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Final Revision > Epilepsy PART2 (Antiepileptic Drugs) > Flashcards

Epilepsy PART2 (Antiepileptic Drugs) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is included in the action of antiepileptic drugs?
a. Enhancing excitatory glutamate transmission.
b. Blocking voltage-gated channels (Na⁺ or Ca²⁺).
c. Reducing inhibitory γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)-ergic impulses.
d. Increasing excitatory serotonin transmission.

A

The correct answer is: b. Blocking voltage-gated channels (Na⁺ or Ca²⁺).

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2
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the mechanisms of action of antiepileptic drugs?
a. They only block voltage-gated Na⁺ channels.
b. They enhance inhibitory γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)-ergic impulses.
c. They interfere with inhibitory glutamate transmission.
d. They do not affect voltage-gated channels.

A

The correct answer is: b. They enhance inhibitory γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)-ergic impulses.

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3
Q

Which mechanism is NOT a part of antiepileptic drug action?
a. Interfering with excitatory glutamate transmission.
b. Enhancing inhibitory GABAergic impulses.
c. Blocking voltage-gated channels.
d. Enhancing excitatory serotonin transmission.

A

The correct answer is: d. Enhancing excitatory serotonin transmission.

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4
Q

True or False: Antiepileptic drugs work by enhancing excitatory glutamate transmission.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: b. False.

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5
Q

Which of the following correctly describes a mechanism of action of antiepileptic drugs?
a. Interfering with excitatory serotonin transmission.
b. Blocking voltage-gated potassium channels.
c. Enhancing inhibitory GABAergic impulses.
d. Reducing excitatory dopamine transmission.

A

The correct answer is: c. Enhancing inhibitory GABAergic impulses.

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6
Q

Which of the following drugs is classified as a 1st generation antiepileptic?
a. Gabapentin
b. Lamotrigine
c. Phenobarbital
d. Topiramate

A

The correct answer is: c. Phenobarbital.

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7
Q

Which of the following is a 2nd generation antiepileptic drug?
a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamazepine
c. Ethosuximide
d. Gabapentin

A

The correct answer is: d. Gabapentin.

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8
Q

True or False: Valproic acid is a 1st generation antiepileptic drug.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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9
Q

Which of the following drugs is NOT a 1st generation antiepileptic?
a. Divalproex
b. Levetiracetam
c. Ethosuximide
d. Carbamazepine

A

The correct answer is: b. Levetiracetam.

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10
Q

Which of the following drugs is classified as a 2nd generation antiepileptic?
a. Phenobarbital
b. Phenytoin
c. Lamotrigine
d. Divalproex

A

The correct answer is: c. Lamotrigine.

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11
Q

True or False: Oxcarbazepine is a 2nd generation antiepileptic drug.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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12
Q

Which of the following drugs belongs to the 1st generation antiepileptic category?
a. Gabapentin
b. Zonisamide
c. Phenytoin
d. Levetiracetam

A

The correct answer is: c. Phenytoin.

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13
Q

Which of the following is a 2nd generation antiepileptic drug?
a. Valproic acid
b. Carbamazepine
c. Topiramate
d. Ethosuximide

A

The correct answer is: c. Topiramate.

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14
Q

True or False: Phenobarbital is a 2nd generation antiepileptic drug.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: b. False.

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a 2nd generation antiepileptic drug?
a. Gabapentin
b. Lamotrigine
c. Phenobarbital
d. Levetiracetam

A

The correct answer is: c. Phenobarbital.

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16
Q

Which of the following drugs is classified as a 1st generation antiepileptic?
a. Levetiracetam
b. Divalproex
c. Topiramate
d. Zonisamide

A

The correct answer is: b. Divalproex.

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17
Q

True or False: Zonisamide is a 1st generation antiepileptic drug.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: b. False.

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18
Q

Which of the following is a 1st generation antiepileptic drug?
a. Gabapentin
b. Lamotrigine
c. Ethosuximide
d. Oxcarbazepine

A

The correct answer is: c. Ethosuximide.

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19
Q

Which of the following drugs belongs to the 2nd generation antiepileptic category?
a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamazepine
c. Topiramate
d. Valproic acid

A

The correct answer is: c. Topiramate.

