use + reasonably foreseeable special damages
  • created by actions of tenant alone
  • termination if (1) tenant voluntarily leaves, (2) landlord evicts tenant, or (3) landlord re-rents to tenant
267
Q

landlord + tenant / tenant duties

implied covenant of quiet enjoyment

A

tenant can withhold rent when landlord takes actions that makes the premises wholly or substantially unstable for their intended purposes + tenant is constructively evicted

268
Q

landlord + tenant / tenant duties

constructive eviction

A
  1. premises were unstable for their intended purposes (breach of covenant of quiet enjoyment)
  2. tenant notifies landlord of the problem
  3. landlord doesn’t correct the problem AND
  4. tenant vacates the premises after a reasonable amount of time has passed
269
Q

landlord + tenant / tenant duties

implied warranty of habitability

A
  • landlord has an obligation to maintain the property such that it is suitable for residential use
  • conditions that threaten tenant’s heath and safety
  • can’t waive
  • residential only, not commercial
  • if premises are not habitable, tenant may (1) refuse to pay rent, (2) remedy the defect and deduct costs from rent, or (3) defend against eviction
  • can use offensively or defensively
  • does not require tenant to move out
270
Q

landlord + tenant / landlord duties

duty to deliver possession

A

majority:
landlord must deliver actual (physical) possession of leasehold premises

minority:
landlord is only required to deliver legal possession (right of possession)

271
Q

tip

if conveyance is ambiguous, discuss fee simple determinable + fee simple subject to condition subsequent

A

:)

272
Q

landlord and tenant / subleases and assignments

in an assignment, who can landlord collect rent from?

A

tenant (b/c of privity of contract) OR subsequent tenant (b/c of privity of estate)

273
Q

landlord and tenant / subleases and assignments

in a sublease, who can the landlord collect rent from?

A

only the tenant (they have privity of contract + privity of estate)

274
Q

landlord and tenant / subleases and assignments

if lease requires landlord’s permission to transfer but doesn’t provide a standard, what is the default standard?

A

majority: landlord may deny only for a commercially reasonable reason

minority: landlord may deny at their discretion, reason isn’t required

275
Q

land sale contracts

what is the implied covenant of marketable title?

A

marketable title –> title is free from an unreasonable risk of litigation

  • title acquired by adverse possession that hasn’t been quieted
  • private encumbrances (mortgage, convent, easement)
  • violation of zoning ordinance

applies to quit claim deeds too (PQs Set 1)

276
Q

land sale contracts

when does a defect in the marketable title need to be cured by?

A

needs to be cured or fixed before closing

closing is when deed and contract merge and deed controls

277
Q

land sale contracts

implied warranty of fitness or suitability

A

applies to defects in new construction

most jurisdictions: both initial homeowner/purchaser and subsequent purchasers may recover damages
minority: only OG buyer can enforce

suit must be brought within reasonable time after discovery of the defect

278
Q

land sale contracts

who bears the risk of loss if there is damage to or destruction of the property?

A

majority:
buyer holds equitable title b/t execution of contract and closing/delivery of deed
buyer is responsible for damage during that period
seller has right to possess the property (they hold legal title)

minority:
risk of loss on seller until closing and delivery of deed

279
Q

deeds

what is a deed? what is needed for it to be valid?

A

legal instrument that transfers ownership of real property

  1. must be delivered (includes intent)
  2. must be accepted
280
Q

deeds

what is required for delivery?

A
  • whether the grantor had the present intent to transfer the property
  • physical transfer is NOT required
281
Q

deeds

what is required for the contents of a deed?

Property

A

PTSD
1. parties identitifed (grantor + grantee)
2. transfer (words of transfer - any words that evdience a present intent to transfer)
3. signed by grantor (SOF)
4. description of the property (doesn’t need to be a legal description, just sufficient)

282
Q

deeds

what is required for execution of a deed?

Property

A
  • only grantor needs to sign
  • doesn’t need to be witnessed or notarized
  • deed is void if signature is forged (even if bona fide purchaser)
  • equal dignities rule: if agent is required to sign, then agency relationship must be created in writing
283
Q

recording acts

Shelter Rule

Property

A

person who takes from a bona fide purchaser proceed by recording act has the same rights as the grantor

284
Q

deeds

general warranty deed

Property

A

grantor warrants against all defects even if they didn’t cause the defect

6 implied covenants (first 3 = present convents, last 3 = future)
1. covenant of seisin
2. covenant of the right to convey
3. covenant against encumberances

  1. covenant of quiet enjoyment
  2. covenant of warranty
  3. covenant of further assurances

first you’ve gotta “SCE” (sick) it then F with queens (FWQ)

285
Q

deeds

covenant of quiet enjoyment

Property

A

grantor promises that the grantee’s possession will not be disturbed by 3p claim

286
Q

deeds

covenant of warranty

Property

A

grantor promises to defend against future valid claims of title by 3p

287
Q

deeds

covenant of further assurances

Property

A

grantor promises to fix future title problems

288
Q

deeds

special warranty deed

Property

A

grantor warrants against defects only caused by the grantor

includes the six covenants but only apply to acts/omissions of grantor

289
Q

restraints on alienation

can you have a partial restraint on alienation?

Property

A

valid if it is (1) for a limited time and (2) reasonable purpose

290
Q

mortgages / equitable mortgages

transfer by mortgagor/borrower - what is the liability of the subsequent transferee?

