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Final Revision > Hyperlipidemia > Flashcards

Hyperlipidemia Flashcards

1
Q

Lipids include:
a. Phospholipid.
b. Cholesterol.
c. Free fatty acids.
d. Lipoprotein.

A

The correct answer is: b. Cholesterol.

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2
Q

Lipids include:
a. Proteins.
b. Triglyceride.
c. Phospholipid.
d. Free fatty acids.

A

The correct answer is: b. Triglyceride.

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3
Q

True regarding the solubility of lipids:
a. Lipids are water soluble.
b. Lipids are water insoluble and need a transporter to move around the body.
c. Lipids are water insoluble and do not need a transporter.
d. Lipids are water soluble and need a transporter to move around the body.

A

The correct answer is: b. Lipids are water insoluble and need a transporter to move around the body.

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4
Q

Lipoproteins are:
a. Small molecules consisting of lipid and apolipoprotein.
b. Spherical macromolecules which consist of lipid and apolipoprotein.
c. Spherical micromolecules which consist of protein only.
d. Small micromolecules which consist of lipid and protein.

A

The correct answer is: b. Spherical macromolecules which consist of lipid and apolipoprotein.

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5
Q

Chylomicrons are secreted from:
a. Liver to carry endogenous triglycerides.
b. Intestine to carry endogenous cholesterol.
c. Intestine to carry exogenous triglycerides and cholesterol.
d. Liver to carry endogenous cholesterol.

A

The correct answer is: c. Intestine to carry exogenous triglycerides and cholesterol.

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6
Q

VLDL is secreted from:
a. Intestine to carry endogenous triglycerides.
b. Liver to carry exogenous triglycerides.
c. Liver to carry endogenous triglycerides.
d. Intestine to carry exogenous cholesterol.

A

The correct answer is: c. Liver to carry endogenous triglycerides.

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7
Q

LDL is secreted from:
a. Intestine to carry exogenous cholesterol.
b. Liver to carry endogenous triglycerides.
c. Intestine to carry endogenous triglycerides.
d. Liver to carry endogenous cholesterol.

A

The correct answer is: d. Liver to carry endogenous cholesterol.

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8
Q

HDL carries cholesterol from:
a. Liver to blood circulation.
b. Blood circulation to liver for metabolism and/or secretion.
c. Intestine to liver.
d. Liver to intestine.

A

The correct answer is: b. Blood circulation to liver for metabolism and/or secretion.

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9
Q

Coronary Heart Disease (CHD) is correlated with elevated levels of:
a. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C; “good” cholesterol).
b. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C; “bad” cholesterol).
c. Medium-density lipoprotein cholesterol (MDL-C).
d. Very-high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (VHLDL-C).

A

The correct answer is: b. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C; “bad” cholesterol).

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10
Q

Coronary Heart Disease (CHD) is correlated with elevated levels of:
a. Triglycerides.
b. Glucose.
c. Lipoproteins.
d. Phospholipids.

A

The correct answer is: a. Triglycerides.

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11
Q

Coronary Heart Disease (CHD) is correlated with low levels of:
a. Triglycerides.
b. Cholesterol.
c. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C; “good” cholesterol).
d. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C; “bad” cholesterol).

A

The correct answer is: c. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C; “good” cholesterol).

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12
Q

Plasma lipids consist mostly of:
a. Phospholipids and triglycerides.
b. Lipoproteins, which are spherical complexes of lipids and specific proteins (apolipoproteins).
c. Cholesterol and lipoproteins.
d. Free fatty acids and apolipoproteins.

A

The correct answer is: b. Lipoproteins, which are spherical complexes of lipids and specific proteins (apolipoproteins).

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13
Q

Lipoprotein is the combination of:
a. Triglyceride and phospholipid.
b. Cholesterol and triglyceride.
c. Triglyceride or cholesterol with apoprotein.
d. Free fatty acids and cholesterol.

A

The correct answer is: c. Triglyceride or cholesterol with apoprotein.

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14
Q

The clinically important lipoproteins, listed in decreasing order of atherogenicity, are:
a. HDL > VLDL > chylomicrons > LDL.
b. VLDL > LDL > chylomicrons > HDL.
c. LDL > VLDL > chylomicrons > HDL.
d. Chylomicrons > LDL > HDL > VLDL.