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20
Q

True or False: Lamotrigine is a 2nd generation antiepileptic drug.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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21
Q

Benzodiazepines bind to which receptors to reduce the firing rate?
a. Dopamine receptors
b. Serotonin receptors
c. GABA inhibitory receptors
d. Glutamate receptors

A

The correct answer is: c. GABA inhibitory receptors.

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22
Q

True or False: Benzodiazepines reduce the firing rate by binding to GABA inhibitory receptors.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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23
Q

Which of the following benzodiazepines is used for myoclonic seizures?
a. Clonazepam
b. Lorazepam
c. Diazepam
d. Both b and c

A

The correct answer is: d. Both b and c.

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24
Q

True or False: Diazepam is used for partial and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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25
Q

Which of the following statements about diazepam is true?
a. It is available only for intravenous administration.
b. It is available for rectal administration to avoid prolonged generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
c. It is not used for status epilepsy.
d. It binds to dopamine receptors.

A

The correct answer is: b. It is available for rectal administration to avoid prolonged generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

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26
Q

True or False: Diazepam and lorazepam are the first-line treatments in status epilepsy according to FDA guidelines.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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27
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about benzodiazepines?
a. They bind to GABA inhibitory receptors.
b. They reduce the firing rate.
c. They are not used for myoclonic seizures.
d. They are the first-line treatment in status epilepsy.

A

The correct answer is: c. They are not used for myoclonic seizures.

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28
Q

Diazepam and lorazepam are used for which types of seizures?
a. Absence seizures only
b. Myoclonic seizures as well as partial and generalized tonic-clonic seizures
c. Focal seizures only
d. None of the above

A

The correct answer is: b. Myoclonic seizures as well as partial and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

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29
Q

True or False: Lorazepam is available for rectal administration to avoid prolonged generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: b. False.

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30
Q

Which of the following statements is correct about the first-line treatment in status epilepsy?
a. Clonazepam is the first-line treatment according to FDA guidelines.
b. Diazepam and lorazepam are the first-line treatments according to FDA guidelines.
c. Phenobarbital is the first-line treatment according to FDA guidelines.
d. Phenytoin is the first-line treatment according to FDA guidelines.

A

The correct answer is: b. Diazepam and lorazepam are the first-line treatments according to FDA guidelines.

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31
Q

True or False: Drugs used for focal seizures are also known as drugs for partial onset seizures.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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32
Q

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of carbamazepine?
a. Enhances GABAergic transmission
b. Blocks sodium channels
c. Inhibits calcium channels
d. Increases glutamate transmission

A

The correct answer is: b. Blocks sodium channels.

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33
Q

Which of the following is true about carbamazepine?
a. It is effective for treating absence seizures.
b. It inhibits the generation of repetitive action potentials in the epileptic focus.
c. It does not have any effect on tonic-clonic seizures.
d. It is only used for trigeminal neuralgia.

A

The correct answer is: b. It inhibits the generation of repetitive action potentials in the epileptic focus.

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34
Q

Carbamazepine is used for the treatment of:
a. Myoclonic seizures
b. Partial seizures and generalized tonic-clonic seizures
c. Absence seizures
d. Status epilepticus

A

The correct answer is: b. Partial seizures and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

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35
Q

True or False: Carbamazepine is also used to treat trigeminal neuralgia and bipolar disorder.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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36
Q

Which of the following is NOT a use of carbamazepine?
a. Partial seizures
b. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
c. Absence seizures
d. Trigeminal neuralgia

A

The correct answer is: c. Absence seizures.

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37
Q

Which of the following statements about carbamazepine is correct?
a. It does not induce its own metabolism.
b. It has an active metabolite that can cause blood dyscrasias.
c. It is not an inducer of CYP450 enzymes.
d. It should be prescribed for patients with absence seizures.

A

The correct answer is: b. It has an active metabolite that can cause blood dyscrasias.