A
  1. assumes the mortgage
    upon default, transferee is personally liable for the mortgage + original mortgagor
    doesn’t need to be in writing
  2. takes subject to the mortgage
    transferee is not personally liable upon default
    if deed is silent or ambiguous, subject to is default
291
Q

foreclosure / before foreclosure

what is the equity of redemption?

A

common law right held by mortgagor to reclaim title and prevent FCL upon full payment of the debt

mortgagor must exercise before FCL sale

  • deed in lieu of FCL
  • clogging equity of redemption concerns
292
Q

foreclosure / priorities

what it the basic rule for FCL priority?

A

first in time rule

surviving debts are satisfied chronologically # foreclosure / priorities

293
Q

foreclosure / priorities / exceptions

what is the exception for purchase-money mortgages?

A

mortgage given to lender in exchange for a loan to buy real property

has priority over mortgages/liens created by/against mortgagor prior to mortgagor’s acquisition

294
Q

foreclosure / priorities / exceptions

what is the recording act exception?

A

junior mortgage that satisfies recording statute may sometimes take priority over unrecorded senior mortgage

295
Q

foreclosure / effects after FCL

what happens to mortgagor after FCL?

A

eliminates their interest in the property

EXCEPTION: statutory redemption - some states allow mortgagor to redeem property even after FCL sale, will restore title to homeowner

296
Q

easements / creation / implied easements

what are the types of implied easements?

A
  1. easement by necessity
  2. easement by implication (easement by prior use)
  3. easement by prescription
  4. easement by estoppel
297
Q

easements / creation / implied easements

implied easement by necessity

A
  • created only when property is virtually useless (like it’s landlocked)
  • (1) common ownership (dominant and servant estates were owned in common by one person) AND (2) necessity at severance (when it was severed, one of the properties became virtually useless w/o easement)
  • strictly necessary
  • ends when no longer necessary
298
Q

easements / creation / implied easements

implied easement by implication / prior use

A

created by an existing use on a property

  1. common ownership - land owned by one person
  2. before severance, owner uses land as if there’s an easement on it (quasi-easement)
    at this point, the land is split up
  3. after severance, use must be continuous and apparent
  4. necessity - use must be reasonably necessary to dominant estate’s use and enjoyment
299
Q

easements / creation / implied easements

implied easement by prescription

A
  • like acquiring via adverse possession, but this is about use (not possession)
  • same elements as adverse possession except exclusivity
300
Q

easements / creation / implied easements

implied easement by estoppel

A
  1. permission - permissive use (license)
  2. reliance - second neighbor relies on the first neighbor’s promise –> must be reasonable + in good faith
  3. permission withdrawn by first neighbor

if reliance was detrimental to second neighbor, first neighbor is estopped from withdrawing permission (creates an easement)

301
Q

easements / scope

what is the scope of express easement?

A
  • determined by the terms
  • if terms are ambiguous, ct considers intent of OG parties
  • changes in use are tested under reasonableness standard (reasonably foreseeable)
  • if use exceeds the scope, dominant estate is trespassing on servient estate
302
Q

easements / scope

what is the scope of implied easements?

A

determined by nature and scope of prior use or necessity

303
Q

easements / termination

what are the methods to terminate an easement? (list)

A
  • release - holder expressly releases it + in writing (SOF)
  • merger - owner acquires the other land so it merges into the title
  • abandonment - (1) non-use + (2) act demonstrating intent to abandon
  • prescription - fail to protect against adverse possessor
  • sale to purchaser
  • estoppel
  • end of necessity - easement is no longer needed
304
Q

real covenants

what are the requirements for real covenants?

A

TWIN-P (almost like wimy)

  1. touch and concern the land - benefit or burden must affect both parties
  2. writing (SOF)
  3. intent - OG parties must intend for the covenant to run with the land (look for express language)
  4. notice - actual or constructive, maybe inquiry if equitable servitude
  5. privity
305
Q

real covenants

what is horizontal privity? what is vertical privity?

Property

A
  • horizontal privity - OG parties shared some interest in the land independent of covenant
  • vertical privity is about an original party and their successor to the property
  • strict vertical privity - successor must take the original party’s entire interest
  • relaxed vertical privity - takes only an interest that is carved out of the original party’s estate
306
Q

what is a fixture?

Property

A

tangible personal property that is attached to real property in a manner that is treated as part of the real property

307
Q

what is the doctrine of equitable conversion?

Property

A

when land-sale contract is silent about risk of loss

  • majority apply this doctrine - risk of loss is placed on party with equitable title at time property was destroyed UNLESS other party is at fault for the loss
  • Uniform Vendor and Purchaser Risk Act (minority) - seller retains risk of loss unless and until buyer takes possession or title is transferred
  • applies to events that occur during the executory time period (b/t signing and closing)
  • determination of who will receive proceeds depends on who had equitable title
308
Q

what happens to junior interests if there’s a deed in lieu of foreclosure?

PQs Set 1

A

junior interests remain attached
mortgagee’s interest is extinguished unless it was reserved

309
Q

who is responsible for paying current charges (property taxes, mortgage interest, etc.) on a concurrent estate?

one party is life tenant, other is remainder

UWorld

A

life tenant has duty to pay current charges up to the amount of income that can be generated from the land

310
Q

what changes can an owner make to a grandfathered prior nonconforming use?

Essay 4945

A

nature and character of use cannot be a substantial change

owner may be permitted to increase the frequency of the nonconforming use to upgrade the means to accomplish the nonconforming use, so long as the nature and character of the use does not constitute a substantial change

311
Q

delivery of a deed - what is the presumption? what happens if grantor dies?