A

The correct answer is: c. LDL > VLDL > chylomicrons > HDL.

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15
Q

Low-density lipoproteins (LDL):
a. Deliver cholesterol to the body. It is good cholesterol.
b. Remove cholesterol from the bloodstream. It is bad cholesterol.
c. Deliver cholesterol to the body. It is bad cholesterol.
d. Remove cholesterol from the bloodstream. It is good cholesterol.

A

The correct answer is: c. Deliver cholesterol to the body. It is bad cholesterol.

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16
Q

High-density lipoproteins (HDL):
a. Remove cholesterol from the bloodstream. It is good cholesterol.
b. Deliver cholesterol to the body. It is good cholesterol.
c. Remove cholesterol from the bloodstream. It is bad cholesterol.
d. Deliver cholesterol to the body. It is bad cholesterol.

A

The correct answer is: a. Remove cholesterol from the bloodstream. It is good cholesterol.

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17
Q

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors lower elevated LDL-C by:
a. Increasing triglyceride levels.
b. Lowering cholesterol synthesis.
c. Lowering HDL levels.
d. Increasing plasma cholesterol levels.

A

The correct answer is: b. Lowering cholesterol synthesis.

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18
Q

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors result in:
a. Increase in coronary events.
b. Reduction in coronary events and death from CHD.
c. Increase in HDL levels.
d. Increase in cholesterol absorption.

A

The correct answer is: b. Reduction in coronary events and death from CHD.

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19
Q

The most effective statin is:
a. Rosuvastatin.
b. Lovastatin.
c. Pravastatin.
d. None of the above.

A

The correct answer is: a. Rosuvastatin.

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20
Q

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors are:
a. The least effective cholesterol-lowering agents.
b. The most effective cholesterol-lowering agents.
c. Used for increasing triglyceride levels.
d. Used for increasing LDL levels.

A

The correct answer is: b. The most effective cholesterol-lowering agents.

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21
Q

The mechanism of action of statins involves:
a. Inhibition of triglyceride synthesis.
b. Competitive inhibition of HMG CoA reductase.
c. Increase in intracellular cholesterol.
d. Decrease in LDL catabolism.

A

The correct answer is: b. Competitive inhibition of HMG CoA reductase.

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22
Q

Statins increase:
a. LDL cholesterol levels.
b. Triglyceride levels.
c. HDL cholesterol levels.
d. VLDL cholesterol levels.

A

The correct answer is: c. HDL cholesterol levels.

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23
Q

Statins are:
a. Primary treatment option for hypercholesterolemia.
b. Secondary treatment option for hypertension.
c. Used to increase LDL cholesterol levels.
d. Not effective in hyperlipidemia.

A

The correct answer is: a. Primary treatment option for hypercholesterolemia.

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24
Q

Statins are considered:
a. Third-line treatment for ASCVD.
b. Second-line treatment for hypertension.
c. First-line treatment for ASCVD.
d. Not recommended for ASCVD.

A

The correct answer is: c. First-line treatment for ASCVD.

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25
Q

Statins are effective in:
a. Increasing plasma cholesterol levels.
b. Lowering plasma cholesterol levels in all types of hyperlipidemias.
c. Increasing triglyceride levels.
d. Decreasing HDL cholesterol levels.

A

The correct answer is: b. Lowering plasma cholesterol levels in all types of hyperlipidemias.

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26
Q

Statins should be given at:
a. Morning.
b. Noon.
c. Evening.
d. None of the above.

A

The correct answer is: c. Evening.

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27
Q

Statins can cause:
a. Decreased liver enzymes.
b. Increased liver enzymes (hepatotoxicity).
c. Decreased muscle pain.
d. Increased triglyceride levels.

A

The correct answer is: b. Increased liver enzymes (hepatotoxicity).

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28
Q

Statins may lead to:
a. Myopathy and rhabdomyolysis.
b. Increased muscle strength.
c. Decreased muscle pain.
d. Increased HDL cholesterol levels.

A

The correct answer is: a. Myopathy and rhabdomyolysis.

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29
Q

Statins can increase the effect of:
a. Aspirin.
b. Warfarin.
c. Metformin.
d. Insulin.