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38
Q

Carbamazepine induces the metabolism of drugs by which enzymes?
a. CYP3A4 and CYP2D6
b. CYP450s and UGT enzymes
c. CYP1A2 and CYP2C9
d. CYP2E1 and CYP2C19

A

The correct answer is: b. CYP450s and UGT enzymes.

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39
Q

True or False: Carbamazepine should not be prescribed for patients with absence seizures because it may cause an increase in seizures.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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40
Q

Which side effect is associated with carbamazepine?
a. Constipation
b. Diplopia and blurred vision
c. Hypokalemia
d. Tachycardia

A

The correct answer is: b. Diplopia and blurred vision.

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41
Q

True or False: Hyponatremia is a potential side effect of carbamazepine.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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42
Q

What is a potential ophthalmic side effect of carbamazepine?
a. Cataracts
b. Diplopia (double vision)
c. Glaucoma
d. Retinitis

A

The correct answer is: b. Diplopia (double vision).

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43
Q

Oxcarbazepine is reduced to which active metabolite responsible for its anticonvulsant activity?
a. Monoacetyl (MA)
b. Monohydroxy (MHD)
c. Monoglucuronide (MG)
d. Monophosphate (MP)

A

The correct answer is: b. Monohydroxy (MHD).

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44
Q

What is the mechanism of action of oxcarbazepine?
a. Enhances GABAergic transmission
b. Blocks sodium channels
c. Inhibits calcium channels
d. Increases glutamate transmission

A

The correct answer is: b. Blocks sodium channels.

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45
Q

True or False: Oxcarbazepine is used for the treatment of partial onset seizures.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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46
Q

Compared to carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine is a:
a. More potent inducer of CYP3A4 and UGT enzymes
b. Less potent inducer of CYP3A4 and UGT enzymes
c. Equal inducer of CYP3A4 and UGT enzymes
d. Non-inducer of CYP3A4 and UGT enzymes

A

The correct answer is: b. Less potent inducer of CYP3A4 and UGT enzymes.

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47
Q

Which of the following statements about oxcarbazepine is true?
a. It has high drug-drug interactions.
b. It has low drug-drug interactions.
c. It is not effective for partial onset seizures.
d. It is more potent than carbamazepine.

A

The correct answer is: b. It has low drug-drug interactions.

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48
Q

True or False: Oxcarbazepine can cause nausea, vomiting, headache, and visual disturbances.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

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49
Q

Which of the following is a side effect of oxcarbazepine?
a. Constipation
b. Hypertension
c. Headache
d. Weight gain

A

The correct answer is: c. Headache.

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50
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of phenytoin?
a. Enhances GABAergic transmission
b. Blocks sodium channels
c. Inhibits calcium channels
d. Increases glutamate transmission

A

The correct answer is: b. Blocks sodium channels.

51
Q

At very high concentrations, phenytoin can:
a. Block voltage-dependent calcium channels
b. Interfere with the release of monoaminergic neurotransmitters.
c. Increase serotonin release
d. A+B

A

d. A+B

52
Q

True or False: Phenytoin is effective for the treatment of partial seizures and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

53
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication for phenytoin?
a. Trigeminal neuralgia
b. Absence seizures
c. Status epilepticus
d. Partial seizures

A

The correct answer is: b. Absence seizures.

54
Q

Which statement about phenytoin’s use in status epilepticus is correct?
a. It is ineffective.
b. It is the first-line treatment.
c. It is used in combination with benzodiazepines.
d. It should be avoided.

A

The correct answer is: c. It is used in combination with benzodiazepines.

55
Q

True or False: Phenytoin should not be used in absence seizures because it has the potential to exacerbate absence epilepsy.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

56
Q

What side effect is commonly associated with phenytoin?
a. Hypokalemia
b. Gingival hyperplasia
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Hyperthyroidism

A

The correct answer is: b. Gingival hyperplasia.

57
Q

True or False: Phenytoin and fosphenytoin induce drugs metabolized by liver enzyme systems.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

58
Q

True or False: Fosphenytoin is a prodrug that is rapidly converted to phenytoin in the blood.
a. True.
b. False.

A

The correct answer is: a. True.