UWorld

A
  • delivery presumed if recorded
  • BUT can be rebutted by evidence that grantor didn’t intend to presently transfer ownership
  • IF deed is NOT delivered during grantor’s lifetime, it is void + conveys no interest
312
Q

what does warranty deed protect against?

NCBE Simulated #2

A

remedies for breach of title matters

313
Q

what does selling a house “as is” disclaim?

NCBE Simulated #2

A

disclaims the seller’s duty to disclose defects IF the disclaimer is sufficiently clear and specific

assuming no statutes require disclosure of known defects

314
Q

when can a variance be granted? (what does the landowner have to show)

UWorld Assessment #2

A
  1. variance does NOT deviate from the comprehensive zoning plan
  2. compliance with zoning ordinance would cause the landowner unnecessary hardship (can’t be self-imposed)
315
Q

right of first refusal - what happens with RAP?

UWorld

A

to comply with RAP, right of first refusal must be set to vest or fail within the perpetuities period

so probs fails unless there’s an end date or it’s tied to a life in being

316
Q

when does a deed transfer ownership?

UWorld

A

once delivered and accepted

  • delivered - evidenced by grantor’s intent to presently convey ownership (CAN’T be conditional delivery)
  • accepted - presumed when transfer is beneficial to grantee

delivery presumed if recorded BUT can rebut if grantor did not intend to presently transfer ownership

317
Q

equitable right of redemption vs. statutory right of redemption

Property

A
  • equitable right of redemption is before foreclosure
  • statutory right is an additional time period after FCL sale for prior mortgagor and others have the option to pay a certain sum of money and redeem the title to the property
318
Q

security interest

A

interest in personal property or fixtures that secures payment or performance of an obligation

319
Q

scope of Article 9

A
  • transactions, regardless of form, that creates a security interest in personal property or fixtures by contract
  • must be consensual
  • not real estate
  • agricultural liens

sales of certain types of collateral

  • chattel paper
  • promissory notes
  • accounts
  • payment intangibles
320
Q

step 2 - classify collateral

list the types of collateral

A
  1. goods
  2. rights to payment
  3. documents - bills of lading, warehouse receipts, held by bailee
  4. investment property - stocks and bonds
  5. deposit accounts - bank accounts
  6. commercial tort claims
  7. letter of credit rights
  8. payment intangibles - catch all, includes IP

remember classification can change depending on which party holds the collateral

321
Q

step 2 - classify collateral

what is included in goods?

A

anything movable at time a SI attaches

  1. fixtures (if the goods attach to real property where you won’t take it when you move)
  2. standing timber
  3. unborn animals
  4. growing or unharvested crops
  5. manufactured homes
  6. consumer goods
  7. farm products
  8. inventory - held for sale or lease
  9. equipment - catch-all
322
Q

step 4 - attachment

what are the basic requirements for attachment?

A
  1. value given by the secured party (no new value needs to be given, binding commitment is value)
  2. debtor must have rights in the collateral
  3. there must be a security agreement - (a) authenticated SA that describe the collateral OR (b) secured party has possession or control pursuant to oral or unauthenticated SA

(a) security agreements are RAD
1. record - doesn’t need to be written on paper, but must be stored
2. authenticated by the debtor - signature/symbol of debtor
3. describe the collateral - reasonably ID the collateral, no super generic description, consumer goods and commercial tort claims need more particularity

(b1) attachment by possession pursuant to SA (like you can hold it)
consumer goods, equipment, farm products, chattel paper, tangible docs, certificated securities, instruments, money
(b2) attachment by control pursuant to SA
electronic chattel paper, investment property, LOC rights, deposit accounts

attachment links debt to a particular piece of collateral
SI becomes enforceable against debtor’s collateral upon attachment

323
Q

step 4 - attachment

proceeds - rule for attachment

A

if SI attaches to the original collateral, it automatically attaches to the identifiable proceeds whether or not SI states that it covers proceeds

324
Q

Purchase Money Security Interests (PMSI) - definition

Secured Transactions

A
  • type of SI
  • only applies if collateral is goods or software
  • lender PMSI - lender loans money to debtor so debtor can acquire goods; value is actually used to acquire the goods and lender takes SI in those same goods
  • seller PMSI - goods bought on credit
  • partial PMSI is allowed for non-consumer goods transactions –> Dual Status Rule
  • consumer goods transactions: court can apply Dual Status Rule or say there is no PMSI
  • PMSI in consumer goods are automatically perfected
  1. value given allows the debtor to acquire the goods or software AND
  2. goods or software acquired secure the loan

Article 9 consignment is treated as PMSI in inventory
Dual Status Rule = a SI may be part PMSI and part non-PMSI; party claiming PSMI has burden of establishing that

325
Q

step 5 - perfection

perfection by filing - requirements for Financing Statement

where should you file?

Secured Transactions

A
  • central filing office where debtor is located
  • debtor is corporation = state of incorporation
  • business not registered = state where it operates, chief executive office if multiple states
  • individuals = principal residence
  • real property-related (incl. fixtures) = county where property is located
326
Q

step 5 - perfection

automatic perfection

Secured Transactions

A
  • some collateral automatically perfect when a SI attaches without filing, possession, or control
  • PMSI in consumer goods
  • casual or isolated assignments of accounts that don’t transfer a significant part of outstanding accounts receivable
  • sales of payment intangibles or promissory notes

if certificate of title statute covers, no auto perfection

327
Q

step 5 - perfection / proceeds

what are proceeds? are they attached?