A

The correct answer is: b. Warfarin.

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30
Q

Statins are contraindicated:
a. During hypertension.
b. During pregnancy and lactation.
c. In patients with diabetes.
d. In patients with low cholesterol levels.

A

The correct answer is: b. During pregnancy and lactation.

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31
Q

Niacin reduces LDL-C by:
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%

A

The correct answer is: c. 20%

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32
Q

Niacin lowers triglycerides by:
a. 25%
b. 30%
c. 35%
d. 40%

A

The correct answer is: c. 35%

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33
Q

Niacin is the most effective agent for:
a. Increasing LDL-C
b. Increasing HDL-C
c. Decreasing HDL-C
d. Increasing triglycerides

A

The correct answer is: b. Increasing HDL-C

34
Q

Niacin inhibits lipolysis in:
a. Muscle tissue
b. Adipose tissue
c. Liver tissue
d. Skin tissue

A

The correct answer is: b. Adipose tissue

35
Q

The inhibition of lipolysis by niacin reduces the production of:
a. Triglycerides
b. Cholesterol
c. Free fatty acids
d. Phospholipids

A

The correct answer is: c. Free fatty acids

36
Q

The liver uses circulating free fatty acids as a major precursor for:
a. Cholesterol synthesis
b. Triglyceride synthesis
c. Phospholipid synthesis
d. Lipoprotein synthesis

A

The correct answer is: b. Triglyceride synthesis

37
Q

Reduced liver triglyceride levels decrease hepatic VLDL production, which in turn reduces:
a. HDL-C plasma concentrations
b. LDL-C plasma concentrations
c. Cholesterol absorption
d. Lipoprotein metabolism

A

The correct answer is: b. LDL-C plasma concentrations

38
Q

Niacin lowers plasma levels of both:
a. Cholesterol and phospholipids
b. Triglycerides and phospholipids
c. Cholesterol and triglycerides
d. HDL-C and LDL-C

A

The correct answer is: c. Cholesterol and triglycerides

39
Q

Niacin is useful in the treatment of:
a. Hypertension
b. Diabetes
c. Familial hyperlipidemias
d. Hypothyroidism

A

The correct answer is: c. Familial hyperlipidemias

40
Q

The most common side effect of niacin is:
a. Myopathy
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. Intense cutaneous flush and pruritus
d. Hyperglycemia

A

The correct answer is: c. Intense cutaneous flush and pruritus

41
Q

The cutaneous flush and pruritus caused by niacin is due to the production of:
a. Prostaglandins
b. Leukotrienes
c. Histamines
d. Serotonin

A

The correct answer is: a. Prostaglandins

42
Q

To prevent the intense cutaneous flush and pruritus caused by niacin, patients should:
a. Take NSAIDs before administering niacin and take it at night
b. Take antihistamines before administering niacin
c. Take corticosteroids before administering niacin
d. Take niacin with food

A

The correct answer is: a. Take NSAIDs before administering niacin and take it at night

43
Q

Niacin inhibits tubular secretion of uric acid and predisposes to:
a. Hypouricemia and diabetes
b. Hyperuricemia and gout
c. Hypercalcemia and epilepsy
d. Hypocalcemia and schizophrenia

A

The correct answer is: b. Hyperuricemia and gout

44
Q

Hepatotoxicity has also been reported with niacin; therefore, it should be avoided in:
a. Renal disease
b. Hepatic disease
c. Cardiac disease
d. Pulmonary disease

A

The correct answer is: b. Hepatic disease

45
Q

Niacin should be given with caution when combined with:
a. Antihypertensives
b. Antidiabetics
c. Statins
d. Anticoagulants

A

The correct answer is: c. Statins

46
Q

Fenofibrate and gemfibrozil are derivatives of:
a. Cholesterol
b. Fibric acid
c. Nicotinic acid
d. Phospholipid

A

The correct answer is: b. Fibric acid

47
Q

Fibrates lower:
a. Serum HDL levels
b. Serum triglycerides
c. Serum LDL levels
d. Serum cholesterol levels

A

The correct answer is: b. Serum triglycerides

48
Q

Fibrates increase:
a. LDL levels
b. Triglyceride levels
c. HDL levels
d. VLDL levels