59
Q

Phenytoin can cause depression of the CNS leading to:
a. Euphoria and agitation.
b. Rapid involuntary movements of the eyes (nystagmus) and ataxia.
c. Increased appetite and weight gain.
d. Enhanced cognitive functions.

A

The correct answer is: b. Rapid involuntary movements of the eyes (nystagmus) and ataxia.

60
Q

A well-known side effect of phenytoin that affects oral health is:
a. Xerostomia.
b. Gingival hyperplasia.
c. Dental caries.
d. Oral candidiasis.

A

The correct answer is: b. Gingival hyperplasia.

61
Q

Which of the following conditions may develop as a result of phenytoin use?
a. Cardiomyopathy and hypertension.
b. Peripheral neuropathies and osteoporosis.
c. Chronic kidney disease and hyperkalemia.
d. Liver cirrhosis and ascites.

A

The correct answer is: b. Peripheral neuropathies and osteoporosis.

62
Q

Patients taking phenytoin are at risk of developing which type of anemia?
a. Microcytic anemia.
b. Megaloblastic anemia.
c. Hemolytic anemia.
d. Sickle cell anemia.

A

The correct answer is: b. Megaloblastic anemia.

63
Q

Gabapentin is an analog of:
a. Dopamine.
b. Serotonin.
c. GABA.
d. Glutamate.

A

The correct answer is: c. GABA.

64
Q

Gabapentin does not bind to:
a. Dopamine receptors.
b. Serotonin receptors.
c. GABA receptors.
d. Glutamate receptors.

A

The correct answer is: c. GABA receptors.

65
Q

Gabapentin is used as adjunct therapy for:
a. Generalized seizures.
b. Partial seizures and postherpetic neuralgia.
c. Absence seizures.
d. Myoclonic seizures.

A

The correct answer is: b. Partial seizures and postherpetic neuralgia.

66
Q

Gabapentin has nonlinear pharmacokinetics because:
a. It binds to plasma proteins.
b. It is metabolized in the liver.
c. Its uptake is saturable in the gut.
d. It is excreted through the lungs.

A

The correct answer is: c. Its uptake is saturable in the gut.

67
Q

Gabapentin is excreted:
a. Unchanged through the kidneys.
b. As active metabolites through the liver.
c. Through bile excretion.
d. Through the lungs.

A

The correct answer is: a. Unchanged through the kidneys.

68
Q

Gabapentin has low drug-drug interaction because it:
a. Binds strongly to plasma proteins.
b. Is metabolized by CYP enzymes.
c. Does not bind to plasma proteins.
d. Undergoes significant first-pass metabolism.

A

The correct answer is: c. Does not bind to plasma proteins.

69
Q

Gabapentin is a good choice for older patients because:
a. It has a short half-life.
b. It is well tolerated due to its mild side effects.
c. It has a strong sedative effect.
d. It enhances cognitive functions.

A

The correct answer is: b. It is well tolerated due to its mild side effects.

70
Q

Tiagabine’s mechanism of action involves:
a. Blocking calcium channels.
b. Blocking sodium channels.
c. Blocking GABA uptake into presynaptic neurons.
d. Enhancing dopamine release.

A

The correct answer is: c. Blocking GABA uptake into presynaptic neurons.

71
Q

By blocking GABA uptake, Tiagabine:
a. Reduces GABA availability for receptor binding.
b. Enhances inhibitory activity.
c. Increases excitatory neurotransmission.
d. Decreases GABA synthesis.

A

The correct answer is: b. Enhances inhibitory activity.

72
Q

Tiagabine is effective in treating:
a. Absence seizures.
b. Myoclonic seizures.
c. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
d. Partial onset epilepsy.

A

The correct answer is: d. Partial onset epilepsy.

73
Q

Tiagabine is not approved for:
a. Myoclonic seizures.
b. Absence seizures.
c. Atonic seizures.
d. Partial onset epilepsy.

A

The correct answer is: b. Absence seizures.

74
Q

Which of the following statements is true about Tiagabine?
a. It is used for absence seizures.
b. It blocks sodium channels.
c. It enhances inhibitory activity by blocking GABA uptake.
d. It has a high incidence of drug-drug interactions.