Secured Transactions

A
  • proceeds arise when collateral is sold, leased, licensed, or disposed of
  • SI attaches to proceeds automatically
  • initially perfected for 20 days
  • priority dates from time of perfection in OG collateral IF secured party has remained continuously perfected
328
Q

step 5 - perfection / proceeds

general rule for perfection of proceeds

Secured Transactions

A

initially temporary automatic perfection for 20 days after collateral is sold

beyond 20 days
perfection will lapse UNLESS
1. amend the FS or the OG FS is broad enough to encompass the proceeds
2. cash proceeds rule: perfection continues indefinitely in identifiable cash proceeds
3. same office rule: FS covers the original collateral + proceeds are collateral in which it may be perfected by filing in the same office as OG FS + proceeds are NOT acquired with cash proceeds

329
Q

step 6 - priority rules

perfected security interest vs. perfected security interest (not PMSI)

Secured Transactions

A

first in time to file or perfect takes priority

330
Q

step 6 - priority rules

secured party vs. lien creditor over future advances

Secured Transactions

A
  • if secured party’s advance is made within 45 days of lien creditor’s lien, secured party wins
  • advances over 45 days lose to lien creditor UNLESS advance is made w/o knowledge of lien OR advance is made pursuant to a commitment entered into without knowledge of the lien
331
Q

step 6 - priority rules

secured party vs. buyer

Secured Transactions

A
  • phrase the question as “did the buyer take the collateral free of a security interest or subject to a security interest”
  • unless secured party authorizes the sale free and clear of its security interest, buyer takes subject to a perfected security interest

exception 1: buyer in the ordinary course of business
takes free of SI created by buyer’s seller IF
* buyer buys good from a merchant
* ordinary course of merchant’s biz
* buyer acts in good faith and without knowledge that sale violates the rights of others in teh same goods
* seller is engaged in business of selling goods of this kind, not pawn broker

exception 2: garage sale exception
consumer buyer will take free of SI even if it’s perfected IF
* buyer buys consumer goods for value
* for their own person, family, or household use
* from a consumer seller
* without knowledge of the SI
* unless secured party has filed a FS covering the goods before the purchase occurs

332
Q

step 6 - priority rules

buyer vs. unperfected SI

Secured Transactions

A

buyer takes subject to a SI

EXCEPTION: user will take free of an unperfected SI if buyer
* gives value
* receives delivery of the collateral
AND
* w/o knowledge of preexisting interest

333
Q

step 6 - priority rules

PMSI vs. SI - goods that aren’t inventory

Secured Transactions

A

PMSI > all other security interests, no matter when they are perfected IF secured party perfects within 20 days of debtor receiving the goods

if don’t perfect within 20 days, apply secured party vs. secured party rule (first in time to file or perfect)

PMSI in consumer goods is auto perfected so 20 day rule will always be met

334
Q

step 6 - priority rules

PSMI vs. SI - inventory

Secured Transactions

A

PMSI > all other secured interests in that same inventory

IF PMSI

  • perfects before inventory is delivered to debtor
    AND
  • sends an authenticated notification of PMSI to other secured parties (notification is effective for 5 years)

if fail this super priority rule, then apply secured party vs. secured party

335
Q

lease vs. secured transaction

Secured Transactions

A
  • Article 9 does NOT apply to a true lease

bright line test
1. lessee of property is obligated to pay the FULL obligation under the lease (whether or not its terminated early) AND
2. one of the following outcomes

  • OG term of lease >= remaining economic life of goods
  • lessee is bound to renew the lease for the remaining economic life of teh goods
  • lessee has option to renew the lease for no additional consideration or nominal additional consideration
  • lessee has option to become owner or goods for no or nominal additional consideration

if pass test, it is a secured transaction (Article 9 governs), need to perfect SI

factors are showing what a secured transaction is

336
Q

default and enforcement

repossession of goods and other tangible collateral

Secured Transactions

A

once there has been a default, secured party can repossess the collateral
1. by using the judicial process
2. by using self-help repossesion (secured party cannot breach the peace)

large equipment can be rendered unusable in lieu of repossession

after repossession, secured party can dispose of the collateral in Article 9 disposition sale or can accept the collateral in satisfaction of all or part of the obligation

337
Q

default and enforcement

disposition of collateral - what it the standard

Secured Transactions

A

commercially reasonable standard
secured party may sell, lease, license, or dispose of the collateral so long as the everything about disposition is commercially reasonable

commercially reasonable IF

  • sold in usual manner in a recognized market
  • sold at the price current in that market or
  • otherwise in conformity with the reasonable commercial practices among deals in that type of collateral

price alone is not determinative of whether a sale is commercially reasonable

338
Q

default and enforcement

disposition of collateral - what notice is required

Secured Transactions

A
  • secured party has to send authenticated notice of dipsotiion to a variety of parties
  • parties who need notice: debtor, secondary obligors, other secured party, anyone else who has a claim or interest
  • safe harbor of timing for non-commercial transactions: reasonable if sent at least 10 days before sale

notice must include (1) secured party + debtor’s name, (2) description, (3) how, when, where collateral is disposed of, (4) statement that debtor is entitled to accounting for unpaid indebtedness

  • notice not required if collateral is perishable, sold on recognized market, or notice is waived by default
339
Q

future acquired goods, when does attachment occur?