A

The correct answer is: c. HDL levels

49
Q

The most efficacious agents in lowering triglycerides are:
a. Niacin and fibric acid derivatives
b. Statins and bile acid resins
c. Ezetimibe and omega-3 fatty acids
d. Cholestyramine and colestipol

A

The correct answer is: a. Niacin and fibric acid derivatives

50
Q

Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors (PPARs) are members of the nuclear receptor family that:
a. Regulates carbohydrate metabolism
b. Regulates protein metabolism
c. Regulates lipid metabolism
d. Regulates nucleic acid metabolism

A

The correct answer is: c. Regulates lipid metabolism

51
Q

Fenofibrate and gemfibrozil are activators of the intracellular receptor PPARs and regulate:
a. Carbohydrate metabolism
b. Protein metabolism
c. Lipid metabolism
d. Nucleic acid metabolism

A

The correct answer is: c. Lipid metabolism

52
Q

Activation of PPARs by fibrates leads to decreased triglyceride concentrations through:
a. Increased expression of lipoprotein lipase
b. Decreased expression of lipoprotein lipase
c. Increased expression of cholesterol esterase
d. Decreased expression of cholesterol esterase

A

The correct answer is: a. Increased expression of lipoprotein lipase

53
Q

Fibrates are used in the treatment of:
a. Hypertension
b. Hypertriglyceridemias
c. Hypercholesterolemia
d. Diabetes

A

The correct answer is: b. Hypertriglyceridemias

54
Q

The most common adverse effects of fibrates are:
a. Severe gastrointestinal disturbances
b. Mild gastrointestinal disturbances
c. Severe hepatic disturbances
d. Mild hepatic disturbances

A

The correct answer is: b. Mild gastrointestinal disturbances

55
Q

Because fibrates increase biliary cholesterol excretion, there is a predisposition to:
a. Form kidney stones
b. Form gallstones
c. Form blood clots
d. Form liver cysts

A

The correct answer is: b. Form gallstones

56
Q

Myopathy and rhabdomyolysis may occur in patients taking:
a. Gemfibrozil and statins together
b. Fenofibrate and statins together
c. Niacin and statins together
d. Ezetimibe and statins together

A

The correct answer is: a. Gemfibrozil and statins together

57
Q

Bile acid sequestrants (resins) have significant effects in lowering:
a. HDL cholesterol
b. LDL cholesterol
c. VLDL cholesterol
d. Triglycerides

A

The correct answer is: b. LDL cholesterol

58
Q

The benefits of bile acid sequestrants are:
a. Greater than those observed with statins
b. Equal to those observed with statins
c. Less than those observed with statins
d. No different than those observed with statins

A

The correct answer is: c. Less than those observed with statins

59
Q

Cholestyramine, colestipol, and colesevelam bind to:
a. Triglycerides in the small intestine
b. Bile acids and bile salts in the small intestine
c. Cholesterol in the large intestine
d. Fatty acids in the stomach

A

The correct answer is: b. Bile acids and bile salts in the small intestine

60
Q

The resin/bile acid complex is:
a. Absorbed in the intestine
b. Excreted in the feces
c. Metabolized in the liver
d. Stored in the gallbladder

A

The correct answer is: b. Excreted in the feces

61
Q

This process causes hepatocytes to increase conversion of:
a. Triglycerides to bile acids
b. Cholesterol to bile acids
c. HDL to LDL
d. LDL to HDL

A

The correct answer is: b. Cholesterol to bile acids

62
Q

Bile acid sequestrants ultimately cause intracellular cholesterol concentrations to:
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain the same
d. Fluctuate

A

The correct answer is: b. Decrease

63
Q

Bile acid-binding resins are useful in treating:
a. Type II diabetes
b. Hypertension
c. Type IIA and type IIB hyperlipidemias
d. Hypertriglyceridemia

A

The correct answer is: c. Type IIA and type IIB hyperlipidemias

64
Q

Colesevelam is also indicated for:
a. Type I diabetes
b. Type II diabetes
c. Hypertension
d. Hypothyroidism

A

The correct answer is: b. Type II diabetes

65
Q

Bile acid sequestrants are:
a. Soluble in water
b. Insoluble in water
c. Absorbed in the intestine
d. Metabolically altered by the intestine