A

The correct answer is: c. It enhances inhibitory activity by blocking GABA uptake.

75
Q

Which channels does lamotrigine block?
a. Sodium channels only.
b. Calcium channels only.
c. Sodium and high voltage-dependent calcium channels.
d. Potassium channels.

A

The correct answer is: c. Sodium and high voltage-dependent calcium channels.

76
Q

Lamotrigine is used to treat:
a. Partial seizures.
b. Generalized seizures.
c. Typical absence seizures.
d. All of the above.

A

The correct answer is: d. All of the above.

77
Q

Lamotrigine is also used in:
a. Schizophrenia.
b. Bipolar disorder.
c. Anxiety.
d. Depression.

A

The correct answer is: b. Bipolar disorder.

78
Q

Which drugs reduce the half-life of lamotrigine?
a. Enzyme-inhibiting drugs.
b. Enzyme-inducing drugs.
c. Both enzyme-inducing and enzyme-inhibiting drugs.
d. Neither enzyme-inducing nor enzyme-inhibiting drugs.

A

The correct answer is: b. Enzyme-inducing drugs.

79
Q

The half-life of lamotrigine is increased by:
a. Carbamazepine.
b. Valproate.
c. Phenytoin.
d. Phenobarbital.

A

The correct answer is: b. Valproate.

80
Q

Rapid titration of lamotrigine can cause:
a. Hair loss.
b. Rash.
c. Weight gain.
d. Dizziness.

A

The correct answer is: b. Rash.

81
Q

Lamotrigine is well tolerated by the elderly population due to:
a. High efficacy.
b. Minor side effects.
c. Rapid onset of action.
d. Low cost.

A

The correct answer is: b. Minor side effects.

82
Q

Levetiracetam is effective for:
a. Partial onset seizures.
b. Myoclonic seizures.
c. Primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
d. All of the above.

A

The correct answer is: d. All of the above.

83
Q

The action of levetiracetam is:
a. Well-known.
b. Unknown.
c. Similar to that of phenytoin.
d. Related to GABA inhibition.

A

The correct answer is: b. Unknown.

84
Q

Levetiracetam most probably acts on:
a. GABA receptors.
b. Sodium channels.
c. Synaptic vesicle protein SV2A.
d. Potassium channels.

A

The correct answer is: c. Synaptic vesicle protein SV2A.

85
Q

Levetiracetam has:
a. High drug-drug interactions.
b. Low drug-drug interactions.
c. No effect on drug interactions.
d. Moderate drug-drug interactions.

A

The correct answer is: b. Low drug-drug interactions.

86
Q

Phenobarbital enhances the effects of:
a. Dopamine.
b. Serotonin.
c. GABA-mediated neurons.
d. Glutamate.

A

The correct answer is: c. GABA-mediated neurons.

87
Q

Phenobarbital is primarily used in the treatment of:
a. Partial seizures.
b. Generalized seizures.
c. Status epilepticus.
d. Absence seizures.

A

The correct answer is: c. Status epilepticus.

88
Q

Phenobarbital is considered for chronic therapy only in:
a. Refractory patients.
b. Newly diagnosed patients.
c. Patients with mild seizures.
d. All patients.

A

The correct answer is: a. Refractory patients.

89
Q

Phenobarbital is not preferred for long-term use due to:
a. Low efficacy.
b. High side effects such as sedation and osteoporosis.
c. Cost.
d. Limited availability.

A

The correct answer is: b. High side effects such as sedation and osteoporosis.

90
Q

Felbamate has a broad spectrum of action by:
a. Blocking sodium channels.
b. Blocking calcium channels.
c. Potentiating the action of GABA.
d. All of the above.

A

The correct answer is: d. All of the above.

91
Q

Felbamate is an inhibitor of drugs metabolized by:
a. CYP2D6.
b. CYP2C19 and β-oxidation.
c. CYP1A2.
d. CYP3A4.

A

The correct answer is: b. CYP2C19 and β-oxidation.

92
Q

Felbamate induces drugs metabolized by:
a. CYP2D6.
b. CYP2C19.
c. CYP3A4.
d. CYP1A2.

A

The correct answer is: c. CYP3A4.