Secured Transactions

A

if secured party has perfected SI in all future inventory, etc. (this is first), then the SI attaches to those items when it is delivered

so it’s possible that a PMSI seller will get a SI in the item first if delivery occurs a few days later (this is when secured party SI attaches)

340
Q

rule statement queen!

priority rule for PMSI vs. SI not in inventory

Secured Transactions

A

A perfected purchase-money security interest in goods other than inventory has priority over a conflicting security interest in the same goods so long as the interest was perfected when the debtor received possession of the collateral or within 20 days thereafter.

341
Q

calculating the issue’s share

method 1: per stirpes

A
  • divide shares equally according to decedent’s lineal line
  • divide shares into total number of kids who survive or leave issue who survive, then divide by representation
  • surviving kid can stand in the place of their deceased parent
  • issue takes in equal shares regardless of whether anyone in that generation survived
342
Q

calculating the issue’s share

method 2: per capita with representation

A
  • divide the property equally at first generation where a member survives the decedent
  • if deceased members at first generation, their shares drop down to their surviving issue at the next generation
  • if deceased member is not survived by living issue, then that member doesn’t take a share
343
Q

calculating the issue’s share

method 3: per capita at each generation (Uniform Probate Code)

A
  • divide property into equal shares at first generation where there is a surviving member
  • pool the remaining shares after each generation –> divide equally at next generation
344
Q

execution of wills

what are the formal execution requirements for a will

A
  1. signed writing
  2. witnesses
  3. testamentary intent - present intent to make a testamentary transfer
345
Q

execution of wills

what is required for the signed writing by testator?

A
  • entire will must be signed by testator
  • Uniform Probate Code does NOT allow oral (including video) wills
  • some states: signature must be at end of document
  • other states (and UPC): signature can be on any part of the doc, important part is whether testator intended their name to be a signature; if signature is not at bottom, any words after signature are not given effect
  • capacity: must be 18 years old + of sound mind (measured at time of signing)
  • formal signature is not required, must indicate testator’s desire to sign
346
Q

execution of wills

what is required for attestation (witnesses)

A

presence

  • signed in presence of at least two witnesses
  • witnesses must sign the doc (not necessarily at same time)
  • most juris: testator must sign or acknowledge the will in presence of witnesses + witnesses must sign in the presence of testator
  • UPC: witnesses must sign within a reasonable time of the original signature by testator
  • line of sight approach to presence (traditional): witness and testator must observe or have oppy to observe signing of the will (same room)
  • conscious presence approach (modern): witness or testator must be aware the act is being performed, even if they can’t see it

interested witnesses (has a direct financial interest in the will)

  • common law: interested witnesses are not competent to witness the will
  • UPC: abolished this doctrine, just go after problematic witness via undue influence or fraud
  • purge theory (many states): direct financial interest does not affect validity of will
  • BUT probate court will purge any gain in excess of what the witness would take under intestate succession
  • do NOT purge gain IF there were 2 other disinterested witnesses OR interested witness would take share under intestate succession + interested witness takes the lesser to eh intestate share or bequest
347
Q

execution of wills

what happens if there’s a failure to satisfy the formalities?

A
  • common law (majority): strict compliance with will formation formalities
  • modern view (UPC, minority): substantial compliance
  • clear and convincing evidence that descendent intended the doc to serve as their will
348
Q

execution of wills

holographic will

A
  • informal, handwritten will
  • does not need witnesses
  • must be signed to be valid
  • some jurisdictions: any markings not in testator’s handwriting invalidate the will
  • UPC: only requires that material provisions are in testator’s handwriting
  • look for words or phrases that suggest intent
  • UPC expressly authorizes looking to extrinsic evidence to establish intent

words that express intent: “bequeath” “inherit”

349
Q

execution of wills

codicils

A
  • supplements (does not replace) a will
  • must be executed with same formalities as a will
350
Q

revocation of a will

subsequent instrument

A

express revocation
later writing expressly revokes a prior will

implied revocation (inconsistency)
later writing is inconsistent with prior will
so long as it is validly executed, later will controls

351
Q

revocation of a will

physical act

A

testator may revoke a will be engaging in a physical act of destruction (tearing, burning, crossing stuff out)
must intend for physical act to revoke the will

destroying specific language

  • majority: particular language in question must be destroyed
  • UPC: only requires that destructive act affect some part of the will

lost wills (lost at time of testator’s death)

  • creates a rebuttable presumption that testator revoked will by physical act
  • burden is on proponent to show will’s existence by clear and convincing evidence
  • duplicate originals can be admitted, but not copies
352
Q

revocation of a will

revival of a will

A
  • UPC (majority) does not recognize automatic revival of a revoked will
  • Dependent Relative Revocation - safety valve for testators who revoke a will based on a mistake, mistake can be grounded in law or fact
  • DRR invalidates the mistaken revocation and revives the earlier revoked will
353
Q

interpretation (construction) of wills

incorporation by reference (will refers to a document outside the will itself that doesn’t meet testamentary formalities)

A

other writing must meet three requirements:
1. it existed at the time the will was executed (UPC waives if doc disposes only of personal property)
2. the testator intended the writing to be incorporated into the will
AND
3. the writing is described in the will with sufficient certainty so as to permit its identification

354
Q

interpretation (construction) of wills

abatement (including hierarchy)

A

if estate doesn’t have sufficient funds to pay debts or make gifts, gifts will be abated in a specific order