A

The correct answer is: b. Insoluble in water

66
Q

After oral administration, bile acid sequestrants are:
a. Absorbed and metabolically altered by the intestine
b. Absorbed but not metabolically altered by the intestine
c. Not absorbed nor metabolically altered by the intestine
d. Metabolically altered but not absorbed by the intestine

A

The correct answer is: c. Not absorbed nor metabolically altered by the intestine

67
Q

Bile acid sequestrants are:
a. Partially excreted in the feces
b. Totally excreted in the feces
c. Metabolized by the liver
d. Stored in adipose tissue

A

The correct answer is: b. Totally excreted in the feces

68
Q

The most common side effects of bile acid sequestrants are:
a. Hepatic disturbances
b. Gastrointestinal disturbances
c. Renal disturbances
d. Neurological disturbances

A

The correct answer is: b. Gastrointestinal disturbances

69
Q

These agents may impair the absorption of:
a. Water-soluble vitamins
b. Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K)
c. Minerals (iron, calcium, magnesium)
d. Proteins and amino acids

A

The correct answer is: b. Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K)

70
Q

These agents may raise:
a. HDL levels
b. LDL levels
c. Triglyceride levels
d. VLDL levels

A

The correct answer is: c. Triglyceride levels

71
Q

Bile acid sequestrants are contraindicated in patients with:
a. Hypercholesterolemia
b. Hypocholesterolemia
c. Significant hypertriglyceridemia
d. Hyperglycemia

A

The correct answer is: c. Significant hypertriglyceridemia

72
Q

Ezetimibe selectively inhibits absorption of:
a. Dietary and biliary cholesterol in the small intestine
b. Triglycerides in the large intestine
c. Free fatty acids in the liver
d. HDL in the small intestine

A

The correct answer is: a. Dietary and biliary cholesterol in the small intestine

73
Q

Ezetimibe decreases the delivery of:
a. Triglycerides to the liver
b. Intestinal cholesterol to the liver
c. HDL to the blood
d. LDL to the liver

A

The correct answer is: b. Intestinal cholesterol to the liver

74
Q

Ezetimibe lowers:
a. HDL cholesterol
b. Triglycerides
c. LDL cholesterol
d. VLDL cholesterol

A

The correct answer is: c. LDL cholesterol

75
Q

Ezetimibe increases:
a. LDL cholesterol
b. HDL cholesterol
c. Triglycerides
d. VLDL cholesterol

A

The correct answer is: b. HDL cholesterol

76
Q

Adverse effects with the use of ezetimibe are:
a. Common
b. Uncommon
c. Severe
d. Frequent

A

The correct answer is: b. Uncommon

77
Q

Omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) are used for:
a. Increasing triglycerides
b. Lowering triglycerides
c. Increasing HDL
d. Lowering LDL

A

The correct answer is: b. Lowering triglycerides

78
Q

Omega-3 PUFAs may raise:
a. HDL-C
b. LDL-C
c. VLDL-C
d. Triglycerides

A

The correct answer is: b. LDL-C

79
Q

Essential fatty acids inhibit:
a. VLDL and triglyceride synthesis in the liver
b. HDL synthesis in the blood
c. LDL synthesis in the intestine
d. Cholesterol synthesis in the liver

A

The correct answer is: a. VLDL and triglyceride synthesis in the liver

80
Q

Omega-3 PUFAs eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) are found in:
a. Plant sources
b. Dairy products
c. Marine sources such as tuna, halibut, and salmon
d. Meat products

A

The correct answer is: c. Marine sources such as tuna, halibut, and salmon

81
Q

The most common side effects of omega-3 PUFAs include:
a. Neurological effects
b. Cardiovascular effects
c. GI effects (abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhea) and a fishy aftertaste
d. Respiratory effects

A

The correct answer is: c. GI effects (abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhea) and a fishy aftertaste

82
Q

Bleeding risk can be increased in those who are concomitantly taking:
a. Antihypertensives
b. Antidiabetics
c. Anticoagulants or antiplatelets
d. Statins

A

The correct answer is: c. Anticoagulants or antiplatelets

Final Revision (9 decks)

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