93
Q

Felbamate is used only in refractory epilepsies due to:
a. High efficacy.
b. Risk of aplastic anemia and heart failure.
c. Low cost.
d. Easy administration.

A

The correct answer is: b. Risk of aplastic anemia and heart failure.

94
Q

Divalproex sodium is a combination of:
a. Sodium valproate and valproic acid.
b. Sodium valproate and phenytoin.
c. Sodium valproate and carbamazepine.
d. Sodium valproate and lamotrigine.

A

The correct answer is: a. Sodium valproate and valproic acid.

95
Q

The primary purpose of converting divalproex sodium to valproate in the gastrointestinal tract is to:
a. Improve the absorption of valproic acid.
b. Improve the GIT tolerance of valproic acid.
c. Enhance the efficacy of valproic acid.
d. Reduce the side effects of valproic acid.

A

The correct answer is: b. Improve the GIT tolerance of valproic acid.

96
Q

The mechanism of action of valproic acid includes all the following EXCEPT:
a. Sodium channel blockade.
b. Blockade of GABA transaminase.
c. Blockade action at the t-type calcium channels.
d. Inhibition of serotonin reuptake.

A

The correct answer is: d. Inhibition of serotonin reuptake.

97
Q

Which of the following describes the activity spectrum of valproic acid?
a. Narrow spectrum of activity.
b. Broad spectrum of activity.
c. Limited spectrum of activity.
d. Specific spectrum of activity.

A

The correct answer is: b. Broad spectrum of activity.

98
Q

Valproic acid is effective for the treatment of:
a. Partial and primary generalized epilepsies.
b. Partial and secondary generalized epilepsies.
c. Primary and absence epilepsies.
d. Secondary and myoclonic epilepsies.

A

The correct answer is: a. Partial and primary generalized epilepsies.

99
Q

Valproic acid inhibits the metabolism of:
a. CYP2C9, UGT, and epoxide hydrolase systems.
b. CYP3A4, UGT, and epoxide hydrolase systems.
c. CYP2D6, UGT, and epoxide hydrolase systems.
d. CYP1A2, UGT, and epoxide hydrolase systems.

A

The correct answer is: a. CYP2C9, UGT, and epoxide hydrolase systems.

100
Q

A rare adverse effect of valproic acid is:
a. Nephrotoxicity.
b. Hepatic toxicity.
c. Cardiotoxicity.
d. Pulmonary toxicity.

A

The correct answer is: b. Hepatic toxicity.

101
Q

Valproic acid is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its:
a. Teratogenic effect causing neural tube defects.
b. High risk of hypertension.
c. Increased risk of gestational diabetes.
d. Potential to cause respiratory distress in the fetus.

A

The correct answer is: a. Teratogenic effect causing neural tube defects.

102
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is NOT associated with Topiramate?
a. Blocking voltage-dependent sodium channels.
b. Increasing the frequency of chloride channel opening.
c. Inhibiting high-voltage calcium currents & Acts at NMDA sites.
d. Blocking dopamine reuptake.

A

The correct answer is: d. Blocking dopamine reuptake.

103
Q

Topiramate increases CO2 levels in the brain by:
a. Blocking sodium channels.
b. Acting as a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.
c. Enhancing glutamate activity.
d. Blocking potassium channels.

A

The correct answer is: b. Acting as a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.

104
Q

Topiramate is used in the treatment of:
a. Partial and primary generalized epilepsy.
b. Myoclonic and absence epilepsy.
c. Absence and atonic epilepsy.
d. Secondary and myoclonic epilepsy.

A

The correct answer is: a. Partial and primary generalized epilepsy.

105
Q

Topiramate is also used in the treatment of:
a. Hypertension.
b. Migraine.
c. Diabetes.
d. Asthma.

A

The correct answer is: b. Migraine.

106
Q

Drugs that induce topiramate are:
A. Gabapentin.
B. Phenytoin.
C. Carbamazepine.
D. B+C

A

The correct answer is: D. B+C.

107
Q

Topiramate inhibits which enzyme?
a. CYP2C9.
b. CYP3A4.
c. CYP2C19.
d. CYP2D6.