ARGS
1. asset property
2. residuary gift - left over
3. general gifts - gift of property satisfied from general assets of estate (like $ generally)
4. specific gifts (last to be reduced, most protection) - gift of a particular piece of property

demonstrative gift - gift from a particular source (like money from BAC account)
if demonstrative gift can be satisfied, treated as specific gifts; otherwise, treated as general gifts

355
Q

interpretation (construction) of wills

ademption by extinction

A
  • will makes specific devise of property, but the property is no longer in the estate
  • traditional rule (identity theory): device is extinct, devisee takes nothing
  • UPC (intent theory): look at testator’s intent at time they disposed of property, look for facts that suggest the testator intended the ademption, trying to avoid ademption
356
Q

limits on power to transfer

gifts to testator’s children - advancements

advancements - lifetime gift to kid that is treated as satisfying all/part of kid’s intestate share

A

common law
any lifetime gift is presumed to be an advancement
child has burden to show it was an outright gift

hotchpot analysis
add value of advancements back into intestate estate
divide resulting estate by number of children taking
deduct child’s advancement from their interstate share

UPC
gift is advancement only if
(1) decedent declared in a contemporaneous writing that gift was an advancement OR
(2) writing indicates gift should be taken into account in computing the division of property of decedent’s estate

357
Q

will contests / testamentary capacity

general testamentary capacity

A
  • when: person challenging the will (contestant) bears burden of providing the testator lacked the requisite mental capacity at time of execution of the will

whether testator had ability to know (NOT actual knowledge)

  • why: nature of the act
  • what: nature and character of their property
  • who: natural objects of their bounty (like their kids)
  • how: plan of the attempted disposition
358
Q

will contests / testamentary capacity

insane delusion

A
  • false belief to which testator adheres in spite of all reason and evidence to the contrary
  • testator has general capacity, but insane delusion as to some belief
  • objective test: (1) measure testator’s insane delusion against actions of a rational person in testator’s person and (2) belief is an insane delusion if rational person could not have reached the same conclusion
  • causation - insane delusion was a but for cause of the testamentary disposition

ex. testator is convinced spouse is cheating on them (even though no evidence) so will leaves nothing to spouse

359
Q

will contests

undue influence

A
  • coercive relationship
  • contestant alleges that a 3p effectively controlled the testator’s decision making process

contestant bears initial burden of showing
1. beneficiary received a substantial benefit under the will
2. beneficiary had a confidential relationship with the testator (frequently lawyer, doctor, therapist)
AND
3. testator had a weakened intellect at time of execution

if contestant meets burden, there is presumption of undue influence
burden shifts to proponent (3p) to show by a preponderance of evidence that there was no undue influence

beneficiary is treated as if they predeceased testator to the extend that the gift is in excess of beneficiary’s intestate share

causation is v important

like a whisper in the ear

360
Q

will contests

fraud

A

contestant bears burden of showing that the beneficiary engaged in an unlawful misrepresentation at time of conveyance

beneficiary made misrepresentation with
1. intent to deceive the testator AND
2. for purpose of influencing the testamentary disposition

  • fraud in the inducement
  • fraud in the execution

remedy - constructive trust

361
Q

probate process

if no named personal representative in will, who will serve?

A

in order of priority

  1. surviving spouse who is devisee
  2. other surviving devisee
  3. surviving spouse (if not devisee)
  4. other heirs of decedent
  5. any creditor (after 45 days of decedent’s death)
362
Q

powers of attorney

what is needed for a power of attorney to be valid

A

authority to act on another’s behalf in a legal or business matter
principal / agent relationship

  1. must be in writing
  2. signed AND
  3. dated
363
Q

powers of attorney

types of powers of attorney

A

general: covers all affairs during a person’s period of incapacitation

special: limits authority to specific subject matters (like resolving a certain deal)

advance health care directives:
* living will - dictates care individual wants in teh event they cannot make those wishes known, agent needs to make sure directive is enforced
* durable POA for health care - appoints agent in event principal becomes incapacitated and is unable to make medical decisions, allows agent to stand in principal’s shoes and make decisions for them

364
Q

what laws are used to determine the validity of a will?

Wills

A
  • common law: state where the testator was domiciled at the time of his death
  • UPC: validity is determined under the law of the place where (i) the will was executed OR (ii) the testator is domiciled, has a place of abode, or is a national at the time of death.
365
Q

interpretation (construction) of wills

ademption by satisfaction

Wills

A
  • testator satisfies a specific or demonstrative gift (in whole or part) via inter vivos transfer
  • (1) testator must have intended for the gift to deem + (2) intent must be supported by a writing
366
Q

rule statement queen!

whether residuary bequest lapses b/c of express survivorship requirement in will

Wills

A

If an heir of a decedent fails to meet the survival requirement, then the heir is considered to have predeceased the decedent and does not take under the laws of intestacy.

The clause is similar to the state anti-lapse statute, and the fact that the testator uses the phrase “if [he/she] survives me” demonstrates that the testator intentionally distinguished gifts that were subject to survivorship.

HOWEVER, the UPC takes a contrary approach with respect to the effect of the phrase “if he [or she] survives me.”

It provides that an express survivorship contingency does not evidence intent for the anti-lapse statute to be inapplicable.

367
Q

republication by codicil doctrine

Wills

A

defects in a prev validly executed will can be cured if the will is “republished” in a properly executed codicil

treats portions of the original valid will that are not inconsistent with the terms of the codicil as recited in codicil

368
Q

terms

types of trust distributions –> mandatory, discretionary, support trusts

A
  • mandatory trust - trustee must make distributions from the trust, no discretion
  • discretionary trust - trustee may make distributions in their discretion, complete discretion
  • support trust - trustee makes distributions to support the beneficiary
369
Q

express trusts

express trusts (in general)

A

owner expressly indicates the intent to create a trust
may be private or charitable

370
Q

express trusts

private express trust - what are the elements to create one?

A

RIC PAT

1. res - trust res (property)

  • can’t be a trust if there’s no property in it (no empty trusts)
  • EXCEPT pour-over trust (trust terms must be in writing at time will is executed, properly need not be in trust at time of will)

2. settlor’s intent

  • “trust words” create a presumption of a trust (“in trust” “for the benefit of”)
  • oral trusts are valid
  • minority rule: valid trust must be in writing
  • precatory language does not create a trust (“hope” “wish”)

BUT trust must be in writing in certain situations

  • SOF (conveying real property)
  • devise

3. capacity of settlor

4. trust purpose - valid if not illegal or contrary to pbpl

5. ascertained beneficiary - either specific person or criteria to determine (ex. Chatterbox students)
EXCEPT

  • unborn children
  • class gifts must be definite
  • charitable trusts

6. trustee has duties

371
Q

remedial trusts

resulting trusts

A

used when trust fails (ex. property is supposed to go to A’s kids and A dies without any kids –> trust fails, property goes back to O)
trustee must return property to seller or settlor’s estate
goal is to avoid unjust enrichment
avoid a resulting trust by creating a gift-over clause (ex. if A dies without kids, then the property goes to B)

purchase-money resulting trust
P1 buys property but it’s taken in P2’s name
If P2 is not the natural object of P1’s bounty (not a close friend or relative), court will create this type of trust

372
Q

remedial trusts

constructive trust

A
  • remedy used to prevent unjust enrichment if 3p takes advantage of a settlor
  • wrongful conduct like fraud, duress, undue influence, breach of a duty, detrimental reliance by 3p
373
Q

creditors’ rights

alienability of trust property and creditors’ ability to reach –> two basic rules

A

1. beneficiary’s equitable interest in trust property is freely alienable
creditor can reach beneficiary’s equitable interest
EXCEPTION: trust instrument or statute limits this rights

2. creditor CANNOT reach trust principal or income until such amounts become payable to beneficiary or beneficiary can demand it
has to be in beneficiary’s hand for creditor to get it

374
Q

trust termination

material purpose

A

if trust has been satisfied, it auto terminates

375
Q

trust termination

unfulfilled material purpose doctrine / Claflin Doctrine

A

if settlor is dead and beneficiary wants to terminate the trust prematurely and trustee opposes termination (beneficiary wants their money early)

trustee can block premature termination if the trust is still serving some material purpose
discretionary trust, support trusts, age-dependent trusts

376
Q

trust termination

settlor’s power

A

settlor can unilaterally terminate unless trust is irrevocable
trusts are presumed revocable so a settlor doesn’t need to expressly reserve right to terminate

377
Q

trust modification

if settlor is dead

Trusts

A
  • all beneficiaries agree to a modification consistent with material purpose of trust
    OR
  • an unforeseeable event has frustrated purpose of the trust (equitable dedication)

if fact pattern involving unforeseen events, think clearly about purpose of the trust

378
Q

trustee’s duties - duty of care (duty of prudence)

Trusts

A
  • subjective standard - did trustee act in good faith
  • care that a person of ordinary prudence would practice in the care of their own estate
  • trustee should treat property as their own
  • trustee must use their special skills - held to heightened standard

delegation

  • common law rule: trustee can never delegate authority
  • modern rule: permits delegation when unreasonable for trustee to undertake such functions (ex. investment decisions), trustee has duty to oversee

investments

  • old rule: trustees were limited to specific list of acceptable investments, breach if outside the list
  • modern rule (Prudent Investor Rule): trustee has discretion to invest and manage property as a prudent investor, expected to diversify, look at portfolio as a whole

duty of impartiality

  • trustee has duty to balance the competing interests of present and future beneficiaries
  • old rule: life beneficiary entitled to income, remainder holder to principal
  • modern rule: allocation b/t income and principal must be balanced, treat them fairly
379
Q

how does a spendthrift clause work in a discretionary trust?

Trusts

A

w/o clause: if trustee pays beneficiary, then beneficiary’s creditors have same rights as beneficiary

  • spendthrift trust expressly restricts the beneficiary’s power to voluntarily or involuntarily transfer his equitable interest
  • applies only as long as the property remains in the trust, and it is inapplicable after it has been paid out to the beneficiary
  • creditors can’t reach the beneficiary’s trust interest
  • most states allow certain classes of creditors to reach a beneficiary’s interest even w/ clause
  • some states have exception for a provider of necessities to the beneficiary
380
Q

revoking a trust

Trusts

A

any method manifesting clear and convincing evidence of settlor’s intent
trust assets revert to settlor (if a revocable trust)

381
Q

annulment / void marriage

with a void marriage annulment, what happens if there is bigamy?

A

later marriage is void
burden is on the person trying to prove the first marriage

EXCEPTION: some states allow marriage to become valid if one party had a good faith belief that the marriage was valid and the impediment is removed (punative spouse doctrine!)

382
Q

what is the difference between a void marriage and voidable marriage?

A

void marriage - doesn’t require judicial degree, will not be legally recognized for any purpose, any party (incl. 3p) can seek it

voidable marriage - requires judicial decree, valid until one of the parties seeks annulment

383
Q

what is the standard for no-fault divorce?