A

The correct answer is: c. CYP2C19.

108
Q

Coadministration of topiramate with ethinyl estradiol requires:
a. No additional precautions.
b. Increased dosage of topiramate.
c. Use of additional methods of birth control.
d. Discontinuation of ethinyl estradiol.

A

The correct answer is: c. Use of additional methods of birth control.

109
Q

An adverse effect of topiramate is:
a. Insomnia.
b. Somnolence.
c. Hyperactivity.
d. Increased appetite.

A

The correct answer is: b. Somnolence.

110
Q

Topiramate can cause weight loss due to:
a. Increased metabolism.
b. Anorexia.
c. Hyperactivity.
d. Reduced absorption of fats.

A

The correct answer is: b. Anorexia.

111
Q

Paresthesias as a side effect of topiramate refers to:
a. Hair loss.
b. Abnormal sensation.
c. Muscle weakness.
d. Joint pain.

A

The correct answer is: b. Abnormal sensation.

112
Q

Topiramate may cause renal stones due to:
a. Increased calcium excretion.
b. Metabolic acidosis.
c. Dehydration.
d. Increased protein intake.

A

The correct answer is: b. Metabolic acidosis.

113
Q

An ocular side effect of topiramate is:
a. Cataracts.
b. Glaucoma.
c. Retinitis.
d. Conjunctivitis.

A

The correct answer is: b. Glaucoma.

114
Q

Topiramate can cause oligohidrosis, leading to:
a. Hypothermia.
b. Hyperthermia.
c. Hypoglycemia.
d. Hypertension.

A

The correct answer is: b. Hyperthermia.

115
Q

Zonisamide has a:
a. Narrow spectrum of action.
b. Broad spectrum of action.
c. Specific spectrum of action.
d. Limited spectrum of action.

A

The correct answer is: b. Broad spectrum of action.

116
Q

The mechanism of action of Zonisamide includes all the following EXCEPT:
a. Blockade of both voltage-gated sodium channels and t-type calcium currents.
b. Limited amount of carbonic anhydrase activity.
c. Blockade of potassium channels.
d. Used in partial epilepsy.

A

The correct answer is: c. Blockade of potassium channels.

117
Q

Zonisamide is primarily used in the treatment of:
a. Primary generalized epilepsy.
b. Secondary generalized epilepsy.
c. Partial epilepsy.
d. Absence epilepsy.

A

The correct answer is: c. Partial epilepsy.

118
Q

Which of the following is a side effect of Zonisamide?
a. Hepatotoxicity.
b. CNS toxicity.
c. Nephrotoxicity.
d. Cardiotoxicity.

A

The correct answer is: b. CNS toxicity.

119
Q

Zonisamide can cause kidney stones due to:
a. Increased sodium excretion.
b. Metabolic acidosis from carbonic anhydrase inhibition.
c. Dehydration.
d. Increased calcium intake.

A

The correct answer is: b. Metabolic acidosis from carbonic anhydrase inhibition.

120
Q

An increase in temperature as a side effect of Zonisamide indicates:
a. Hypothermia.
b. Hyperthermia.
c. Pyrexia.
d. Fever.

A

The correct answer is: b. Hyperthermia.

121
Q

Zonisamide can cause oligohidrosis, leading to:
a. Hypothermia.
b. Hyperthermia.
c. Hypoglycemia.
d. Hypertension.

A

The correct answer is: b. Hyperthermia.

122
Q

Ethosuximide inhibits:
a. Sodium channels.
b. Potassium channels.
c. T-type calcium channels.
d. GABA reuptake.

A

The correct answer is: c. T-type calcium channels.

123
Q

Ethosuximide is effective in the treatment of:
a. Primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
b. Partial seizures.
c. Myoclonic seizures.
d. Primary generalized absence seizures.

A

The correct answer is: d. Primary generalized absence seizures.

124
Q

The use of Ethosuximide is limited because of its:
a. Broad spectrum of activity.
b. High toxicity.
c. Very narrow spectrum of activity.
d. High cost.

A

The correct answer is: c. Very narrow spectrum of activity.

Final Revision (9 decks)

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