A

marriage is “irretrievably broken”
also called irreconcilable differences
no prospect of reconciliation
some states require parties to be separated for a period of time before seeking
one spouse can’t prevent hte dissolution b/c they want to reconcile

384
Q

in general, what property is considered martial property?

A
  • all property acquired during the marriage
  • NOT prop acquired before marriage
  • NOT gifts and inheritance (except gifts b/t spouses)
  • NOT prop acquired after separation
  • NOT prop excluded via valid agreement
  • NOT any award/settlement payment from a cause of action before the marriage, regardless of when payment was received
385
Q

what factors are considered for distribution of marital property?

A
  • length of marriage
  • whether any prior marriages
  • economic circumstances of each spouse
  • health, earnings, age, earning potentail, liabilites, needs
  • contirbutions to education or career advancement of other spouse
  • needs for future acquisitions
  • value of any separate property
  • custodianship of any minor children
  • standard of living
386
Q

if a party wants to modify spousal support, what do they have to show?

A

party seeking modification has the burden of showing a significant change in circumstances in (1) the needs of the recipient OR (2) financial abilities of the payor

387
Q

what happens once paternity is established?

A

rights to custody and visitation and duty to support

388
Q

when may a husband who is not the bio father be estopped from denying his duty to pay child support?

A
  • husband promised to provide for the kid
  • wife relies on that promise AND
  • wife would suffer economic detriment from relying on that promise
389
Q

child support / modification

can child support be modified? if so, what is the standard?

A

yes in most jurisdictions

requires a substantial change in circumstances of (1) child’s needs or (2) parents’ financial situtation

390
Q

custody / UCCJEA

when does a court have initial custody determination / home state jurisdiction?

A

home state - where child lived with parents for 6 consecutive months

if child has moved, home state can still have jurisdiction if (1) it was the home state within past 6 months and (2) parent/guardian still lives there

391
Q

custody / UCCJEA

when does a court have significant connection jurisdiction?

A

(1) no other state is the home state,
(2) child and at least one parent have significant connections to the new state AND
(3) substantial evidence in that state concerning the child

392
Q

custody / UCCJEA

when does a court have default jurisdiction?

A

(1) no court has home state juris
(2) no court has significant connection juris AND
(3) court in a state that has appropriate connections to the child

393
Q

custody / UCCJEA

when does a court have exclusive continuing juris?

A

court that made the initial rulings in the custody case continue to have jurisdiction until
(1) parties no longer reside in that state OR
(2) child no longer has significant connection to the state AND No substantial evidence of the child’s condition continues to be available in the state

394
Q

custody / UCCJEA

when can courts decline jurisdiction?

A

new home state or court of exclusive continuing jurisdiction can decline when the forum is no longer convenient

factors

  • when domestic violence occurred
  • length of time child has resided outside of the juris
  • distance b/t competing juris
  • agreement of the parties
  • parties’ relative financial circumstances
  • nature and location of evidence that is relevant
    etc.
395
Q

custody / standard / 3p rights

legal parents presumptively get parental responsibility UNLESS

A
  • deemed unfit
  • detrimental to the child OR
  • parent has terminated those rights
396
Q

visitation

does an unwed bio father have rights?

A

right to substantive due process

must demonstrate a commitment to parenting responsibilities

397
Q

visitation / modification

can visitation be modified? what is the standard?

Fam Law

A

yes

“change in circumstances” must be substantial and unforeseen at time the final judgment was entered

398
Q

marital agreements / pre-nup

what is the choice of law?

Fam Law

A

most courts use state with the most significant relationship to the agreement and the marriage

399
Q

marital agreements

what is required for a marital agreement?

Fam Law

A

DR. FIVS

  1. full _d_isclosure of assets and debts
  2. _r_easonable and _f_air terms
  3. _v_oluntary
  4. _i_n writing AND
  5. _s_igned
400
Q

marital agreements

what is required to invalidate a martial agreement under the UPAA?

Fam Law

A

burden on party trying to invalidate
clear and convincing evidence standard

(1) agreement was involuntary OR
(2) unconscionable when executed
(a) spouse did not waive fair and reasonable disclosure AND
(b) spouse didn’t/couldn’t have had adequate knowledge of other’s assets and debts

401
Q

are awards recieved after sepration but before divorce considered marital property?

Fam Law

A

most states say it is marital property

402
Q

what factors do courts consider when looking at separation agreements?

incl when deciding if premartial agreement is voluntary

Fam Law

A
  • time pressure
  • relative business experience of each party
  • oppy to be represented by independent counsel
403
Q

fundamental rights of fit parents

Fam Law

A

fundamental right to the care, custody, and control of his children

404
Q

rule statement queen!

whether state court has SMJ over child support award

Fam Law

A

UIFSA governs SMJ over interstate child support disputes. UIFA utilizes a home state jurisdictional rule that establishes priority among competing child support orders.

UIFSA’s home-state rule does not preclude a state from issuing a support order when another
state is the child’s home state.

405
Q

applicable laws for divorce, adoption, and marriage

Fam Law

A
  • divorce - law of plaintiff’s domicile
  • adoption - forum ct applies own stat law
  • marriage - generally valid where it took place / celebrated
406
Q

consideration under common law + UCC

Contracts

A
  • common law - need consideration to modify a contract
  • UCC - only good faith
407
Q

tip

structure for Contracts essay

A
  • UCC vs. common law
  • contract formation + defenses
  • performance obligations + defenses
  • damages
  • assignment, delegation, 3p beneficiaries